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Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organisms is not NOT classified as a microorganism?

A

Plants

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2
Q

Of the following types of organisms, which are typically the smallest?

A

Viruses

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3
Q

Which of the following IS true about microorganisms?

A

Different types have different growth requirements

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4
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease are called?

A

Pathogens

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5
Q

Acellular, parasitic particles composed of nucleic acid and proteins are called?

A

Viruses

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6
Q

This man was the first to discover microorganisms and he called them “anamalcules”

A

Antoni van Leeuwenhoec

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7
Q

Which of the following is not one of the properties which are used to classify media?

A

The media is sterile

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8
Q

Which of the following demonstrates the correct order with respect to the different levels of biological classification?

A

Family, Genus, Species

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9
Q

Which of the following affects the resolution of an image when looking through a microscope?

A

The working distance, The wavelength of the light being used, Numerical aperture

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10
Q

The _____ is the part of the flagella that is attached to the cell envelope of a prokaryotic cell?

A

The basal body

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11
Q

If a cell has multiple flagella at one pole of the cell, what type of flagellar arrangement does the cell have?

A

Lophotrichous

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12
Q

In prokaryotes, which external structure is responsible for the adhesive properties of the cell?

A

Fimbriae

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13
Q

Some bacteria cells can exchange portions of their genome via a process called conjugation through a structure called the?

A

Pilus

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14
Q

What types of molecules make up peptidoglycan?

A

Peptide & Carbohydrate

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phylum of the domain prokaryote?

A

Cyanobacteria

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16
Q

Some cells, are pleomorphic?

A

Due to the fact that they lack a typical cell wall, meaning the can have varying shapes and sizes

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17
Q

A bacterial cell responds to light and moves away from it?

A

Negative phototaxis

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18
Q

Which of the following refers to the type of interaction between two prokaryotic population in which one population benefits and the other is not affected?

A

Commensalism

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19
Q

Which of the following bacterial species is classified as high G+C gram positive?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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20
Q

Which of the deeply branching bacteria is considered a polyextremophile and can live in many environments other organisms could not survive in?

A

Deinococcus radiodurans

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21
Q

Study of organisms to small to be seen without magnification?

A

Microbiology

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22
Q

_________ was the early belief that some forms of life could arise from vital forces present in nonliving or decomposing matter?

A

Spontaneous generation

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23
Q

Who is credidted for definitively refuiting the theory of spontaneous generation using broth in swanneck flask?

A

Louis Pasteur

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24
Q

Who were the 2 major contributors to the theory of germ disease?

A

Joseph Lister & Robert Koch

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25
______ media allows the growth of several types of microbes and displays visible difference among those microbes?
Differentiated
26
_______ media contains one or more agents that inhibit the growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes?
Selective
27
_______ is a piece of equipment, used in the lab, to sterilize media and other supplies
Autoclave
28
What temperature is generally used for sterilization using the autoclave?
121 degrees Celsius (15 PSI)
29
Microscope and you are using the 40X objective what is the total magnification of the object you are viewing?
40x10=400
30
The cell envelope consists of the ____ and the ____ ?
Cell wall & Cell Membrane
31
What staining process is typically the first process one would use when identifying an unknown bacterium?
Gram Stain
32
What does it mean if the bacteria are pink after a Gram stain?
Negative
33
Due to their high degree of uniqueness _____ are known as “the other prokaryotes”?
Archaea
34
What are 2 of the 4 types of light microscopy?
Bright field & Dark field
35
Which type of microscope has the best resolution to see structures?
Scanning electron microscope (SEM)
36
What is the standard resource for identifying bacteria?
Bergeys Manual
37
Function of smooth ER?
Make cellular product. Ie: hormones & lipids
38
Function of Golgi apparatus?
Bundle macromolecules like proteins & lipids
39
Function of Mitochrondria?
Produces energy ATP
40
Function of chloroplasts?
Photosynthesis
41
What affliction is Helicobater pylori associated with in humans?
Chronic gastritis, stomach ulcers, stomach cancer
42
Rickettsia rickettsia is responsible for causing what disease in humans?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
43
Which of the following is NOT a function of the glycocalyx in some Eukaryotic cells?
Function in motility
44
Which of the following IS true about Eukaryotic flagella?
They rotate to propel the organism
45
Which of the following statements IS true about organisms that belong to the Kingdom Fungi?
Most are heterotrophic saprobes
46
What type of reproductive spore is produced by an organism that belongs to the Division Zygomycota of the Kingdom Fungi?
Zygospores
47
Which of the following IS true about decomposers?
Feed on decaying matter, include fungi and some bacteria, return nutrients to the environment when they die
48
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Helminths we discussed in class?
They reproduce asexually
49
Which of the following statements about viruses IS true?
Their basic structure consists of a nucleocapsid
50
The basic morphologies of viruses include all of the following EXCEPT:
Complete
51
Where are DNA viruses generally replicated?
In the nucleus
52
Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses discussed in class?
These are all cytopathic effects of viruses
53
Which of the following is NOT considered a noncellular infectious agent?
Prions, Satellite viruses, Viroid
54
Endocytosis is?
Is one way by which viruses can infect their host cell, is a process by which a cell can take in liquid or dissolved nutrients, is a process by which organisms can take in solid nutrients
55
What type of nucleic acid is found in viruses that require reverse transcriptase?
Negative-sense RNA
56
The 4 major macromolecules are formed through what type of reaction?
Dehydration
57
Organelle in which protein sorting and packaging occurs?
Golgi apparatus
58
Organelle in which cellular respiration occurs?
Mitochondria
59
Organelle in which photosynthesis occurs?
Chloroplasts
60
Organelle in which protein synthesis occurs?
Ribosomes
61
Apicomplexa motility?
Flagella only in male gametes
62
Ciliophora motility?
Cilia
63
Mastigophora motility?
Flagella
64
Sarcodina motility?
Pseudopods
65
Lipid macromolecule?
Ester
66
Nucleic acids macromolecule?
Phosphodiester
67
Carbohydrates macromolecules?
Glycosidic
68
Protein macromolecule?
Peptide
69
Give a heterotrophic protest example and the phylum?
Amoebas – Amoebozoa
70
Give a autotrophic protest example and the phylum?
Green algae, red algae – chlorophyta
71
What structure do ascospores form in?
Ascus
72
How many ascospres are produced in each of the structures?
4-8
73
Trypanosoma brucei is responsible for what disease? What organism is responsible for transmission of the disease to humans?
African sleeping sickness, Tse Tse Fly
74
Name of the mouth portion of worms?
Scolex
75
What are some examples of mouth parts?
Suckers, barbs, hooks
76
Developed rabies vaccine?
Louis Pasteur
77
A _____ is a virus that affects bacteria?
Bacteriophage
78
Which of the following extremophiles is NOT matched with its proper environment?
Halophiles – low salt concentrations | *Halophiles thrive in high salt concentrations
79
Which of the following microbes are considered to be the most resistant to methods used for microbial control?
Bacterial endospores
80
________ is a process used to destroy vegetative pathogens, but not endospores on inanimate objects?
Disinfection
81
Consider microbial control, which of the following factors does not influence the death rate of undesirable microorganisms?
The presence of water
82
Surfactants are molecules that affect _____ of some microorganisms?
The cell membrane
83
Which of the following is NOT used as a physical method for microbial growth?
Gases
84
Which of the following is used to remove microbes, but not inhibit or destroy them?
Filtration
85
Microbial agents that inhibit growth are termed _____ agents?
Microbistatic
86
The shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature is the _____?
Thermal death time
87
Which of the following does NOT need to be considered when using an autoclave to decontaminate materials?
Whether the materials are light sensitive
88
The use of non-pressurized steam to disinfect objects?
Tyndallization
89
Which of the following methods for microbial control is the least effective?
Dessication
90
Which of the following methods for microbial control is the most effective (even against endospores)?
Autoclaving
91
Which of the following is NOT a desirable quality for chemicals used for microbial control?
High toxicity
92
Which of the following germicidal agents is not a halogen?
Phenol
93
All of the following germicidal agents affect microorganisms by interfering with proteins EXCEPT:
Hydrogen peroxides
94
What category of antimicrobial agents can be found in more than one third of all chemical antimicrobial agents?
Halogens
95
Detergents are?
Low-level germicides
96
Antibiotics are common metabolic products of?
Aerobic bacteria
97
Is penicillin more effective on gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria?
It is only effective against gram-positive bacteria
98
Antimicrobial agents that interact with phospholipids and cause leakage of proteins and ions are?
Polymycins
99
More than half of the antimicrobic drugs used today are?
Beta-Lactams
100
Which of the following is NOT true about cephalosprins?
The first generation has the widest range of antimicrobial properties and the least negative side effects
101
Drugs that act on DNA or RNA synthesis include?
Fluoroquinolones
102
Drugs that act on protein synthesis include?
Chloramphenicol
103
Streptomycin and gentamicin inhibit cells by inhibiting?
Protein synthesis
104
What group contains the first antimicrobic drugs?
Sulfonamides
105
Antimalaria drugs are?
Quinines
106
Which of the following would be more effective when targeting a gram negative bacteria, like E. coli?
One that affects the cell membrane
107
Which of the following would be more effect when targeting a gram positive bacteria, like S. aureus?
One that affects the cell wall
108
Which of the following types of antibiotics act through competitive inhibition, thus affecting metabolic pathways?
Sulfonomides
109
What drug disrupts the cell membranes of fungal cells by associating with sterol molecules?
Amphotericin B
110
What type of drug is used to treat methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus?
Oxazolidinones
111
When identifying an unknown bacterium, what staining method would you use first?
Gram-stain
112
There are many test utilizing different types of media that are used to identify an unknown bacterium. What can these test tell you about the unknown organism?
What type of respiration the organism undergoes, Whether the bacteria have cellular structure for motility, and what type of metabolic processes the bacteria undergoes
113
What temperature is optimal for most bacteria that cause infections?
37 degrees Celsius
114
The temperature/pressure combination used in an autoclave is?
121 degrees Celsius & 15 PSI
115
Pathogenicity is a concept that describes the organism ability to?
Cause an infection
116
Why is it difficult to develop drugs for viral infections?
Because viruses live on a host cell, so if we make drugs to kill them we are potentially only killing ourselves
117
What are synergistic effects?
Effects that occur because of two things working together
118
Why are bacteria easier to target than fungi?
Bacteria require a host to complete life cycles; bacteria cell walls also have peptidoglycan. Fungi do not require a host to complete life cycles, fungal cell walls have chitin.
119
Broad spectrum?
Effective against a large variety of organisms
120
Narrow spectrum?
Effective against only a limited range of organisms
121
Name one genus of bacteria that commonly produce antibiotics?
Streptomyces
122
Name one genus of mold that commonly produces antibiotics?
Penicillium
123
What agents can be applied directly to the skin?
Antiseptics
124
What is desiccation?
Desiccation is the drying out of the cell

Micobiology (15 decks)

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