Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organisms is not NOT classified as a microorganism?

A

Plants

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2
Q

Of the following types of organisms, which are typically the smallest?

A

Viruses

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3
Q

Which of the following IS true about microorganisms?

A

Different types have different growth requirements

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4
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease are called?

A

Pathogens

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5
Q

Acellular, parasitic particles composed of nucleic acid and proteins are called?

A

Viruses

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6
Q

This man was the first to discover microorganisms and he called them “anamalcules”

A

Antoni van Leeuwenhoec

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7
Q

Which of the following is not one of the properties which are used to classify media?

A

The media is sterile

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8
Q

Which of the following demonstrates the correct order with respect to the different levels of biological classification?

A

Family, Genus, Species

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9
Q

Which of the following affects the resolution of an image when looking through a microscope?

A

The working distance, The wavelength of the light being used, Numerical aperture

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10
Q

The _____ is the part of the flagella that is attached to the cell envelope of a prokaryotic cell?

A

The basal body

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11
Q

If a cell has multiple flagella at one pole of the cell, what type of flagellar arrangement does the cell have?

A

Lophotrichous

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12
Q

In prokaryotes, which external structure is responsible for the adhesive properties of the cell?

A

Fimbriae

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13
Q

Some bacteria cells can exchange portions of their genome via a process called conjugation through a structure called the?

A

Pilus

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14
Q

What types of molecules make up peptidoglycan?

A

Peptide & Carbohydrate

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phylum of the domain prokaryote?

A

Cyanobacteria

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16
Q

Some cells, are pleomorphic?

A

Due to the fact that they lack a typical cell wall, meaning the can have varying shapes and sizes

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17
Q

A bacterial cell responds to light and moves away from it?

A

Negative phototaxis

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18
Q

Which of the following refers to the type of interaction between two prokaryotic population in which one population benefits and the other is not affected?

A

Commensalism

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19
Q

Which of the following bacterial species is classified as high G+C gram positive?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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20
Q

Which of the deeply branching bacteria is considered a polyextremophile and can live in many environments other organisms could not survive in?

A

Deinococcus radiodurans

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21
Q

Study of organisms to small to be seen without magnification?

A

Microbiology

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22
Q

_________ was the early belief that some forms of life could arise from vital forces present in nonliving or decomposing matter?

A

Spontaneous generation

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23
Q

Who is credidted for definitively refuiting the theory of spontaneous generation using broth in swanneck flask?

A

Louis Pasteur

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24
Q

Who were the 2 major contributors to the theory of germ disease?

A

Joseph Lister & Robert Koch

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25
Q

______ media allows the growth of several types of microbes and displays visible difference among those microbes?

A

Differentiated

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26
Q

_______ media contains one or more agents that inhibit the growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes?

A

Selective

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27
Q

_______ is a piece of equipment, used in the lab, to sterilize media and other supplies

A

Autoclave

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28
Q

What temperature is generally used for sterilization using the autoclave?

A

121 degrees Celsius (15 PSI)

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29
Q

Microscope and you are using the 40X objective what is the total magnification of the object you are viewing?

A

40x10=400

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30
Q

The cell envelope consists of the ____ and the ____ ?

A

Cell wall & Cell Membrane

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31
Q

What staining process is typically the first process one would use when identifying an unknown bacterium?

A

Gram Stain

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32
Q

What does it mean if the bacteria are pink after a Gram stain?

A

Negative

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33
Q

Due to their high degree of uniqueness _____ are known as “the other prokaryotes”?

A

Archaea

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34
Q

What are 2 of the 4 types of light microscopy?

A

Bright field & Dark field

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35
Q

Which type of microscope has the best resolution to see structures?

A

Scanning electron microscope (SEM)

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36
Q

What is the standard resource for identifying bacteria?

A

Bergeys Manual

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37
Q

Function of smooth ER?

A

Make cellular product. Ie: hormones & lipids

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38
Q

Function of Golgi apparatus?

A

Bundle macromolecules like proteins & lipids

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39
Q

Function of Mitochrondria?

A

Produces energy ATP

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40
Q

Function of chloroplasts?

A

Photosynthesis

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41
Q

What affliction is Helicobater pylori associated with in humans?

A

Chronic gastritis, stomach ulcers, stomach cancer

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42
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia is responsible for causing what disease in humans?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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43
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the glycocalyx in some Eukaryotic cells?

A

Function in motility

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44
Q

Which of the following IS true about Eukaryotic flagella?

A

They rotate to propel the organism

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45
Q

Which of the following statements IS true about organisms that belong to the Kingdom Fungi?

A

Most are heterotrophic saprobes

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46
Q

What type of reproductive spore is produced by an organism that belongs to the Division Zygomycota of the Kingdom Fungi?

A

Zygospores

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47
Q

Which of the following IS true about decomposers?

A

Feed on decaying matter, include fungi and some bacteria, return nutrients to the environment when they die

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48
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Helminths we discussed in class?

A

They reproduce asexually

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49
Q

Which of the following statements about viruses IS true?

A

Their basic structure consists of a nucleocapsid

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50
Q

The basic morphologies of viruses include all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Complete

51
Q

Where are DNA viruses generally replicated?

A

In the nucleus

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses discussed in class?

A

These are all cytopathic effects of viruses

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a noncellular infectious agent?

A

Prions, Satellite viruses, Viroid

54
Q

Endocytosis is?

A

Is one way by which viruses can infect their host cell, is a process by which a cell can take in liquid or dissolved nutrients, is a process by which organisms can take in solid nutrients

55
Q

What type of nucleic acid is found in viruses that require reverse transcriptase?

A

Negative-sense RNA

56
Q

The 4 major macromolecules are formed through what type of reaction?

A

Dehydration

57
Q

Organelle in which protein sorting and packaging occurs?

A

Golgi apparatus

58
Q

Organelle in which cellular respiration occurs?

A

Mitochondria

59
Q

Organelle in which photosynthesis occurs?

A

Chloroplasts

60
Q

Organelle in which protein synthesis occurs?

A

Ribosomes

61
Q

Apicomplexa motility?

A

Flagella only in male gametes

62
Q

Ciliophora motility?

A

Cilia

63
Q

Mastigophora motility?

A

Flagella

64
Q

Sarcodina motility?

A

Pseudopods

65
Q

Lipid macromolecule?

A

Ester

66
Q

Nucleic acids macromolecule?

A

Phosphodiester

67
Q

Carbohydrates macromolecules?

A

Glycosidic

68
Q

Protein macromolecule?

A

Peptide

69
Q

Give a heterotrophic protest example and the phylum?

A

Amoebas – Amoebozoa

70
Q

Give a autotrophic protest example and the phylum?

A

Green algae, red algae – chlorophyta

71
Q

What structure do ascospores form in?

A

Ascus

72
Q

How many ascospres are produced in each of the structures?

A

4-8

73
Q

Trypanosoma brucei is responsible for what disease? What organism is responsible for transmission of the disease to humans?

A

African sleeping sickness, Tse Tse Fly

74
Q

Name of the mouth portion of worms?

A

Scolex

75
Q

What are some examples of mouth parts?

A

Suckers, barbs, hooks

76
Q

Developed rabies vaccine?

A

Louis Pasteur

77
Q

A _____ is a virus that affects bacteria?

A

Bacteriophage

78
Q

Which of the following extremophiles is NOT matched with its proper environment?

A

Halophiles – low salt concentrations

*Halophiles thrive in high salt concentrations

79
Q

Which of the following microbes are considered to be the most resistant to methods used for microbial control?

A

Bacterial endospores

80
Q

________ is a process used to destroy vegetative pathogens, but not endospores on inanimate objects?

A

Disinfection

81
Q

Consider microbial control, which of the following factors does not influence the death rate of undesirable microorganisms?

A

The presence of water

82
Q

Surfactants are molecules that affect _____ of some microorganisms?

A

The cell membrane

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT used as a physical method for microbial growth?

A

Gases

84
Q

Which of the following is used to remove microbes, but not inhibit or destroy them?

A

Filtration

85
Q

Microbial agents that inhibit growth are termed _____ agents?

A

Microbistatic

86
Q

The shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature is the _____?

A

Thermal death time

87
Q

Which of the following does NOT need to be considered when using an autoclave to decontaminate materials?

A

Whether the materials are light sensitive

88
Q

The use of non-pressurized steam to disinfect objects?

A

Tyndallization

89
Q

Which of the following methods for microbial control is the least effective?

A

Dessication

90
Q

Which of the following methods for microbial control is the most effective (even against endospores)?

A

Autoclaving

91
Q

Which of the following is NOT a desirable quality for chemicals used for microbial control?

A

High toxicity

92
Q

Which of the following germicidal agents is not a halogen?

A

Phenol

93
Q

All of the following germicidal agents affect microorganisms by interfering with proteins EXCEPT:

A

Hydrogen peroxides

94
Q

What category of antimicrobial agents can be found in more than one third of all chemical antimicrobial agents?

A

Halogens

95
Q

Detergents are?

A

Low-level germicides

96
Q

Antibiotics are common metabolic products of?

A

Aerobic bacteria

97
Q

Is penicillin more effective on gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria?

A

It is only effective against gram-positive bacteria

98
Q

Antimicrobial agents that interact with phospholipids and cause leakage of proteins and ions are?

A

Polymycins

99
Q

More than half of the antimicrobic drugs used today are?

A

Beta-Lactams

100
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about cephalosprins?

A

The first generation has the widest range of antimicrobial properties and the least negative side effects

101
Q

Drugs that act on DNA or RNA synthesis include?

A

Fluoroquinolones

102
Q

Drugs that act on protein synthesis include?

A

Chloramphenicol

103
Q

Streptomycin and gentamicin inhibit cells by inhibiting?

A

Protein synthesis

104
Q

What group contains the first antimicrobic drugs?

A

Sulfonamides

105
Q

Antimalaria drugs are?

A

Quinines

106
Q

Which of the following would be more effective when targeting a gram negative bacteria, like E. coli?

A

One that affects the cell membrane

107
Q

Which of the following would be more effect when targeting a gram positive bacteria, like S. aureus?

A

One that affects the cell wall

108
Q

Which of the following types of antibiotics act through competitive inhibition, thus affecting metabolic pathways?

A

Sulfonomides

109
Q

What drug disrupts the cell membranes of fungal cells by associating with sterol molecules?

A

Amphotericin B

110
Q

What type of drug is used to treat methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus?

A

Oxazolidinones

111
Q

When identifying an unknown bacterium, what staining method would you use first?

A

Gram-stain

112
Q

There are many test utilizing different types of media that are used to identify an unknown bacterium. What can these test tell you about the unknown organism?

A

What type of respiration the organism undergoes, Whether the bacteria have cellular structure for motility, and what type of metabolic processes the bacteria undergoes

113
Q

What temperature is optimal for most bacteria that cause infections?

A

37 degrees Celsius

114
Q

The temperature/pressure combination used in an autoclave is?

A

121 degrees Celsius & 15 PSI

115
Q

Pathogenicity is a concept that describes the organism ability to?

A

Cause an infection

116
Q

Why is it difficult to develop drugs for viral infections?

A

Because viruses live on a host cell, so if we make drugs to kill them we are potentially only killing ourselves

117
Q

What are synergistic effects?

A

Effects that occur because of two things working together

118
Q

Why are bacteria easier to target than fungi?

A

Bacteria require a host to complete life cycles; bacteria cell walls also have peptidoglycan. Fungi do not require a host to complete life cycles, fungal cell walls have chitin.

119
Q

Broad spectrum?

A

Effective against a large variety of organisms

120
Q

Narrow spectrum?

A

Effective against only a limited range of organisms

121
Q

Name one genus of bacteria that commonly produce antibiotics?

A

Streptomyces

122
Q

Name one genus of mold that commonly produces antibiotics?

A

Penicillium

123
Q

What agents can be applied directly to the skin?

A

Antiseptics

124
Q

What is desiccation?

A

Desiccation is the drying out of the cell