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Year 3 repro > female pathology > Flashcards

female pathology Flashcards

1
Q

routes of pathogen entry into the female tract

A

ascending infection

haematogenous

descnd from ovary

transneural infection

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2
Q

4 developmental abrnomalities of the female tract

A
  • true hermaphrodite / pseudohermaphrodite
  • chimerism / free martinism
  • tract anomaly (segmental aplasia, persistnet hymen, duplication)
  • ovarian anomaly ( agenesis, hypoplasia, duplication, cysts, hamartoma)
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3
Q

what is the pathology of follicular cysts?

A

persist for 10d

due to lack of LH surge

become anovulatory

can be stress associated

give GnRH

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4
Q

how do follicular, luteal and CL affect fertility?

A

follicular and luteal cysts make the animal anovulatory

cystic CL still ovulate normally

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5
Q

name the 3 neoplasms of the ovaries

A
  • germ cell neoplasms
  • gonadal stromal neoplasm
  • epithelial neoplasm
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6
Q

what is a germ cell neoplasm?

A
  • dysgeminoma - from primitive germ cells, smooth, haemorrhage / necrosis, most benign

teratoma - benign

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7
Q

what is a gonadal stromal neoplasm?

A

granulosa cell tumour

thecoma

luteoma

may be active

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8
Q

what is an epithelial neoplasm?

A

cystadenoma / cystadenocarcinoma

bilateral and shaggy

esp bitch

may spread by implanting on peritoneum

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9
Q

name 3 pathologies of the fallopian tubes

A

hydrosalpinx

pyosalpinx

salpingitis

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10
Q

3 physical pathologies of the uterus

A

torsion (need a weight in uterus)

rupture

prolapse (inertia, dystocia , low calcium)

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11
Q

6 growth distrubances of the uterus

A

atrophy

polyps

hyperplasia ( can predispose to pyo)

mucometra / hydrometra

pseudopregnancy

subinvolution of placental sites

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12
Q

what is endometritis?

A

inflammatory infiltration to uterine mucosa

can become chronic and fibrous

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13
Q

cow endometritis pathogens

A

herpesvirus

tritrichomonas foetus

campylobacter

foetus ssp venerealis

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14
Q

mare endometritis pathogens

A

a haemolytic strep

klebsiella pneumonia

e.coli

taylorella equigenitalis

psuedomonas aeruginosa

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15
Q

what is metritis?

A

all layers of uterine wall affected

more severed than endometritis

haemorrhage on serosa

thickened odematus friable uterine wall

yellow-red exudate

foul odour

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16
Q

when is pyometra seen in the bitch?

A

older

nulliparous

p4 exposure

UTI

cystic endometrial hyperplasia can predispose

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17
Q

when is pyoetra seen in the cow?

A

early postpartum from endo/metritis

from venereal inf

persistent CL

high p4

always open so less severe

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18
Q

what causes pyometra in the sow?

A

truperella pyogenes

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19
Q

when is pyometra seen in the mare?

A

postpartum

always open

mare keeps cycling

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20
Q

3 neoplasias of the uterus

A
  • leiomyoma
  • carcinoma
  • lymphosarcoma
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21
Q

what is a leiomyoma?

A

smooth muscle neoplasm

often multiple, benign, firm , pink/white

see whorled muscle

oestrogen often involved

often in the bitch

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22
Q

what are the characteristics of a uterine carinoma?

A

often in the horns

fibrous, firm, metastatic

often cow

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23
Q

what are the characteristics of a uterine lymphosarcoma?

A

enxoonotic bovine leukosis can cause it

notifiable

yellow

friable

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24
Q

3 pathologies of the cervix

A

degenerative

trauma

infectious

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25
Q

what can cause cervix degeneration?

A

oestrogenic substances

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26
Q

non inflammatory pathologies of the vulva and vagina

A

persistent hymen

vaginal septum

rupture

stricture

tumefaction

hyperplasia

prolapse

cysts

polyps

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27
Q

inflammtory pathologies of the vulva and vagina

A

trauma

vaginitis

herpesvirus

dourine

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28
Q

4 types of neoplasms of vulva and vagina

A
  • leiomyoma
  • fibropapilloma
  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • transmissible venereal tumour
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29
Q

what causes a fibropapilloma?

A

bovine fibropapilloma virus

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30
Q

what do you see with squamous cell carcinoma?

A

ulcers

mets

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31
Q

what are the characteristics of a transmissible venereal tumous?

A

transferred during mating

nodule with bizarre nuclei

mets if in poor health

cells have 59 instead of 78 chromosomes

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32
Q

what is this?

A

luteal cyst

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33
Q

What is this?

A

cystic CL

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34
Q

What is this?

A

ovarian dysgerminoma

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35
Q

What is this

A

teratoma

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36
Q

What is this?

A

granulosa theca cell tumour

produce steroids

solid / cystic

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37
Q

What is this?

A

epithelial neoplasm

cyst adenoma

or

cyst carcinom

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38
Q

what is this

A

endometritis

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39
Q

what is this?

A

metritis

40
Q

what is this?

A

transmissible venereal tumour

41
Q

what is classified as an embryo?

A

from developing a long axis and major structures but not complete organogenesis

42
Q

what is classified as a foetus?

A

from complete organogenesis to birth

43
Q

what is an abortion?

A

premature expulsion of the products of conception from the uterus

fresh and non autolysed

44
Q

what do you see with rapid foetal death?

A

autolysed foetus

45
Q

what are the characteristic of early embryonic loss?

A

chromosome abnormalities

inherited disorders

uterine environment

can be expelled or resorbed

can return to oestrus at normal interval

infectious causes rare

46
Q

what can cause foetal loss?

A

non-viable

placentitis

foetal death

47
Q

what infections can cause embryonic death

A

ureaplasma spp

tritrichomona foetus

campylobacter spp

48
Q

what are the consequences fo the embryo of early embryonic death?

A

expulsion or resorption

49
Q

what are the consequences to the foetus after foetal death?

A

aborted

stillborn

retained (mummified, macerated, emphysema)

50
Q

what is mummification?

A

no bacterial infection

foetal skin is developed enough to withstand autolysis

absorption of placental and foetal fluid

no odour

closed cervix

normal future breeding

51
Q

what is maceration?

A

liquified foetus with bacterial uterine inf

foetal bones not macerated

foetid odour

52
Q

what is emphysema?

A

putrefactive organism ascended from the vagina

associated with dystocia or incomplete abortion

foul gas, uterine lesions, fatal to dam from toxaemia

53
Q

non infectious causes of abortion

A

dystocia

twins

umbilical cord anomalies

placental insufficiencies

genetic

abnormal adrenal / pituitary

husbandry

seasonal

toxins

nutrition

stress

54
Q

ovine infectious causes of abortion

A

most : chlamydophilia

toxoplasma

campylobacter

salmonella

least: listeria
also: brucella, coxiella burnetti, BDV (pestivirus), bluetongue (orbivirus), schmallenberg

55
Q

bovine infectious causes of abortion

A

most: bacillus licheniformis

neospora

trueperella pyogenes

s.dublin

campylobacter

least: BVDv
also: brucella, salmonella, leptospira, coxiella burnettis, IBR, schmallengberg

56
Q

porcine infectious causes of abortion

A

most: PRRS

parvo

strep

leptospira

least: pasturella
also: brucella, salmonella, aujeszkys, CSF

57
Q

equine infectious causes of abortion

A

EHV

placentitis

salmonella

leptospira

streptococcus zooepidemicus

EVA

58
Q

how do you diagnose bacterial and fungal abortion?

A

culture foetal stomach contents

selective bacterial culture

histopath

serology

59
Q

how do you diagnose viral causes of abortion?

A

PCT

hyistopath

IHC

serology

60
Q

what is the fungal cause of abortion? and how does it appear?

A

aspergillus fumigatus

thick leathery placenta covered with exudate

elevated greying plaques on foetal skin and eyelid

61
Q

3 protozoal causes of abortion

A

neospora caninum

tritrichomonas foetus

toxoplasma gondii

62
Q

how is neospora caninum spread?

A

persistent inf in cattle

hotizontal transmission in dog

vertical transmission in cow

63
Q

how is tritrichomonas foetus spread and what does it do?

A

cow coitus

foetal maceration

pyometra

2-4 m in gestation

64
Q

what do you see wtih toxoplasma gondii?

A

lots of barren ewes and late abortions

from cat faeces

zoonotic

65
Q

which bacterial causes of abortion cause late abortion?

A

brucella

salmonella

leptospira

listeria

chlamydophila

coxiella burnetti

strep

66
Q

what bacterial causes of abortion cause abortion throughout gestation?

A

campylobacter

bacillus

trueperlla

67
Q

what are the dog causes of abortion?

A

brucella

salmonella

campylobacter foetus

CHV

distemper

68
Q

what is this lesions in the genital tract?

A
  • large, smooth, round vaginal mass
  • microscopically smooth muscle and fibrous stroma
  • benign leiomyome / fibroleiomyoma
69
Q

A and B show what?

C is form a peritoneal tap from animal A/B

D is from a different species

What is diagnosis for A/B/C and what animal is D

A

A +B - small white masses extending over peritoneum

C - nuclear :cytoplasmic ratio increased, different sized cells with differing nuclear size

A + B +C diagnosis - malignant ovarian tumour that has spread throughout peritoneal cavity as the small gap between ovary and fallopian tube means the mets can see throughout the abdomen

D - chicken ovary

70
Q

how does mastitis appear in SA?

A

postparum

firm swollen

painful

pyrexia

depression

inappetance

71
Q

what is glactostasis?

A

warm, firm, swollen painful glands

no infection

self resolving

72
Q

what is galactorrhea?

A

lactation not associated with normal pregnancy

stop food for 24 hr and self limits

73
Q

who is mammary hyperplasia common in?

A

young entire cats 2-4 w after oestrus due to high p4

resolves

biopsy

neuter to prevent

74
Q

what is the incidence of mammary neoplasia?

A

more common in the bitch than queen

more malignant in queen than bitch

75
Q

how can mammary neoplasia be prevented?

A

neuter

76
Q

what indicates a mammary neoplasia may be benign or non-mets?

A

oestrogen and progesterone receptors as better differentiated

normally has better response to treatment

77
Q

risk factors for mammary neoplasia?

A

old age

obesity in ealry life

progestagen treatment

previous benign treatment

intact after 3rd season

78
Q

what is an inflammatory carcinoma on the mammary glands?

A

uncommon and aggressive

presents as a diffuse swelling

repidly progresses, metastatic, systemically ill

about 1 m to live

79
Q

types of mammary neoplasia?

A

benign - adenoma / fibro-adenoma / fibroma

malignant - carcinoma, sarcoma (worse)

80
Q

how is mammary neoplasia staged?

A

TNM

T1 =<3cm

T2 = 3-5cm

T3 = >5cm

81
Q

how can you diagnose mammary neoplasia?

A

Rads - mets

US

FNA

surgical biopsy

IHC (presence of hormone receptors, expensive and not really needed)

82
Q

medical treatment of mammary neoplasia?

A

never done solely

can use chemo as adjunctive therapy

83
Q

what type of mammary neoplasia can you not surgically remove?

A

inflammatory carcinoma

84
Q

how do you operate on feline mammary neoplasia?

A

always remove the whole chain (unilateral mastecomy) as very high chance of recurrence

85
Q

what are the 5 different surgical options for canine mammary noeplasia?

A

lumpectomy

simple mastectomy

regional mastectomy

unilateral mastecomy

bilateral mastectomy

86
Q

what is a lumpectomy suitable for mammary neoplasia?

A

mass < 0.5 cm

encapsulated

non invasive

87
Q

what is a simple mastectomy and for what neoplasia is it used for?

A

excise entire gland with 2 cm margins

when mass > 1cm and involving most of the gland

88
Q

what is a regional mastectomy and what is used for?

A

excision of involved and adjacent gland with 2cm margins. If removing caudal 2 glands then remove inguinal LN also

multiple tumour or a tumour between glands

89
Q

what is a unilateral mastectomy and what is it used for?

A

excision of whole chain and inguinal LN

for multiple tumours , tumour in middle of glands, cats

less trauma than individual

need tension free closure

90
Q

What is a bilateral mastectomy and how do you do it?

A

remove both chains

masses in both chains

do staged unilateral mastectomy 2-3 w apart or else not enough skin closure

91
Q

what is the SA mammary anatomy?

A

cats - 4 pairs of gland

dogs - 5 pairs of glands

cranial ones drain to axillary LN

caudal ones drain to inguinal LN

92
Q

what should you do post op mammary surgery?

A

multimodal analgesia

bandage

clean drains

careful of tension

may get some hindlmib oedema from lymph disruption

93
Q

dogs prognostic factors for mammary neoplasia

A

tumour size

histology (sarcoma worst)

differentiation

invasive

LN involvement

mets

p4 / e2 receptors (better)

fixation to tissues (worse)

94
Q

non prognostic factors for mammary neoplasia?

A

site of tumour

type of surgery

number of tumours

doing OHE at same time

95
Q

median survival with mammary neoplasia?

A

about 1 yr

Year 3 repro (12 decks)

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