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I&I Past Exams > extra pharma Q's > Flashcards

extra pharma Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following targets peptidoglycan subunits (D-Ala-D-Ala region)?

a. penicillin
b. vancomycin
c. amoxicillin

A

b. vancomycin

it’s a glycopeptide antibiotic

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2
Q

Which of the following do beta-lactams inhibit?

a. bacterial autolytic enzymes
b. inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzymes
c. β-lactamases

A

b. inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzymes

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3
Q

Which of the following drug is NOT β-lactamase resistant?

a. Aztreonam
b. Meropenem
c. Cefotaxime

A

c. Cefotaxime

it’s a cephalosporin

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4
Q

Trimethoprim inhibits which enzyme?

a. dihydropteroate synthetase
b. dihydrofolate reductase

A

b. dihydrofolate reductase

a is inhabited by Sulfonamides

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5
Q

Which of the following affects both human and bacterial cells?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim

A

b. Trimethoprim

but the bacterial enzymes are more susceptible to it

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6
Q

Which of the following affects folic acid synthesis?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim
c. both

A

c. both

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7
Q

Which of the following is an analog of para˗aminobenzoic acid (PABA)?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim

A

a. Sulfonamide

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8
Q

Which of the following affects thymidylate synthesis?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim

A

b. Trimethoprim

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9
Q

Which TWO of these bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit?

a. aminoglycosides
b. lincosamides
c. tetracycline
d. cholramphenicol

A

b. lincosamides
&
d. cholramphenicol

(A&C bind to 30S)

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10
Q

Linezolid put the patient at risk of

a. yellow or brown teeth discoloration
b. bone marrow toxicity
c. grey baby syndrome

A

b. bone marrow toxicity

its an oxazolidinone

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11
Q

Patient has H. influenzae and is in critical condition, which can be prescribed?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid

A

a. chloramphenicol

used in life threatening situations because of adverse effects

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12
Q

Which of the following may inhibit hepatic activity?

a. digoxin
b. erythromycin
c. streptomycin
d. clindamycin

A

b. erythromycin

its a macrolide

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13
Q

Which of the following only treat aerobic and gram-negative bacteria?

a. oxazolidinones
b. tetracyclines
c. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides

A

d. aminoglycosides

the drug needs oxygen to enter via the oxygen-dependent transporter system

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14
Q

Which of the following has a side effect of developing cholestatic jaundice?

a. digoxin
b. erythromycin
c. streptomycin
d. clindamycin

A

b. erythromycin

a macrolide

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15
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of clindamycin?

a. hepatic toxicity
b. antibiotic-associated colitis
c. hematological effects
d. gray baby syndrome

A

b. antibiotic-associated colitis

a lincosamide

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16
Q

Which of the following blocks peptide translocation?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin

A

c. fusidic acid

also inhibits ribosome disassembly

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17
Q

Which of the following enter bacteria via diffusion?

a. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides
c. fluoroquinolones
d. oxazolidinones

A

c. fluoroquinolones

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18
Q

Which of the following treats skin and skin structure infections?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin

A

b. linezolid

Daptomycin is also indicated for skin

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19
Q

Which of the following is blocked to stop DNA separation?

a. DNA gyrase
b. topoisomerase 2
c. topoisomerase 3
d. topoisomerase 4

A

d. topoisomerase 4

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20
Q

How do fluoroquinolones differentiate between human and bacterial cells?

a. structurally different ribosomes
b. structurally different DNA topoisomerase enzyme
c. their cell wall

A

b. structurally different DNA topoisomerase enzyme

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21
Q

Which two antibiotic groups exhibit concentration-dependent killing and a prolonged post-antibiotic effect?

A

aminoglycosides (gentamicin and streptomycin)

fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)

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22
Q

Which of the following evades efflux pumps?

a. tetracycline
b. tigecycline
c. fusidic acid
d. daptomycin

A

b. tigecycline

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23
Q

Which of the following includes constipation as an adverse effect?

a. tetracycline
b. tigecycline
c. fusidic acid
d. daptomycin

A

d. daptomycin

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes amoxicillin and penicillin?

a. bind to the D-Ala-D-Ala region of peptidoglycan subunits
b. inhibit bacterial transpeptidase enzymes
c. activate inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzyme

A

b. inhibit bacterial transpeptidase enzymes

beta-lactams

25
Q

Which best describe clavulanic acid?

a. Resemble β-lactamases
b. Have no antibacterial activity
c. Destroy hydrolyzable β-lactams antibiotics

A

b. Have no antibacterial activity

they resemble β-lactams & bind to β-lactamases to disable them

26
Q

What is co-Amoxiclav?

A

amoxicillin (β-lactam) & a β-lactamase inhibitor

27
Q

What is co-trimoxazole?

A

Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim

28
Q

Which of the following has a side effect of thrombocytopenia?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin

A

b. linezolid

an oxalazidone

29
Q

Which of the following is often used with flucytosine?

a. amphotericin B
b. terbinafine
c. fluconazole
d. voriconazole

A

a. amphotericin B

30
Q

Which of the following causes gynecomastia?

a. ketoconazole
b. fluconazole
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine

A

a. ketoconazole

31
Q

Which of the following causes squalene to build up in a fungal cell?

a. griseofulvin
b. amphotericin
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine

A

d. terbinafine

32
Q

Which of the following requires a prolonged treatment?

a. griseofulvin
b. amphotericin
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine

A

a. griseofulvin

33
Q

Which of the following is used to treat ringworms and snail fungal infections?

a. griseofulvin
b. echinocandis
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine

A

d. terbinafine

34
Q

Which of the following may cause exfoliative skin lesions?

a. ketoconazole
b. terbinafine
c. fluconazole
d. voriconazole

A

c. fluconazole

35
Q

Which best describes voriconazole (or any other azole)?

a. inhibit 1,3-b-glucan
b. inhibit mitosis via microtubules
c. inhibits squalene epoxidase
d. inhibits inosine 14 alpha-demethylase

A

d. inhibits inosine 14 alpha-demethylase

aka fungal cytochrome P459 3A enzyme

36
Q

Which of the following treats invasive aspergillosis?

a. voriconazole
b. caspofungin
c. griseofulvin
d. fluconazole

A

b. caspofungin

candidiasis and invasive aspergillosis

37
Q

Which of the following interacts with fungal microtubules?

a. voriconazole
b. echinocandis
c. griseofulvin
d. fluconazole

A

c. griseofulvin

38
Q

Which polyene has a side effect of GI disturbances?

a. amphotericin B
b. nystatin

A

b. nystatin

39
Q

Which best describes flucytosine?

a. inhibit 1,3-b-glucan
b. inhibit mitosis via microtubules
c. inhibits squalene epoxidase
d. inhibits DNA synthesis

A

d. inhibits DNA synthesis

also disrupts protein synthesis

40
Q

Which of the following bind and disrupt the function of ergosterol?

a. fluconazole
b. flucytosine
c. nystatin
d. terbinafine

A

c. nystatin

amphotericin B also

41
Q

Which polyene has side effects of renal toxicity, impaired hepatic function, or a skin rash?

a. amphotericin B
b. nystatin

A

a. amphotericin B

42
Q

Which of the following describes Fomivirsen?

a. entry inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. translation inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor

A

c. translation inhibitor

43
Q

Which of the following describes Acyclovir & Ribavirin?

a. entry inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor

A

d. replication inhibitor

44
Q

Which of the following describes Maraviroc?

a. entry inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor

A

a. entry inhibitor

antagonizes the CCR5 co-receptor

45
Q

Which of the following describes Zidovudine?

a. virus release inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor

A

c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Nucleoside RTIs, Thymidine analog

46
Q

Which of the following describes Oseltamivir & Zanamivir?

a. virus release inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor

A

a. virus release inhibitor

47
Q

Which of the following describes amantadine?

a. virus release inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor

A

b. uncoating inhibitor

interfere w/ M2 ion channel

48
Q

Which of the following describes Saquinavir?

a. replication inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor

A

d. protease inhibitor

49
Q

Which of the following describes Raltegravir?

a. replication inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor

A

e. integrase inhibitor

50
Q

Which of the following inhibits mRNA cap formation?

a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin

A

b. Ribavirin

51
Q

Which of the following is a guanosine analog?

a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin

A

a. Acyclovir

52
Q

Which of the following decreases intracellular GTP?

a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin

A

b. Ribavirin

53
Q

Which of the following is a nucleoside RTIs?

a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine

A

c. zidovudine

54
Q

Which of the following is a nucleotide RTIs?

a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine

A

b. tenofovir

55
Q

Which of the following is a non-nucleoside RTIs?

a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine

A

a. nevirapine

56
Q

Which of the following is a thymidine analog?

a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine

A

c. zidovudine

57
Q

Which of the following is related to lipodystrophy?

a. replication inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor

A

d. protease inhibitor

Saquinavir

58
Q

Which of the following should NOT be used by an asthmatic patient?

a. Zanamivir
b. Oseltamivir

A

a. Zanamivir

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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