extra pharma Q's Flashcards
Which of the following targets peptidoglycan subunits (D-Ala-D-Ala region)?
a. penicillin
b. vancomycin
c. amoxicillin
b. vancomycin
it’s a glycopeptide antibiotic
Which of the following do beta-lactams inhibit?
a. bacterial autolytic enzymes
b. inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzymes
c. β-lactamases
b. inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzymes
Which of the following drug is NOT β-lactamase resistant?
a. Aztreonam
b. Meropenem
c. Cefotaxime
c. Cefotaxime
it’s a cephalosporin
Trimethoprim inhibits which enzyme?
a. dihydropteroate synthetase
b. dihydrofolate reductase
b. dihydrofolate reductase
a is inhabited by Sulfonamides
Which of the following affects both human and bacterial cells?
a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim
b. Trimethoprim
but the bacterial enzymes are more susceptible to it
Which of the following affects folic acid synthesis?
a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim
c. both
c. both
Which of the following is an analog of para˗aminobenzoic acid (PABA)?
a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim
a. Sulfonamide
Which of the following affects thymidylate synthesis?
a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim
b. Trimethoprim
Which TWO of these bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit?
a. aminoglycosides
b. lincosamides
c. tetracycline
d. cholramphenicol
b. lincosamides
&
d. cholramphenicol
(A&C bind to 30S)
Linezolid put the patient at risk of
a. yellow or brown teeth discoloration
b. bone marrow toxicity
c. grey baby syndrome
b. bone marrow toxicity
its an oxazolidinone
Patient has H. influenzae and is in critical condition, which can be prescribed?
a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
a. chloramphenicol
used in life threatening situations because of adverse effects
Which of the following may inhibit hepatic activity?
a. digoxin
b. erythromycin
c. streptomycin
d. clindamycin
b. erythromycin
its a macrolide
Which of the following only treat aerobic and gram-negative bacteria?
a. oxazolidinones
b. tetracyclines
c. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides
d. aminoglycosides
the drug needs oxygen to enter via the oxygen-dependent transporter system
Which of the following has a side effect of developing cholestatic jaundice?
a. digoxin
b. erythromycin
c. streptomycin
d. clindamycin
b. erythromycin
a macrolide
Which of the following is a side effect of clindamycin?
a. hepatic toxicity
b. antibiotic-associated colitis
c. hematological effects
d. gray baby syndrome
b. antibiotic-associated colitis
a lincosamide
Which of the following blocks peptide translocation?
a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin
c. fusidic acid
also inhibits ribosome disassembly
Which of the following enter bacteria via diffusion?
a. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides
c. fluoroquinolones
d. oxazolidinones
c. fluoroquinolones
Which of the following treats skin and skin structure infections?
a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin
b. linezolid
Daptomycin is also indicated for skin
Which of the following is blocked to stop DNA separation?
a. DNA gyrase
b. topoisomerase 2
c. topoisomerase 3
d. topoisomerase 4
d. topoisomerase 4
How do fluoroquinolones differentiate between human and bacterial cells?
a. structurally different ribosomes
b. structurally different DNA topoisomerase enzyme
c. their cell wall
b. structurally different DNA topoisomerase enzyme
Which two antibiotic groups exhibit concentration-dependent killing and a prolonged post-antibiotic effect?
aminoglycosides (gentamicin and streptomycin)
fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)
Which of the following evades efflux pumps?
a. tetracycline
b. tigecycline
c. fusidic acid
d. daptomycin
b. tigecycline
Which of the following includes constipation as an adverse effect?
a. tetracycline
b. tigecycline
c. fusidic acid
d. daptomycin
d. daptomycin
Which of the following best describes amoxicillin and penicillin?
a. bind to the D-Ala-D-Ala region of peptidoglycan subunits
b. inhibit bacterial transpeptidase enzymes
c. activate inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzyme
b. inhibit bacterial transpeptidase enzymes
beta-lactams
Which best describe clavulanic acid?
a. Resemble β-lactamases
b. Have no antibacterial activity
c. Destroy hydrolyzable β-lactams antibiotics
b. Have no antibacterial activity
they resemble β-lactams & bind to β-lactamases to disable them
What is co-Amoxiclav?
amoxicillin (β-lactam) & a β-lactamase inhibitor
What is co-trimoxazole?
Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim
Which of the following has a side effect of thrombocytopenia?
a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin
b. linezolid
an oxalazidone
Which of the following is often used with flucytosine?
a. amphotericin B
b. terbinafine
c. fluconazole
d. voriconazole
a. amphotericin B
Which of the following causes gynecomastia?
a. ketoconazole
b. fluconazole
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine
a. ketoconazole
Which of the following causes squalene to build up in a fungal cell?
a. griseofulvin
b. amphotericin
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine
d. terbinafine
Which of the following requires a prolonged treatment?
a. griseofulvin
b. amphotericin
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine
a. griseofulvin
Which of the following is used to treat ringworms and snail fungal infections?
a. griseofulvin
b. echinocandis
c. voriconazole
d. terbinafine
d. terbinafine
Which of the following may cause exfoliative skin lesions?
a. ketoconazole
b. terbinafine
c. fluconazole
d. voriconazole
c. fluconazole
Which best describes voriconazole (or any other azole)?
a. inhibit 1,3-b-glucan
b. inhibit mitosis via microtubules
c. inhibits squalene epoxidase
d. inhibits inosine 14 alpha-demethylase
d. inhibits inosine 14 alpha-demethylase
aka fungal cytochrome P459 3A enzyme
Which of the following treats invasive aspergillosis?
a. voriconazole
b. caspofungin
c. griseofulvin
d. fluconazole
b. caspofungin
candidiasis and invasive aspergillosis
Which of the following interacts with fungal microtubules?
a. voriconazole
b. echinocandis
c. griseofulvin
d. fluconazole
c. griseofulvin
Which polyene has a side effect of GI disturbances?
a. amphotericin B
b. nystatin
b. nystatin
Which best describes flucytosine?
a. inhibit 1,3-b-glucan
b. inhibit mitosis via microtubules
c. inhibits squalene epoxidase
d. inhibits DNA synthesis
d. inhibits DNA synthesis
also disrupts protein synthesis
Which of the following bind and disrupt the function of ergosterol?
a. fluconazole
b. flucytosine
c. nystatin
d. terbinafine
c. nystatin
amphotericin B also
Which polyene has side effects of renal toxicity, impaired hepatic function, or a skin rash?
a. amphotericin B
b. nystatin
a. amphotericin B
Which of the following describes Fomivirsen?
a. entry inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. translation inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
c. translation inhibitor
Which of the following describes Acyclovir & Ribavirin?
a. entry inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
Which of the following describes Maraviroc?
a. entry inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
a. entry inhibitor
antagonizes the CCR5 co-receptor
Which of the following describes Zidovudine?
a. virus release inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Nucleoside RTIs, Thymidine analog
Which of the following describes Oseltamivir & Zanamivir?
a. virus release inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
a. virus release inhibitor
Which of the following describes amantadine?
a. virus release inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
interfere w/ M2 ion channel
Which of the following describes Saquinavir?
a. replication inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
Which of the following describes Raltegravir?
a. replication inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
Which of the following inhibits mRNA cap formation?
a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin
b. Ribavirin
Which of the following is a guanosine analog?
a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin
a. Acyclovir
Which of the following decreases intracellular GTP?
a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin
b. Ribavirin
Which of the following is a nucleoside RTIs?
a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine
c. zidovudine
Which of the following is a nucleotide RTIs?
a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine
b. tenofovir
Which of the following is a non-nucleoside RTIs?
a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine
a. nevirapine
Which of the following is a thymidine analog?
a. nevirapine
b. tenofovir
c. zidovudine
c. zidovudine
Which of the following is related to lipodystrophy?
a. replication inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
Saquinavir
Which of the following should NOT be used by an asthmatic patient?
a. Zanamivir
b. Oseltamivir
a. Zanamivir
