extra pharma Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following targets peptidoglycan subunits (D-Ala-D-Ala region)?

a. penicillin
b. vancomycin
c. amoxicillin

A

b. vancomycin

it’s a glycopeptide antibiotic

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2
Q

Which of the following do beta-lactams inhibit?

a. bacterial autolytic enzymes
b. inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzymes
c. β-lactamases

A

b. inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzymes

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3
Q

Which of the following drug is NOT β-lactamase resistant?

a. Aztreonam
b. Meropenem
c. Cefotaxime

A

c. Cefotaxime

it’s a cephalosporin

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4
Q

Trimethoprim inhibits which enzyme?

a. dihydropteroate synthetase
b. dihydrofolate reductase

A

b. dihydrofolate reductase

a is inhabited by Sulfonamides

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5
Q

Which of the following affects both human and bacterial cells?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim

A

b. Trimethoprim

but the bacterial enzymes are more susceptible to it

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6
Q

Which of the following affects folic acid synthesis?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim
c. both

A

c. both

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7
Q

Which of the following is an analog of para˗aminobenzoic acid (PABA)?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim

A

a. Sulfonamide

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8
Q

Which of the following affects thymidylate synthesis?

a. Sulfonamide
b. Trimethoprim

A

b. Trimethoprim

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9
Q

Which TWO of these bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit?

a. aminoglycosides
b. lincosamides
c. tetracycline
d. cholramphenicol

A

b. lincosamides
&
d. cholramphenicol

(A&C bind to 30S)

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10
Q

Linezolid put the patient at risk of

a. yellow or brown teeth discoloration
b. bone marrow toxicity
c. grey baby syndrome

A

b. bone marrow toxicity

its an oxazolidinone

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11
Q

Patient has H. influenzae and is in critical condition, which can be prescribed?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid

A

a. chloramphenicol

used in life threatening situations because of adverse effects

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12
Q

Which of the following may inhibit hepatic activity?

a. digoxin
b. erythromycin
c. streptomycin
d. clindamycin

A

b. erythromycin

its a macrolide

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13
Q

Which of the following only treat aerobic and gram-negative bacteria?

a. oxazolidinones
b. tetracyclines
c. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides

A

d. aminoglycosides

the drug needs oxygen to enter via the oxygen-dependent transporter system

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14
Q

Which of the following has a side effect of developing cholestatic jaundice?

a. digoxin
b. erythromycin
c. streptomycin
d. clindamycin

A

b. erythromycin

a macrolide

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15
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of clindamycin?

a. hepatic toxicity
b. antibiotic-associated colitis
c. hematological effects
d. gray baby syndrome

A

b. antibiotic-associated colitis

a lincosamide

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16
Q

Which of the following blocks peptide translocation?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin

A

c. fusidic acid

also inhibits ribosome disassembly

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17
Q

Which of the following enter bacteria via diffusion?

a. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides
c. fluoroquinolones
d. oxazolidinones

A

c. fluoroquinolones

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18
Q

Which of the following treats skin and skin structure infections?

a. chloramphenicol
b. linezolid
c. fusidic acid
d. clindamycin

A

b. linezolid

Daptomycin is also indicated for skin

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19
Q

Which of the following is blocked to stop DNA separation?

a. DNA gyrase
b. topoisomerase 2
c. topoisomerase 3
d. topoisomerase 4

A

d. topoisomerase 4

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20
Q

How do fluoroquinolones differentiate between human and bacterial cells?

a. structurally different ribosomes
b. structurally different DNA topoisomerase enzyme
c. their cell wall

A

b. structurally different DNA topoisomerase enzyme

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21
Q

Which two antibiotic groups exhibit concentration-dependent killing and a prolonged post-antibiotic effect?

A

aminoglycosides (gentamicin and streptomycin)

fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)

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22
Q

Which of the following evades efflux pumps?

a. tetracycline
b. tigecycline
c. fusidic acid
d. daptomycin

A

b. tigecycline

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23
Q

Which of the following includes constipation as an adverse effect?

a. tetracycline
b. tigecycline
c. fusidic acid
d. daptomycin

A

d. daptomycin

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes amoxicillin and penicillin?

a. bind to the D-Ala-D-Ala region of peptidoglycan subunits
b. inhibit bacterial transpeptidase enzymes
c. activate inhibitors of bacterial autolytic enzyme

A

b. inhibit bacterial transpeptidase enzymes

beta-lactams

25
Which best describe clavulanic acid? a. Resemble β-lactamases b. Have no antibacterial activity c. Destroy hydrolyzable β-lactams antibiotics
b. Have no antibacterial activity | they resemble β-lactams & bind to β-lactamases to disable them
26
What is co-Amoxiclav?
amoxicillin (β-lactam) & a β-lactamase inhibitor
27
What is co-trimoxazole?
Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim
28
Which of the following has a side effect of thrombocytopenia? a. chloramphenicol b. linezolid c. fusidic acid d. clindamycin
b. linezolid | an oxalazidone
29
Which of the following is often used with flucytosine? a. amphotericin B b. terbinafine c. fluconazole d. voriconazole
a. amphotericin B
30
Which of the following causes gynecomastia? a. ketoconazole b. fluconazole c. voriconazole d. terbinafine
a. ketoconazole
31
Which of the following causes squalene to build up in a fungal cell? a. griseofulvin b. amphotericin c. voriconazole d. terbinafine
d. terbinafine
32
Which of the following requires a prolonged treatment? a. griseofulvin b. amphotericin c. voriconazole d. terbinafine
a. griseofulvin
33
Which of the following is used to treat ringworms and snail fungal infections? a. griseofulvin b. echinocandis c. voriconazole d. terbinafine
d. terbinafine
34
Which of the following may cause exfoliative skin lesions? a. ketoconazole b. terbinafine c. fluconazole d. voriconazole
c. fluconazole
35
Which best describes voriconazole (or any other azole)? a. inhibit 1,3-b-glucan b. inhibit mitosis via microtubules c. inhibits squalene epoxidase d. inhibits inosine 14 alpha-demethylase
d. inhibits inosine 14 alpha-demethylase | aka fungal cytochrome P459 3A enzyme
36
Which of the following treats invasive aspergillosis? a. voriconazole b. caspofungin c. griseofulvin d. fluconazole
b. caspofungin | candidiasis and invasive aspergillosis
37
Which of the following interacts with fungal microtubules? a. voriconazole b. echinocandis c. griseofulvin d. fluconazole
c. griseofulvin
38
Which polyene has a side effect of GI disturbances? a. amphotericin B b. nystatin
b. nystatin
39
Which best describes flucytosine? a. inhibit 1,3-b-glucan b. inhibit mitosis via microtubules c. inhibits squalene epoxidase d. inhibits DNA synthesis
d. inhibits DNA synthesis | also disrupts protein synthesis
40
Which of the following bind and disrupt the function of ergosterol? a. fluconazole b. flucytosine c. nystatin d. terbinafine
c. nystatin | amphotericin B also
41
Which polyene has side effects of renal toxicity, impaired hepatic function, or a skin rash? a. amphotericin B b. nystatin
a. amphotericin B
42
Which of the following describes Fomivirsen? a. entry inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. translation inhibitor d. replication inhibitor
c. translation inhibitor
43
Which of the following describes Acyclovir & Ribavirin? a. entry inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. replication inhibitor
d. replication inhibitor
44
Which of the following describes Maraviroc? a. entry inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. protease inhibitor
a. entry inhibitor | antagonizes the CCR5 co-receptor
45
Which of the following describes Zidovudine? a. virus release inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. replication inhibitor e. integrase inhibitor
c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor | Nucleoside RTIs, Thymidine analog
46
Which of the following describes Oseltamivir & Zanamivir? a. virus release inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. replication inhibitor
a. virus release inhibitor
47
Which of the following describes amantadine? a. virus release inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. replication inhibitor e. integrase inhibitor
b. uncoating inhibitor | interfere w/ M2 ion channel
48
Which of the following describes Saquinavir? a. replication inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. protease inhibitor e. integrase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor
49
Which of the following describes Raltegravir? a. replication inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. protease inhibitor e. integrase inhibitor
e. integrase inhibitor
50
Which of the following inhibits mRNA cap formation? a. Acyclovir b. Ribavirin
b. Ribavirin
51
Which of the following is a guanosine analog? a. Acyclovir b. Ribavirin
a. Acyclovir
52
Which of the following decreases intracellular GTP? a. Acyclovir b. Ribavirin
b. Ribavirin
53
Which of the following is a nucleoside RTIs? a. nevirapine b. tenofovir c. zidovudine
c. zidovudine
54
Which of the following is a nucleotide RTIs? a. nevirapine b. tenofovir c. zidovudine
b. tenofovir
55
Which of the following is a non-nucleoside RTIs? a. nevirapine b. tenofovir c. zidovudine
a. nevirapine
56
Which of the following is a thymidine analog? a. nevirapine b. tenofovir c. zidovudine
c. zidovudine
57
Which of the following is related to lipodystrophy? a. replication inhibitor b. uncoating inhibitor c. reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. protease inhibitor e. integrase inhibitor
d. protease inhibitor | Saquinavir
58
Which of the following should NOT be used by an asthmatic patient? a. Zanamivir b. Oseltamivir
a. Zanamivir