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I&I Past Exams > 2017 I&I exam > Flashcards

2017 I&I exam Flashcards

1
Q 
Picture showing multiple cano shaped septate hyphae. What is the microorganism?
A. Mucor circinelloides
B. Fusarium solani
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Candida tropicalis
A

B. Fusarium solani

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2
Q

Which molecule chelates iron from iron-binding proteins? A. Coagulase
B. Protein A
C. Siderophores
D. Streptokinase

A

C. Siderophores

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3
Q 
What pathogen infects burn wounds in the early stages? 
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Candida glabrata
C. E. coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

What is immunofluorescence used for?
A. To detect antigens on cell surfaces
B. To measure complement-mediated cytotoxicity
C. To measure antibody-mediated cytotoxicity
D. To quantitate Natural Killer cells

A

A. To detect antigens on cell surfaces

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5
Q 
Which antibody has the highest concentration after polyclonal activation of B cells? 
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM 
D. IgG
A

C. IgM

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6
Q 
Which technique is used to enumerate the number of Natural Killer cells? 
A. Western blot
B. Flow cytometry
C. Radioimmunoassay
D. Immunofluorescence
A

B. Flow cytometry

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7
Q 
What is a virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoea? 
A. Spore
B. Flagella
C. IgA protease
D. Exotoxin
A

C. IgA protease

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8
Q 
A decrease in which of the following will result in a poor tuberculin test? 
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils
A

A. T cells

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9
Q

Which immune response can be classified as innate immunity?
A. Agglutination by IgM
B. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) C. Complement chemotaxis
D. IgG-mediated blockage of bacterial proliferation

A

C. Complement chemotaxis

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10
Q 
What is the main antibody present in type II hypersensitivity reaction? 
A. IgA
B. IgG 
C. IgE 
D. IgD
A

B. IgG

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11
Q 
What is used to disinfect endoscopes? 
A. 1% hypochlorite
B. 70% ethanol
C. 2% Glutaraldehyde
D. 5% quaternary ammonium compounds
A

B. 70% ethanol
&
C. 2% Glutaraldehyde

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12
Q 
Which of the following is an endogenous factor that contributes to risk-taking behaviors? 
A. Depression
B. Lack of parental supervision
C. Poverty
D. Peer pressure
A

A. Depression

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13
Q

What describes the selective toxicity of streptomycin?
A. Eukaryotic cells do not have a cell wall
B. Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit
C. Eukaryotes do not have folate-synthesizing enzymes
D. DNA synthesis of eukaryotes differs from prokaryotes

A

B. Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit

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14
Q

What statement best describes the mechanism of action of terbinafine?
A. Disrupts ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase
B. Inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthase
C. Inhibits 1,3-β glucan synthesis of fungal cell wall
D. Inhibits fungal mitosis by disrupting the spindle apparatus

A

A. Disrupts ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase

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15
Q 
Which of the following antibiotics can cross the blood-brain barrier without inflammation? 
A. Amikacin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Trimethoprim
A

B. Chloramphenicol

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16
Q

What statement best describes the mechanism of action of fomivirsen?
A. Inhibits RNA polymerase
B. Prevents the entry of viral particles into the host cell
C. Blocks translation of CMV mRNA into proteins
D. Inhibits release of influenza A and B viruses from infected host cell

A

C. Blocks translation of CMV mRNA into proteins

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17
Q

What is the difference between NK cells and cytotoxic T cells?
A. NK cells are important for ADCC, but cytotoxic T cells are not
B. NK cells kill tumor cells, but cytotoxic T cells do not
C. NK cells kill virus-infected cells, but cytotoxic T cells do not
D. NK cells secrete perforin and granzymes, but cytotoxic T cells do not

A

A. NK cells are important for ADCC, but cytotoxic T cells are not

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18
Q

What is the function of the somatic antigens (V and W) of Yersinia pestis?
A. To prevent phagocytosis
B. To activate toxin production
C. Inhibits complement activation

A

A. To prevent phagocytosis

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19
Q 
A patient suffers from fever, pneumonia, and mononucleosis-like disease. Which of the following viruses could be the cause of this clinical presentation?
A. HSV 
B. CMV
C. BK virus
D. HBV
A

B. CMV

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20
Q 
What vaccine enhances immunity?
A. Polysaccharide
B. Killed
C. Conjugated
D. Toxoid
A

C. Conjugated

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21
Q 
A child suffers from cataract, deafness, and peripheral pulmonary stenosis. Her mother claimed that she had a maculopapular rash on the 8th week of gestation. What is the likely causative agent?
A. CMV
B. Rubella
C. Parvovirus
D. HSV
A

B. Rubella

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22
Q 
A two-month-old baby presented with recurrent viral and bacterial infections. Genetic testing showed a mutation in the gene encoding the common ‘γ’ chain shared by cytokines receptors. What disease is the baby diagnosed with?
A. Bruton X linked agammaglobulinemia
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency
C. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
D. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
A

B. Severe combined immunodeficiency

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23
Q 
What is the mechanism of drug resistance of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? 
A. Reduce uptake of drug
B. Increase efflux of drug
C. Target modification
D. Inactivate β-lactamases
A

C. Target modification

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24
Q 
Which of the following viruses can develop resistance against adefovir? 
A. HBV
B. HCV 
C. HSV 
D. CMV
A

A. HBV

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25
Q 
A patient suffered from nausea and vomiting after eating a cream pie. What is the likely causative agent?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Cholera O1
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
A

B. Staphylococcus aureus

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26
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristic of the “worried well”?
A. Reduced compliance to medication
B. No past history of HIV tests
C. Misinterpret physical complaints
D. Absence of anxiety state
A

C. Misinterpret physical complaints

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27
Q 
When a lymphocyte clone, which has receptors specific for self-antigens, is recognized, deletion of the clone occurs in the peripheral repertoire. What is this process called?
A. Antigenic stimulation
B. Immune tolerance
C. Polyclonal activation
D. Affinity maturation
A

B. Immune tolerance

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28
Q 
What type of vaccine is the Hepatitis B vaccine? 
A. Live attenuated
B. Killed
C. Subunit
D. Recombinant
A

What type of vaccine is the Hepatitis B vaccine? A. Live attenuated
B. Killed
C. Subunit
D. Recombinant

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29
Q 
If the basic reproductive number is 20, then what percentage of the population must be vaccinated and immune in order to prevent the development of an epidemic?
A. 20% - 30% 
B. 80% - 85% 
C. 85% - 90% 
D. 95% - 99%
A

D. 95% - 99%

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30
Q 
What process should be used for milk in order to prevent infection by Brucella melitensis? 
A. Autoclaving
B. Filtration
C. Pasteurization
D. Boiling
A

C. Pasteurization

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31
Q

Yousef is travelling to an area where drug-resistant malaria is endemic. What should he do in order to prevent contracting malaria?
A. Take the malaria vaccine
B. Take antimalarial prophylaxis
C. Sleep under bed nets and use insect repellent
D. Wear a N95 respirator mask

A

C. Sleep under bed nets and use insect repellent

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32
Q 
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits folic acid synthesis? 
A. Sulphonamides
B. Macrolides 
C. Vancomycin 
D. Gentamicin
A

A. Sulphonamides

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33
Q

Which of the following is true about MHC Class II?
A. It is extremely polymorphic
B. It presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells
C. It presents antigens to CD8 cells

A

A. It is extremely polymorphic

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34
Q 
What are endotoxins? 
A. Glycopeptides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Lipopolysaccharides
D. Proteins
A

C. Lipopolysaccharides

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35
Q

What is the function of opsonization that is complement-mediated?
A. Agglutination of bacteria
B. Phagocytosis of bacteria
C. Chemotaxis of WBCs to the site of inflammation
D. Activation of mast cells to degranulate

A

B. Phagocytosis of bacteria

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36
Q 
Which virus is highly infectious in hospital settings?
A. Measles
B. CMV 
C. HSV
D. Adenovirus
A

A. Measles

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37
Q 
Which antifungal inhibits DNA synthesis? 
A. Fluconazole
B. 5-Flucytosine 
C. Voriconazole 
D. Caspofungin
A

B. 5-Flucytosine

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38
Q 
Which infusate has the highest risk of causing a catheter-related infection? 
A. Total parenteral nutrition
B. Antibiotics 
C. Antiseptics 
D. Saline
A

A. Total parenteral nutrition

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39
Q

Which of the following is used for screening a 1 week old neonate for syphilis?
A. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
B. Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (IgG)
C. Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (IgM)
D. Fluorescent antibody absorbed test (FAB-abs)

A

A. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)

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40
Q 
Which microorganism is most associated with HIV-related PUO (pyrexia of unknown origin)? 
A. Candida albicans
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii
C. Norwalk virus
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
A

B. Pneumocystis jirovecii

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41
Q

Which bacteria is transmitted in the hospital environment? A. Acinetobacter baumannii
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Klebsiella granulomatous
D. Bacillus cereus

A

A. Acinetobacter baumannii

42
Q 
Which of the following is responsible for antibiotic resistance in unrelated species? 
A. Transposons
B. Plasmids
C. Integrative elements
D. Bacteriophage
A

B. Plasmids

43
Q 
The close contacts of a patient with meningococcal meningitis should be given which antibiotic as prophylaxis?
A. Ciprofloxacin 
B. Minocycline 
C. Gentamicin
D. Metronidazole
A

A. Ciprofloxacin

44
Q

What is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. Antigenic variation
B. Capsule
C. Toxin A/B
D. Enterotoxin

A

B. Capsule

45
Q 
What's the most common cause of hospital-acquired diarrhea?
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Legionella pneumophila
A

B. Clostridium difficile

46
Q 
Which of the following would be absent in a histological tissue sample of the spleen if the patient suffered from thymic hypoplasia?
A. Germinal centers
B. Elongated spindle-shaped cells
C. Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) 
D. Corona
A

C. Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)

47
Q 
Which vaccine is contraindicated for pregnant women? 
A. Tetanus
B. Rubella
C. Influenza
D. Acellular Pertussis
A

B. Rubella

48
Q 
A 40-year-old man had HIV for 10 years. He was not compliant with his medication and eventually developed abdominal pain and diarrhea. Colonic biopsy showed basophilic spherical structures attached to the luminal surface of epithelial cells. What is the diagnosis?
A. Candidiasis
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Toxoplasmosis
A

C. Cryptosporidiosis

49
Q 
Which is the most common causative agent for ventilator-associated pneumonia? 
A. Candida
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Aspergillus
D. Haemophilus influenzae
A

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

50
Q

In what condition is meningeal enhancement seen on post-contrast CT scan?
A. Cerebral infarction
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Tuberculosis meningitis

A

C. Tuberculosis meningitis

51
Q 
A 20-year-old man presented with vesicles on his upper thighs and buttocks. The patient had unprotected sexual intercourse 2 weeks ago while traveling to Thailand. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
A. CMV 
B. HSV 
C. HBV 
D. VZV
A

B. HSV

52
Q 
Which of the following vaccines is recommended for healthcare workers? 
A. Hepatitis C virus vaccine
B. Influenza virus vaccine
C. Norwalk virus vaccine
D. Hepatitis E vaccine
A

B. Influenza virus vaccine

53
Q

When a lymphocyte recognizes an antigen, it travels to the lamina propria of the small intestine, which is part of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). What is the structural change that will occur?
A. The formation of a light-stained center
B. Accumulation of B lymphocytes in the corona
C. Enlargement of subcapsular sinuses

A

A. The formation of a light-stained center

54
Q 
Which of the following drugs interferes with the release of the influenza virus from the cells?
A. Rimantadine 
B. Oseltamivir 
C. Zidovudine
D. Amantadine
A

B. Oseltamivir

55
Q 
A 3-year-old girl suffers from periosteal thickening of the tibial bone and a skin rash associated with peeling of the skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Brucellosis 
C. Listeriosis 
D. Parvovirus
A

A. Congenital syphilis

56
Q 
Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis? 
A. TPHA
B. VDRL
C. RPR 
D. FAB-abs
A

A. TPHA

57
Q

Healthcare workers with this infection should cease from exposure borne procedures

a. influenza virus
b. HSV
c. HCV
d. Rhinovirus

A

c. HCV

58
Q 
A man visits Thailand and gets infected intracellular yeast that divides by fission. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Emergomyces africanus
B. Penicilliosis
C. Aspergilosis
D. Coccidioides immitits
A

B. Penicilliosis

59
Q 
Which is Integrase strand transfer inhibitor
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human immunodeficiency virus
C. Hepatitis B virus 
D. Coxsackievirus B 
E. Influenza A virus
A

B. Human immunodeficiency virus

60
Q 
Which is an M2 protein blocker
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human immunodeficiency virus
C. Hepatitis B virus 
D. Coxsackievirus B 
E. Influenza A virus
A

E. Influenza A virus

61
Q 
which of the following is essential for antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
A. CD8
B. IFN-γ
C. TNF-alpha
D. CD3
E. Fc receptor
A

E. Fc receptor

62
Q 
What is a characteristic feature of cytotoxic T cells?
A. CD8
B. IFN-γ
C. TNF-alpha
D. CD3
E. Fc receptor
A

A. CD8

63
Q 
Which has lipopolysaccharide as an integral part of its bacterial cell wall?
A. E. coli
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
A

A. E. coli

64
Q 
Which has potent cytotoxic toxins Streptolysin O and S?
A. E. coli
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
A

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

65
Q 
Yersinia pestis is found in
A. Pigs
B. Camels
C. Fish
D. Rats
E. Pigeons
A

D. Rats

66
Q 
A baby was born with hepatosplenomegaly, bossing of the frontal bone, deafness, and saddle-shaped nose. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Brucella melitensis
A

B. Treponema pallidum

67
Q 
A mother had an intrauterine death at 30 weeks. On autopsy, the baby had micro-abscesses in his liver and spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Brucella melitensis
A

C. Listeria monocytogenes

68
Q 
Meningococcal meningitis is epidemic in 
A. Argentina
B. China
C. Thailand
D. Brazil
E. Niger
A

E. Niger

69
Q 
Zika virus infection is often found in
A. Argentina
B. China
C. Thailand
D. Brazil
E. Niger
A

D. Brazil

70
Q 
35-year-old woman, who had a history of liver transplantation and was on immunosuppressants, is now complaining of abdominal pain. Testing suggests nephropathy, positive for BK virus. Which should you prescribe?
A. Ganciclovir
B. Acyclovir 
C. Tenofovir 
D. Entecavir
E. Immunosuppression therapy reduction
A

E. Immunosuppression therapy reduction

71
Q 
25-year-old man positive for CMV, which should you prescribe?
A. Ganciclovir
B. Acyclovir 
C. Tenofovir 
D. Entecavir
E. Immunosuppression therapy reduction
A

A. Ganciclovir

72
Q 
Which is an intracellular yeast forms dividing by budding?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioides immitis 
C. Penicillium marneffei 
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii 
E. Mucor circinelloides
A

A. Histoplasma capsulatum

73
Q 
A kidney transplant recipient on immunosuppression therapy due to host-versus-graft disease developed bilateral interstitial pneumonia and severe hypoxemia. The patient responded to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole therapy. What is the causative agent?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioides immitis 
C. Penicillium marneffei 
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii 
E. Mucor circinelloides
A

D. Pneumocystis jirovecii

74
Q

Which best characterizes lymphocyte stimulation test?
A. Simple, inexpensive test that can be observed visually
B. Ultrasensitive measurement of hormones and drugs
C. Permits isolation of blood cells of interest
D. Detect autoantibodies in tissue section
E. Measures activation of T cell by antigen

A

E. Measures activation of T cell by antigen

75
Q

Which best characterizes Agglutination test?
A. Simple, inexpensive test that can be observed visually
B. Ultrasensitive measurement of hormones and drugs
C. Permits isolation of blood cells of interest
D. Detect autoantibodies in tissue section
E. Measures activation of T cell by antigen

A

A. Simple, inexpensive test that can be observed visually

76
Q 
Which disease is usually initially spread via contact with urine or feces of infected rats?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Adenovirus 
D. Lassa virus 
E. Parvovirus
A

D. Lassa virus

77
Q 
Healthcare workers with this chronic infection must be prevented from partaking in exposure-prone procedures.
A. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Adenovirus 
D. Lassa virus 
E. Parvovirus
A

B. Hepatitis C virus

78
Q 
Which of the following is present on all T cells?
A. MHC Class I
B. MHC Class II
C. MHC Class III 
D. Fc receptor 
E. CD4
A

A. MHC Class I

79
Q 
Which of the following presents antigens to helper T cells?
A. MHC Class I
B. MHC Class II
C. MHC Class III 
D. Fc receptor 
E. CD4
A

B. MHC Class II

80
Q 
A 34-year-old man developed an anaphylactic reaction after eating a shrimp meal. Which of the following is responsible?
A. Mast cells
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils 
D. Monocytes 
E. Neutrophils
A

A. Mast cells

81
Q 
Which of the following is mainly responsible for late-phase reactions?
A. Mast cells
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils 
D. Monocytes 
E. Neutrophils
A

C. Eosinophils

82
Q

Which best describes IgA?
A. Pentameric structure
B. Main antibody during a secondary antibody response
C. Enters cells and kills viruses
D. Secreted from the gastrointestinal tract
E. Present in allergic reactions

A

D. Secreted from the gastrointestinal tract

83
Q

Which best describes IgM?
A. Pentameric structure
B. Main antibody during a secondary antibody response
C. Enters cells and kills viruses
D. Secreted from the gastrointestinal tract
E. Present in allergic reactions

A

A. Pentameric structure

84
Q 
Which is a clinical feature of treponema pallidum?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Skin rash
C. Granuloma inguinale 
D. Soft painful chancre 
E. Penile discharge
A

B. Skin rash

85
Q 
Which is a clinical feature of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Skin rash
C. Granuloma inguinale 
D. Soft painful chancre 
E. Penile discharge
A

E. Penile discharge

86
Q 
A patient suffers from bloody diarrhea and develops Guillain-Barre syndrome after having a chicken meal, which of the following is responsible?
A. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Cholerae O1
E. Yersinia enterocolitica
A

B. Campylobacter jejuni

87
Q 
Which is secreted by T cells to activate T cells?
A. IL-1
B. IL-3
C. IL-6
D. IL-10
E. TNF-alpha
A

cancelled question

it’s supposed to be IL-2

88
Q 
Which is used for killing of virus-infected cells?
A. IL-1
B. IL-3
C. IL-6
D. IL-10
E. TNF-alpha
A

E. TNF-alpha

89
Q 
Which is used to prepare the skin for a central venous catheter?
A. Iodine tincture
B. Alcoholic chlorhexidine
C. Transparent film dressing
D. Hydrogel dressing
E. Alginate dressing
A

B. Alcoholic chlorhexidine

90
Q 
The dressing that is placed after the insertion of a central venous catheter is 
A. Iodine tincture
B. Alcoholic chlorhexidine
C. Transparent film dressing
D. Hydrogel dressing
E. Alginate dressing
A

C. Transparent film dressing

91
Q 
Patient with a defect in cellular immunity would most likely contract...
A. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
B. Listeriosis
C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis 
D. Gastrointestinal candidiasis 
E. Disseminated candidiasis
A

D. Gastrointestinal candidiasis

92
Q 
Leukemic patient with catheter-related infection would most likely contract...
A. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
B. Listeriosis
C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis 
D. Gastrointestinal candidiasis 
E. Disseminated candidiasis
A

E. Disseminated candidiasis

93
Q 
Which causes severe necrotizing fasciitis?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Propionibacterium acne
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus pyogenes
A

D. Staphylococcus pyogenes

94
Q 
Which causes folliculitis?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Propionibacterium acne
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus pyogenes
A

C. Staphylococcus aureus

95
Q 
Which causes Scalded skin syndrome?
A. Staphylococcus aureus 
B. Streptococcus pyogenes 
C. Streptococcus agalactiae 
D. Viridans streptococci
E. Mycobacterium avium cellulare
A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

96
Q 
A 6-year-old girl has impetigo, what is the causative agent?
A. Staphylococcus aureus 
B. Streptococcus pyogenes 
C. Streptococcus agalactiae 
D. Viridans streptococci
E. Mycobacterium avium cellulare
A

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

97
Q 
What causes severe disease in anemic patients and pregnant women?
A. Astrovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Herpes simplex virus
A

B. Parvovirus

98
Q 
Which is transmitted from mother to neonate during delivery?
A. Astrovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Herpes simplex virus
A

D. Herpes simplex virus

99
Q

What is the mechanism of drug resistance of gentamicin?
A. ABC transporters
B. Aminoglycoside adenylphosphotransferase
C. β-lactamases
D. Efflux pumps
E. Dihydrofolate reductase

A

B. Aminoglycoside adenylphosphotransferase

100
Q

What is the mechanism of drug resistance of Trimethoprim?
A. ABC transporters
B. Aminoglycoside adenylphosphotransferase
C. β-lactamases
D. Efflux pumps
E. Dihydrofolate reductase

A

E. Dihydrofolate reductase

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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