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I&I Past Exams > extra micro Q's > Flashcards

extra micro Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is able to recognize the patterns of antigens?

a. innate immunity
b. specific immunity

A

a. innate immunity

the pattern recognition receptors recognize the microbe-associated molecular patterns

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2
Q

Which of the following lyses cell wall?

a. lysosome
b. lysozyme
c. interferons

A

b. lysozyme

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3
Q

What induces an antiviral state?

a. lysosome
b. lysozyme
c. interferons
d. complement proteins

A

c. interferons

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4
Q

Which of the following is less specific?

a. phagocytosis
b. endocytosis

A

b. endocytosis

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5
Q

Which if the following is a soluble PRR (pattern recognition receptors)?

a. complement
b. complement receptor
c. t cells

A

a. complement

B= a PRR on a cell surface

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6
Q

What connects the two lobes of the thymus?

A

isthmus

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7
Q

Each lymph node is surrounded by

a. elastic capsule
b. fibrous capsule

A

b. fibrous capsule

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a B cell receptor?

a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgM

A

b. IgG

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9
Q

Which of the following recognizes an antigen presented with MHC class II?

a. CD4+
b. CD8+

A

a. CD4+

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10
Q

On which chromosome are the genes responsible for HLA proteins?

a. chromosome 2
b. chromosome 6
c. chromosome 10
d. chromosome 15

A

b. chromosome 6

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11
Q

Where are class I MHC molecules not expressed?

a. epithelial cells
b. neurons
c. red blood cells
d. lymphocytes

A

c. red blood cells

they’re expressed on all nucleated cells; RBC’s have no nucleus

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12
Q

Where are class II MHC molecules not expressed?

a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Macrophages
d. Dendritic cells

A

a. T cells

they’re expressed on APC cells only

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13
Q

Which of the following methods are used by dendritic cells to internalize antigens?

a. antibody-mediated uptake
b. pinocytosis
c. phagocytosis

A

b. pinocytosis

a is used by B cells and C by macrophages

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14
Q

Which of the following is used to present an endogenous antigen?

a. class I MHC
b. class II MHC

A 
a. class I MHC
(it gets recognized by a cytotoxic T cell)
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15
Q

Which of the following CD molecules is only found in helper T cells?

a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8

A

b. CD4

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16
Q

Which of the following CD molecules is only found in cytotoxic T cells?

a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8

A

c. CD8

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17
Q

Which of the following does NOT activate B cells?

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5

A

c. IL-3

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18
Q

Which of the following provides a worm immunity?

a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD

A

a. IgE

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19
Q

Which of the following is only found in intracellular fluids?

a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD

A

d. IgM

its too big to go extracellularly

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20
Q

Which of the following is the predominant anti-toxin antibody?

a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD

A

c. IgG

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21
Q

In which form is IgA found in secretions?

a. monomer
b. dimer

A

b. dimer

monomer in serum

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22
Q

Which of the following is responsible for primary antibody response?

a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD

A

d. IgM

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23
Q

Which of the following is responsible for secondary antibody response?

a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD

A

c. IgG

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24
Q

Which of the following systems are complement proteins apart of?

a. innate
b. acquired
c. both

A

c. both

they can be activated by both of them

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25
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about T cell receptors (TCR)?

a. they have only one binding site
b. they’re very specific
c. have a large part inside the cell
d. it has a co-receptor to signal back to the cell when it is activated

A

c. have a large part inside the cell

TCR have a small part in the cell while CD3 receptors have a large intracellular part

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26
Q

Which of the following binds to macrophages and releases cytokines to reactivate its defective phagosime and lysosome fusion?

a. B cell
b. T helper 1 cell
c. T helper 2 cell

A

b. T helper 1 cell

Th1 = CMI

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27
Q

Which of the following is an anti-inflammatory cytokine?

a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-10
c. TNF-alpha

A

c. IL-10

anti-inflammatory = IL-4, IL-10, TGF

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28
Q

Which is used for humoral immunity?

a. T helper 1 cell
b. T helper 2 cell

A

b. T helper 2 cell

A is for CMI

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29
Q

A patient with CMV also has HIV, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy

A

b. retinitis

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30
Q

A patient with BK had a renal transplant, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy

A

d. nephropathy

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31
Q

A patient with CMV had a transplant, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy

A

a. pneumonitis

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32
Q

EBV is associated with

a. pneumonia
b. hepatitis
c. mononucleosis-like disease
d. hemorrhagic cystitis

A

c. mononucleosis like disease

CMV is associated with this too

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33
Q

Which of the following is associated with a vascular rash of different stages?

a. VZV
b. HSV 1
c. HSV 2
d. B&C

A

a. VZV

HSV-1 &-2 = same stage vascular rash

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34
Q

Which of the following with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

a. HHV6
b. HHV7
c. HHV8
d. A&B

A

c. HHV8

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35
Q

Which is associated with haemorragic cystitis?

a. BK virus
b. adenovirus
c. hMPV
d. A&B

A

d. A&B

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36
Q

hMPV is associated with

a. pneumonia
b. severe influenza
c. mononucleosis-like disease
d. hemorrhagic cystitis

A

b. severe influenza

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37
Q

Which of the following is used to treat CMV?

a. acyclovir
b. valacyclovir
c. famciclovir
d. valganciclovir

A

d. valganciclovir

and ganciclovir

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38
Q

Which of the following is used for HBV?

a. tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
b. valganciclovir
c. Lamuvidine
d. valacyclovir
e. A&B
f. B&D
g. A&C

A

g. A&C

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39
Q

Which of the following is used for HCV?

a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir

A

c. protease inhibitors

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40
Q

Which TWO of these is used for adenovirus?

a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir

A

b. ribavirin
&
d. cidofovir

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41
Q

Which of the following is used for BK virus?

a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir

A

a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy

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42
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary lymphoid organ?

a. thymus
b. fetal liver
c. bone marrow
d. none

A

d. none

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43
Q

Where does positive selection occur?

a. cortex
b. medulla

A

a. cortex

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44
Q

Which of the following does the thymic cortical epithelium express highly?

a. MHC class 1
b. MHC class 2
c. both

A

c. both

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45
Q

What occurs when a T cell reacts to an MHC class 2 receptor of the thymic cortical epithelium?

a. it becomes a cytotoxic T cell
b. it loses the CD8 molecule

A 
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
(in the cortex positive selection occurs so when it reacts to class 2 MHC it becomes a helper T cell by losing the CD8 molecule and keeping CD4)
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46
Q

What occurs when a T cell does not react to any MHC receptor of the thymic cortical epithelium?

a. it becomes a cytotoxic T cell
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
c. it loses the CD4 molecule
d. apoptosis

A

d. apoptosis

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47
Q

What occurs when a T cell does not react to thymic medullary epithelium?

a. apoptosis
b. maturation

A

b. maturation

we are talking about the medulla, so its negative selection

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48
Q

Which cytokines are used by Treg to inhibit cellular activity of regular cells?

a. IL-9 & TNF-alpha
b. IL-10 & TGF-beta
c. IL-1 & IL-8

A

b. IL-10 & TGF-beta

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49
Q

Which of the following methods results in more apoptotic cells?

a. clonal deletion
b. clonal anergy
c. Treg cell

A

a. clonal deletion

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50
Q

Which of the following causes rheumatic fever?

a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance

A

c. molecular mimicry

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51
Q

Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia?

a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance

A

b. neoantigens

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52
Q

Which of the following causes insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?

a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance

A

a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules (on beta cells of the pancreas)

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53
Q

Systemic lupus (SLE) occurs because of high…

a. IL-2 & IL-8
b. IL-4 & IL-10
c. IL-6 & IL-12
d. IL-8 & IL-14

A

b. IL-4 & IL-10

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54
Q

Thyroiditis occurs because of…

a. high Treg & high Tc
b. high Treg & low Tc
c. low Treg & high Tc
d. low Treg & low Tc

A

c. low Treg & high Tc

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55
Q

Which of the following is true about the cause of Myasthenia gravis?

a. Auto antibodies attach acetylcholine, so there isn’t enough to bind to receptors
b. Auto antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and stop it from binding
c. Acyetylcholine production is hindered and there isn’t enough to bind to receptors

A

b. Auto antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and stop it from binding

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56
Q

Which of the following diseases is not organ specific?

a. pernicious anemia
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. insulin-dependent diabeted mellitus

A

b. rheumatoid arthritis

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57
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B12.

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58
Q

T/F: the more antibodies present, the more precipitate is made

A

F; a correct antigen to antibody ratio is needed and too much of either causes no precipitation to occur

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59
Q

Which of these Antigen-antibody reactions use dyes to visualize the results?

a. precipitation
b. agglutination
c. immunoassay

A

c. immunoassay

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60
Q

Which immunofluorescence assay method is used to measure an unknown antibody?

a. direct method
b. indirect method

A

b. indirect method

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61
Q

when using the indirect method of immunofluorescence assay, which antibody is F-labeled?

a. primary antibody
b. secondary antibody

A

b. secondary antibody

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62
Q

When the antigen is unknown immunofluorescence assay method is used?

a. direct method
b. indirect method

A

a. direct method

the primary antibody is tagged

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63
Q

Which of the following is a confirmatory AIDS test?

a. southern blotting
b. northern blotting
c. western blotting
d. eastern blotting

A

c. western blotting

enzyme immunoassay

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64
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive?

a. radioimmunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
c. enzyme immunoassay

A

a. radioimmunoassay

its also hazardous

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65
Q

What is true about ficoll density?

a. its greater than all cells
b. its higher than granulocyte density
c. its lower than lymphocyte density
d. its higher than peripheral blood mononuclear cells

A

d. its higher than peripheral blood mononuclear cells

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66
Q

in the lymphocyte stimulation test, we measure DNA synthesis (which indicated proliferation) via

a. radioactive thymine
b. radioactive thymidine
c. radioactive guanosine
d. radioactive cytosine

A

b. radioactive thymidine

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67
Q

during the T cell cytotoxicity assay, how do we know when the T cell kills target cells?

a. measuring proteins
b. measuring enzymes
c. measuring radioactivity

A

c. measuring radioactivity

they’re released when the target cell dies

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68
Q

Which of the following can be used to sort cells via flow cytometry?

a. radioimmunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
c. enzyme immunoassay

A

b. immunofluorescence

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69
Q

Which TWO of the following are mediated by igG & igM?

a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4

A

b. hypersensitivity type 2
&
c. hypersensitivity type 3

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70
Q

In which of the following is the allergin an antigen?

a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4

A

a. hypersensitivity type 1

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71
Q

Which of the following cells bind with high affinity?

a. NK cells
b. Basophils
c. Macrophages
d. Monocytes

A

b. Basophils

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72
Q

Which of the following cells bind with low affinity?

a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes

A

d. Monocytes

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73
Q

A blood transfusion reaction is an example of…

a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4

A

b. hypersensitivity type 2

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74
Q

Which of the following is a newly formed mediator?

a. serotonin
b. thromboxane
c. tryptase
d. heparin

A

b. thromboxane

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75
Q

Which of the following releases IL-4 to tell the B cells to switch to making IgE?

a. Th1
b. Th2
c. cytotoxic T cell
d. epithelial cells

A

b. Th2

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76
Q

Which of the following mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity late reaction?

a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes

A

a. Eosinophils

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77
Q

Which TWO of the following complement proteins attract neutrophils?

a. C2b
b. C3b
c. C4a
d. C5a

A

b. C3b (tags the complex)
&
d. C5a (chemotctic)

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78
Q

Artheritis and bacterial endocarditis are examples of…

a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4

A

c. hypersensitivity type 3

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79
Q

Hay fever is examples of…

a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4

A

a. hypersensitivity type 1

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80
Q

Which of the following activate macrophages and trigger inflammation in type 4 reaction?

a. Th1
b. Th2
c. cytotoxic T cell

A

a. Th1

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81
Q

Which of the following usually remove immune comlexes?

a. granulocytes
b. mononuclear phagocytes

A

b. mononuclear phagocytes

such as monocytes and macrophages

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82
Q

Which of the follwing is a mast cell activator?

a. C2a
b. C3a
c. C4a
d. C5a

A

d. C5a

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83
Q

Which of the following generate memory Th1 cells against delayed type hypersensitivity antigens?

a. Basophils
b. Dendritic cells
c. Mast cells
d. Eosinophils

A

b. Dendritic cells

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84
Q

What are colicins and what is their purpose?

a. man-made antibacterial proteins that kill pathogens
b. antibacterial proteins made by pathogenic bacteria to damage human cells
c. antibacterial proteins made by flora to protect itself

A

c. antibacterial proteins made by flora to protect it

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85
Q

How are pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) recognized?

a. MHC I
b. MHC II
c. T cell receptors
d. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

A

d. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

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86
Q

LPS activates…

a. TLR 1
b. TLR 2
c. TLR 3
d. TLR 4

A

d. TLR 4

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87
Q

Which of the following recognizes gram-positive bacteria?

a. TLR 2
b. TLR 3
c. TLR 4
d. TLR 5

A

a. TLR 2

with help from TLR 1 or 6

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88
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to phagocytosis?

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3

A

b. IgG2

the other two have the highest affinity for Fc receptors, which leads to opsonization and phagocytosis

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89
Q

T cell-dependent B cell reaction produces

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG

A

c. IgG

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90
Q

T cell-independent B cell reaction produces

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG

A

b. IgM

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91
Q

Which of the following best describes hypermaturation of B cells?

a. variable changes that make the binding of the antibodies better
b. variable changes that reduce the binding affinity of antibodies

A

a. variable changes that make the binding of the antibodies better
(said in class)

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92
Q

Which of the following is more specific?

a. TLR
b. PAMP

A

a. TLR

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93
Q

Which of the following Fc receptors are on phagocytes and bind antibody-coated bacteria?

a. Fc alpha
b. Fc beta
c. Fc gamma
d. Fc delta

A

c. Fc gamma

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94
Q

Which of the following stops bacterial binding to epithelial cells?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

a. IgA

secretory IgA

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95
Q

Which of the following is the best activator of the complement system?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

b. IgM

it makes lots of antigen-antibody complexes

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96
Q

Which of the following neutralizes the virus?

a. mucin
b. pentraxin
c. collectin

A

c. collectin

surfactant proteins A and D

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97
Q

Which of the following does CMV virus infect?

a. Leukocytes
b. B cells
c. CD4 T cells

A

a. Leukocytes

every virus infects the cell that makes receptors for it; B=EBV infects it

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98
Q

Using antibiotics is an example of

a. infection prevention
b. chemo prophylaxis
c. immune prophylaxis

A

b. chemo prophylaxis

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99
Q

Which of the following should you give to a patient who has been bitten by a venomous spider?

a. active immunization
b. passive immunization

A

b. passive immunization

give him the antibodies against the agent directly

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100
Q

Which of the following is more dangerous and more effective?

a. killed organism vaccine
b. surface antigen vaccine
c. living attenuated vaccine

A

c. living attenuated vaccine

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101
Q

Which of the following have a lower immunization time and lower immune reaction?

a. carbohydrate antigens
b. protein antigens
c. aluminum hydroxide

A

a. carbohydrate antigens

they are poorly immunogenic, so we attach them with carrier proteins to get a better reaction

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102
Q

Which of the following is given to immunocompromized patients?

a. monoclonal antibodies
b. polyclonal antibodies

A

b. polyclonal antibodies

they have a wide range and can protect them from multiple things at once

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103
Q

Which TWO vaccines are only needed once in life?

a. hep B
b. MMR
c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)
d. varicella

A

b. MMR
&
d. varicella

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104
Q

Which of the following causes a combined deficiency?

a. B cell defect
b. T cell defect
c. complement component defect
d. phagocytes defect

A

b. T cell defect

the most severe type of immunodeficiency

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105
Q

NK cells are important in killing

a. intracellular bacteria
b. extracellular bacteria
c. protozoa

A

a. intracellular bacteria

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106
Q

A deficiency of which of the following causes fungal infections?

a. phagocytes
b. neutrophils
c. complement system
d. NK cells

A

c. complement system

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107
Q

A deficiency of neutralizing antibodies results in a susceptibility to all of the following, EXCEPT

a. viruses
b. intracellular bacteria
c. extracellular bacteria
d. fungi
e. protozoa

A

d. fungi

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108
Q

Which if the following occurs because of a B cell failure?

a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

the other two are because of bad T cell signals to B cells

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109
Q

Why are patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia prone to enterovirus infections?

a. because of the T cell deficiency
b. because they lack IgA
c. because they lack IgM

A

b. because they lack IgA

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110
Q

Which of the following have absent B lymphocytes?

a. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)

A

b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

a= absent plasma cells

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111
Q

Which of the following has low IgG2 and IgG4 levels?

a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
c. IgA deficiency
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

c. IgA deficiency

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112
Q

Patients with which of the following are prone to tumors and autoimmune manifestations?

a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. IgA deficiency
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

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113
Q

When a patient has a defective class switch, which of these indicates that the T cell is deficient?

a. CD40 receptor is defective
b. CD40 ligand is defective

A

b. CD40 ligand is defective

mentioned in class

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114
Q

In which of the following does pneumonia occur due to Pneumocystis jiroveci?

a. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

a. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

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115
Q

DIGeorge anomaly patients usually have a monosomy of

a. 21q11.2
b. 22q11.3
c. 22q14.2
d. 22q11.2

A

d. 22q11.2

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116
Q

A patient with ____ has a defective NADPH oxidase

a. leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)
b. chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
c. complement defects

A

b. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

the pathogens are not killed because there are no oxygen radicals, so the body makes granuloma

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117
Q

CR3 receptor on phagocyte membrane is made out of which two polypeptide chains?

a. CD12b & CD18
b. CD11b & CD16
c. CD11b & CD18
d. CD10b & CD16

A

c. CD11b & CD18

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118
Q

A deficiency in which inhibitor results in hereditary angioedema?

a. C1
b. C3
c. C5
d. C7

A

a. C1

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119
Q

Immune complex disease (SLE) develops because of a deficiency in

a. Terminal components
b. Alternative pathway components
c. Classical pathway components

A

c. Classical pathway components

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120
Q

A deficiency in which of the following does NOT cause a susceptibility to N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis?

a. Classical pathway components
b. Alternative pathway components
c. Terminal components

A

a. Classical pathway components

deficiencies in both terminal and alternative pathways lead to those infections

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121
Q

A deficiency in which of the following causes an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?

a. C1
b. C3
c. C5
d. C7

A

b. C3

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122
Q

Which of the following causes both systemic and innate fungal infections?

a. H. capsulatum
b. Candida
c. Zygomycetes

A

b. Candida

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123
Q

Which of the following produce IL-4 and IL-5?

a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells

A

b. Th2 cells

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124
Q

Which of the following produce TGF-β and IL-10?

a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells

A

d. T-Reg cells

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125
Q

Which of the following produce IL-17 and IL-22?

a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells

A

c. Th17

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126
Q

Which of the following is a transplant that uses stem cells taken from a donor?

a. Autologous transplant
b. Allogeneic transplant

A

b. Allogeneic transplant

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127
Q

Which two Candida species show positive germ tube and chlamydospore test?

a. Candida tropicalis
b. Candida dubliniensis
c. Candida parapsilosis
d. Candida albicans

A

b. Candida dubliniensis
&
d. Candida albicans

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128
Q

Which agar is used to diagnose Candida spp.?

a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
b. Neomycin agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Niger seed agar

A

a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar

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129
Q

Which is NOT a sign of angioinvasive aspergillosis patient?

a. ‘halo sign’
b. hemorrhage
c. retinitis
d. coagulative necrosis

A

c. retinitis

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130
Q

Which of the following is most likely to lead into Invasive aspergillosis?

a. solid organ transplant recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient

A

b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient

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131
Q

Which of the following is most likely to lead into Invasive candidiasis?

a. solid organ transplant recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient

A

a. solid organ transplant recipient

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132
Q

Fusarium spp. develop from a cottony white color to a

a. blue or green color
b. silver or grey color
c. pink or violet color

A

c. pink or violet color

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133
Q

Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop rhinocerebral mucormycosis?

a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia

A

b. diabetic ketoacidosis

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134
Q

Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop cutanious mucormycosis?

a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia

A

c. soft tissue infections

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135
Q

Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop pulmonary mucormycosis?

a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia

A

d. leukemia

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136
Q

Which of the following affects the brain?

a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus

A

c. cryptococcal meningitis

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137
Q

Which of the following affects the eyes?

a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus

A

b. cytomegalovirus

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138
Q

Which of the following affects the lungs?

a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus

A

a. penicilliosis

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139
Q

Which of the following organism has a honeycomb appearance?

a. candida
b. pneumocystis
c. cryptococcosis

A

b. pneumocystis

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140
Q

What is false about pneumocystis jirovecii?

a. has grey colored cysts
b. treated with Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
c. does not grow in medium
d. cell wall made mostly of ergosterol

A

d. cell wall made mostly of ergosterol

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141
Q

Which agar is used to diagnose cryptococcosis spp.?

a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
b. Neomycin agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Niger seed agar

A

d. Niger seed agar

brown colonies

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142
Q

Which cryptococcosis spp. grow on canavanine glycine bromothymol blue (CGB) agar?

a. C. gatti
b. C. neoformans

A

a. C. gatti

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143
Q

Which of the following species can be diagnosed via CSF?

a. Pneumocystis spp.
b. cryptococcosis
c. candida

A

b. cryptococcosis

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144
Q

Which crypococcosis virulence factor is important for diagnoses?

a. melanin
b. polysaccharide capsule
c. urase production

A

b. polysaccharide capsule

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145
Q

Which of the following is found in Africa?

a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus

A

e. Emergomyces africanus

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146
Q

Which of the following is a Large endospore-filled spherule?

a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus

A

c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)

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147
Q

Which of the following is found in India and SE asia?

a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus

A

d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)

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148
Q

Which of the following is more infective?

a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HIV

A

a. HBV

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149
Q

Which of the following should you NOT do after a needle prick injury?

a. encourage the wound to bleed
b. wash it with water and soap
c. scrub the area to make sure its clean
d. dry and cover the wound

A

c. scrub the area to make sure its clean

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150
Q

Which of the following has the highest fatality?

a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus

A

b. marburg virus

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151
Q

Which of the following is spread via hyalomma tick bites?

a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus

A

d. Congo-Crimean fever virus

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152
Q

Which of the following is spread via rat urine or feces?

a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus

A

c. lassa virus

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153
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate place for a patient with a contagious and dangerous virus?

a. negative pressure room
b. positive pressure room

A

a. negative pressure room

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154
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate place for an immunosuppressed patient?

a. negative pressure room
b. positive pressure room

A

b. positive pressure room

155
Q

How long do viruses survive on a non-absorbative surface?

a. 3 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 10 hours

A

d. 10 hours

156
Q

Which of the following is used to treat RSV?

a. Palivizumab
b. Oseltamivir
c. Zanamivir
d. Tamiflu

A

a. Palivizumab

157
Q

Which of the following viruses are responsible for the common cold?

a. CMV
b. RSV
c. Rhinovirus
d. Parainfluenza virus

A

c. Rhinovirus

158
Q

Why can a patient get rhinovirus many times without becoming immune?

A

it has many serotypes

159
Q

large vs small droplet spread

A

influenza virus = both
parainfluenza virus= large
adenovirus= both

160
Q

Which Parainfluenza virus serotype is responsible for causing pneumonia?

a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4

A

c. type 3

161
Q

Which of the following can be acquired endogenously and exogenously?

a. Rhinovirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Parainfluenza virus

A

b. Adenovirus

162
Q

Which of the following have the highest risk of developing SARS coronavirus?

a. healthcare worker
b. child
d. elder

A

a. healthcare worker

20% of the people affected

163
Q

Which animal is associated with MERS coronavirus?

a. Alligator
b. Bear
c. Camel
d. Dear

A

c. Camel

164
Q

Which of the following can be transmitted 4 days before and after the rash?

a. measles
b. rubella
c. parvovirus B19

A

a. measles

b&c is 7 days before and after the rash

165
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to be spread to close contacts?

a. parvovirus B19
b. measles
c. varicella zoster virus

A

b. measles

90% likely

166
Q

Which of the following cannot be spread via respiratory secretions?

a. shingles
b. chickenpox

A

a. shingles

only via contact with lesions

167
Q

Which TWO of the following are used to treat chickenpox?

a. Oseltamivir
b. Famciclovir
c. Valaciclovir
d. Zanamivir

A

b. Famciclovir
&
c. Valaciclovir

168
Q

Which of the following causes aseptic meningitis in immunocompromized patients?

a. rubella
b. mumps
c. measles

A

b. mumps

169
Q

Enteroviruses shed for how long after the infection?

a. 5 days
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 1 month

A

d. 1 month

170
Q

Which of the following is not one of the small round-structured viruses (SRSVs)?

a. astrovirus
b. calicivirus
c. enterovirus 70
d. norwalk virus

A

c. enterovirus 70

171
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with nosocomial infections?

a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis E
c. rotavirus

A

b. hepatitis E

172
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of nosocomial infections in pediatric patients?

a. astrovirus
b. calicivirus
c. rotavirus
d. norwalk virus

A

c. rotavirus

173
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of amantadine?

a. stops the uncoating stage via the M1 proteins
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
c. binds to sialic acid to deactivate it
d. activate cytokines via agonistic TLR-7 &8

A

b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins

174
Q

Which of the following is active against influenza C?

a. Favipiravir
b. Pimodivir
c. Baloxavir marboxil

A

a. Favipiravir

175
Q

Which of the following is only active against influenza A?

a. Favipiravir
b. Pimodivir
c. Baloxavir marboxil

A

b. Pimodivir

176
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of imiquimod?

a. stops the uncoating stage via the M1 proteins
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
c. binds to sialic acid to deactivate it
d. activate cytokines via agonistic activity towards TLR-7 &8

A

d. activate cytokines via agonistic activity towards TLR-7 &8

(treats HPV)

177
Q

Which of the following is Rimantadine active against?

a. influenza A
b. influenza B
c. influenza C
d. A&B
e. B&C

A

a. influenza A

it’s an M2 blocker

178
Q

Which of the following is Zanamivir active against?

a. influenza A
b. influenza B
c. influenza C
d. A&B
e. B&C

A

d. A&B

179
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of Peramivir?

a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme

A

b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid

its a neuraminidase inhibitor

180
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of Baloxavir marboxil?

a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme

A

d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme

its a polymerase inhibitor

181
Q

Which HCV genotype is resistant to interferon alpha (IFN-α)?

a. genotype 1
b. genotype 2
c. genotype 3

A

a. genotype 1

182
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of Ribavirin?

a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme

A

a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL

switching from Th2 to Th1; from humoral to cell mediated

183
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of IFN-α (interferon alpha)?

a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme

A

c. increases the expression of MHC molecules

stimulating immune system

184
Q

Which of the following is true about Ribavirin?

a. an analog of thymine
b. an analog of cytosine
c. pairs up with adenosine
d. pairs up with uridine

A

d. pairs up with uridine

Ribavirin is an analog of Guanine & Adenine; it pairs up with uridine & cytosine

185
Q

Which of the following is a non-nucleoside analogue (NNRTI)?

a. Lamivudine
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz

A

d. Efavirenz

we took nevirapine too

186
Q

Which of the following is a nucleotide analogue (NRTI)?

a. Atazanavir
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz

A

b. Tenofovir

187
Q

Which of the following is a fusion inhibitor?

a. Atazanavir
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz

A

c. Enfuvirtide

188
Q

Which of the following is an anti-viral that only works on infected cells?

a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. valacyclovir
d. famciclovir

A

b. acyclovir

needs to be phospholyrated to be active. It’s phspholyrated by thymidine kinase, which is only in infected cells.

189
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat CMV retinitis?

a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. famciclovir

A

c. cidofovir

190
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis?

a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. foscarnet

A

b. acyclovir

191
Q

What drug is used to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis if the patient is resistant to acyclovir?

a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. foscarnet

A

d. foscarnet

192
Q

Which dose of acyclovir are patients with Herpes Simplex Encephalitis given?

a. 10 mg/kg for every 6 hours for 15-21 days
b. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 15-20 days
c. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 14-21 days
d. 10 mg/kg for every 6 hours for 14-20 days

A

c. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 14-21 days

193
Q

which of the following is an analogue of guanine?

a. entecavir
b. adefovir
c. lamivudin

A

a. entecavir

194
Q

Which of the following treats HBV but cannot treat HIV?

a. entecavir
b. adefovir
c. imiquimod

A

b. adefovir

can’t be used for HIV because an extremely high dose is required

195
Q

Which of the following describes the primary stage of syphilis?

a. condylomata lata
b. fever
c. gumma
d. regional lymph nodes enlarged

A

d. regional lymph nodes enlarged

196
Q

Which of the following describes the secondary stage of syphilis?

a. chancer development
b. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
d. gumma development

A

b. patchy alopecia and iritis

197
Q

Which describes latent syphilis?

a. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
c. gumma development
d. chancer development

A

a. no clinical manifestations

198
Q

Which describes tertiary syphilis?

a. chancer development
b. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
d. charcot’s joint

A

d. charcot’s joint

and gumma development

199
Q

Which of these is used as a confirmatory syphilis test?

a. serology
b. TPHA specific test
c. non-specific test
d. direct microscopy

A

b. TPHA specific test

200
Q

Which of these is used to measure syphilis activity?

a. serology
b. TPHA specific test
c. VDRL/RPR non-specific test
d. direct microscopy

A

c. VDRL/RPR non-specific test

201
Q

penicillin is prescribed for 15-21 days to treat syphilis in the case of

a. primary & secondary syphilis
b. tertiary & late syphilis
c. pregnancy & congenital syphilis

A

b. tertiary & late syphilis

202
Q

Adult patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin, which of the following should you prescribe?

a. ceftriaxone
b. doxycycline
c. erythromycin

A

b. doxycycline

203
Q

A pregnant patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin, which of the following should you prescribe?

a. ceftriaxone
b. doxycycline
c. erythromycin

A

a. ceftriaxone

it crosses the placenta

204
Q

Which of the following has more mutations?

a. RNA
b. DNA

A

a. RNA

205
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. the faster the viral clearance, the more the mutations
b. the faster the viral production, the more the mutations
c. the slower the viral production, the more the mutations

A

b. the faster the viral production, the more the mutations

206
Q

Which is true about a drug with maximal antiviral activity

a. an eliminate the wild type only
b. has a moderate chance of producing resistance
c. produces no viral load
d. high selective pressure

A

c. produces no viral load

207
Q

Which is true about a drug with intermediate antiviral activity

a. an eliminate the mutant viruses only
b. has no chance of producing resistance
c. produces no viral load
d. high selective pressure

A

d. high selective pressure

208
Q

Which of the following is more likely to cause a drug resistance?

a. poor antiviral activity
b. intermediate antiviral activity
c. maximal antiviral activity

A

b. intermediate antiviral activity

209
Q

Which TWO of the following mutations cause nelfinavir?

a. D20M
b. D30N
c. L90M
d. L80N

A

b. D30N
&
c. L90M

210
Q

Which of the following has a high genetic barrier to resistance?

a. protease inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. integrase inhibitors

A

a. protease inhibitors

211
Q

Which of the following requires 1 or 2 mutations to get drug resistance?

a. protease inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. integrase inhibitors

A

b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors

low genetic barrier

212
Q

Which of the following should you give to a patient that has a YMDD mutant hep B virus?

a. lamivudine
b. adefovir
c. entecavir

A

c. entecavir

effective against lamivudine-resistant strains

213
Q

Which of the following HCV genotype is the most susceptible to resistance?

a. genotype 1
b. genotype 2
c. genotype 3
d. genotype 4

A

a. genotype 1

214
Q

Which genotype of the IL28B gene is associated with a better response?

a. CT
b. TT
c. CC

A

c. CC

215
Q

mutations NS3 &NS4A are associated with resistance to…

a. HCV DNA inhibitors
b. HCV protease inhibitors
c. HBV DNA inhibitors
d. HBV protease inhibitors

A

b. HCV protease inhibitors

216
Q

Which of the following insertion site has the highest infection rate?

a. femoral
b. subclavian vein
c. jugular

A

a. femoral

217
Q

which of the following is the most common cause of infection in a long central line?

a. candida
b. enterococcus
c. staphylococcus
d. pseudomonas

A

c. staphylococcus

218
Q

a catheter was inserted due to an emergency, when must you remove it?

a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 72 hours

A

b. after 24 hours

219
Q

A peripheral venous catheter was inserted, when does it have to be removed?

a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 7 days

A

c. after 72 hours

220
Q

A central venous catheter was inserted, when does it have to be removed?

a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 7 days

A

d. after 7 days

221
Q

What is used to disinfect a catheter for high-risk patients?

a. chlorhexidine
b. vancomycin

A

b. vancomycin

222
Q

the Hickman catheter is what type?

a. central venous catheter
b. peripheral venous catheter

A

a. central venous catheter

223
Q

Which of the following inhibits DNA synthesis?

a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins

A

c. flucytosine

224
Q

Which of the following inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis?

a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins

A

a. azoles

225
Q

Which is true about liposomal amphotericin B (L-AMB)?

a. more neurotoxic than amphotericin B
b. don’t harm human cells
c. accumulates in the kidney

A

b. don’t harm human cells

the rest are false!

226
Q

Which of the following causes ergosterol disruption?

a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins

A

b. polyenes

227
Q

Which of the following has a disk-like particle shape?

a. ABLC
b. ABCD
c. L-AMB

A

b. ABCD

228
Q

Which of the following has a ribbon-like particle shape?

a. ABLC
b. ABCD
c. L-AMB

A

a. ABLC

229
Q

Which of the following is the drug of choice for deep-seated fungal infections?

a. Amphoterin B
b. ABLC
c. ABCD
d. L-AMB

A

a. Amphoterin B

230
Q

Which of the following spreads more evenly due to its small size?

a. Amphoterin B
b. ABLC
c. ABCD
d. L-AMB

A

d. L-AMB

231
Q

Which of the following enzyme does azole inhibit?

a. 14-alpha-demethylase
b. 16-alpha-demethylase
c. 14-alpha-methylase
d. 16-alpha-methylase

A

a. 14-alpha-demethylase

232
Q

What is the precursor of ergosterol?

A

squalene

233
Q

Which of the following is used for UTI’s?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

a. fluconazole

234
Q

Which of the following is active against zygomycetes?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

d. posaconazole

235
Q

Which of the following is the best choice for aspergillosis infection?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

c. voriconazole

236
Q

Which of the following is a prodrug?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

e. isavuconazole

237
Q

Which of the following is becomes more bioavailable when taken orally with high-fat meal?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

d. posaconazole

(voriconazole becomes less bioavailable if taken with a fatty meal

238
Q

Which TWO of the following has a side-effect of visual disturbances such as hallucinations?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

b. itraconazole
&
c. voriconazole

239
Q

Which of the following requires cyclodextrin to function?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

c. voriconazole

240
Q

Which of the following has an oral bioavailability that’s equal to intravenous bioavailability?

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole

A

e. isavuconazole

241
Q

Which of the following is true about flucytosine?

a. rarely used in combination
b. getting resistance is rare
c. high levels lead to myelotoxicity

A

c. high levels lead to myelotoxicity

242
Q

flucytosine + Amphoterin B combo are used to treat which TWO of the following?

a. candida endophthalmitis
b. candida parapsilosis
c. cryptococcal pneumonitis
d. cryptococcal meningitis

A

a. candida endophthalmitis
&
d. cryptococcal meningitis

243
Q

Which of the following cannot be treated with Echinocandins?

a. C. albicans
b. C. neoformans
c. C. krusei
d. C. glabrata

A

b. C. neoformans

244
Q

What’s the first choice for treating candidiasis?

A

caspofungin

245
Q

Which method is used to disinfect porous material?

a. heat
b. steam
c. gamma radiation

A

b. steam

246
Q

Which method is used to disinfect plastic that is not heat resistant?

a. heat
b. steam
c. gamma radiation

A

c. gamma radiation

247
Q

Which of the following is used to culture Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

a. Chocolate agar with isovitalex
b. Thayer-Martin medium
c. Chocolate agar

A

b. Thayer-Martin medium

248
Q

Which of the following organisms cannot be cultivated?

a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. treponema pallidum

A

c. treponema pallidum

249
Q

which of the following results in chancroid with a soft edge?

a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

a. heamophilus ducreyi

b= hard edge

250
Q

Which of the following symptoms does a baby with congenital syphilis have?

a. chancre
b. rash
c. no symptoms
d. skin gumma

A

b. rash

symptoms of secondary syphilis

251
Q

Describe reticular bodies of chlamydia trachomatis

a. non-infectious intracellular form
b. infections extracellular form

A

b. infections extracellular form

252
Q

Which of the following is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics?

a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. chlamydia trichromatis

A

d. chlamydia trichromatis

253
Q

Which of the following causes inguinal lymphadentis?

a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. chlamydia trichromatis
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. treponema pallidum

A

a. heamophilus ducreyi

254
Q

Which of the following causes lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?

a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. chlamydia trichromatis
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. treponema pallidum

A

b. chlamydia trichromatis

255
Q

Which of the following causes painful ulcer?

a. haemophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum

A

a. heamophilus ducreyi

b= painless

256
Q

Which of the following causes donovanosis?

a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. heamophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis

A

c. klebsiella granulomatis

257
Q

Which of the following is cultured with chocolate agar with isovitalex?

a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis

A

b. haemophilus ducreyi

258
Q

Which of the following has clue cells when you culture it?

a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis

A

d. gardnerella vaginalis

259
Q

Which of the following has Donovan bodies when you culture it?

a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis

A

c. klebsiella granulomatis

260
Q

Which TWO of the following causes PID?

a. neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. heamophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. mycoplasma genitalium
e. chlamydia trichromatis
f. gardnerella vaginalis

A

a. neisseria gonorrhoeae
&
d. mycoplasma genitalium

261
Q

Which of the following is a specific antibody test?

a. VDRL
b. TPHA
c. RPR

A

b. TPHA

262
Q

Which of the following CANNOT treat chlamydia trichromatis?

a. tetracycline
b. amoxicillin
c. erythromycin

A

b. amoxicillin

because it’s a beta-lactam and chlamydia is resistant to them

263
Q

Which of the following causes painful lesions?

a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV

A

a. HSV

264
Q

Which of the following causes cauliflower warts?

a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV

A

b. HPV

265
Q

Which of the following produces lesions that produce creamy grey-white lesions?

a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV

A

c. MCV

266
Q

Which of the following is most commonly transferred by sexual contact?

a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV

A

b. HBV

267
Q

Which of the following would you find after doing a serology test on a patient vaccinated against HBV?

a. Hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc)
b. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
c. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)

A

c. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)

268
Q

Which of the following indicates infectivity?

a. HCV RNA
b. HCV-specific antibodies

A

a. HCV RNA

B indicates exposure

269
Q

Which of. the following transmits Zika virus?

a. anopheles
b. aedes
c. culicinae

A

b. aedes

270
Q

Which of the following has a complication of developing Guillian Barre syndrome?

a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
d. Zika Virus

A

d. Zika Virus

271
Q

Which of the following confirms antigen presence (used for HIV testing)?

a. Western Bolt
b. PCR

A

b. PCR

A confirms antibody presence

272
Q

Which of the following kills spores?

a. boiling water at 100 C
b. autoclaving
c. pasteurization

A

b. autoclaving

273
Q

Which of the following is true about dry heat?

a. generally more efficient than moist heat
b. used to sterilize oils and powers
c. requires a lower temperature than moist heat

A

b. used to sterilize oils and powers

274
Q

Which sterilization method does the electron accelerator machine use?

a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. gaseous sterilization
d. gamma radiation
e. filters

A

d. gamma radiation

used to sterilization plastic goods

275
Q

Which sterilization method do we use for blood?

a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. gaseous sterilization
d. gamma radiation
e. filters

A

e. filters

276
Q

Which of the following is a purified subunit vaccine?

a. Oral Polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine

A

c. Influenza vaccine

277
Q

Which of the following is a recombinant viral antigen vaccine?

a. Oral Polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
e. Measles

A

d. Hepatitis B vaccine

278
Q

Which of the following diseases can be vaccinated against via synthetic peptides?

a. Polio
b. Yellow fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Foot and mouth disease

A

d. Foot and mouth disease

279
Q

Which of the following should be given to immunocompromised people?

a. IPV (intravenous poliovirus)
b. OPV (oral poliovirus)

A

a. IPV (intravenous poliovirus)

because its an inactivated version of the virus

280
Q

Which of the following should be given to an HIV-infected baby?

a. normal immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin

A

a. normal immune globulin

281
Q

Patient was bitten by a rabid dog, which of the following should you use to prevent rabies?

a. normal immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin

A

b. hyper-immune globulin

282
Q

How do DNA vaccines work?

A

we inject DNA into muscle tissue, the cells take it and make the viral protein. This protein is like an antigen, so it stimulates an immune reaction.

283
Q

Which of the following does mumps cause?

a. pneumonia
b. encephalitis
c. meningitis

A

c. meningitis

A & B caused by measles

284
Q

Which of the following is live attenuated?

a. hepatitis A
b. yellow fever
c. rabies

A

b. yellow fever

285
Q

Which of the following is a monovalent Rotavirus vaccine?

a. Rotateq
b. Rotarix

A

b. Rotarix

286
Q

Which of the following chemicals is used to inactivate viruses?

a. Acrylonitrile
b. Beta-propiolactone
c. Tetrachloroethylene
d. Ethylene oxide

A

b. Beta-propiolactone

287
Q

What type of vaccine does hepatitis A have?

a. live attenuated
b. killed vaccine
c. serum-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine

A

d. cell-culture-derived vaccine

288
Q

What type of vaccine does VZV have?

a. live attenuated
b. killed vaccine
c. serum-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine

A

a. live attenuated

289
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. when the MIC is greater than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
b. when the MIC is lower than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs

A

a. when the MIC is greater than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs

(MIC= minimum inhibitory concentration)

290
Q

A bacteria secretes beta-lactamase into the extracellular fluid, which of the following can you assume?

a. it’s gram +
b. it’s gram -
c. it has no cell wall

A

a. it’s gram +

gram - bacteria secrete beta-lactamase into the periplasmic space

291
Q

Which beta-lactamase type hydrolizes anti-staphylococcal penicillins?

a. TEM types
b. SHV types
c. CTX-M types
d. OXA-beta types
e. AmpC type

A

d. OXA-beta types

292
Q

Which beta-lactamase type can be carried on plasmids?

a. Carbapenemases
b. SHV types
c. CTX-M types
d. OXA-beta types
e. AmpC type

A

e. AmpC type

aka class C beta-lactamases

293
Q

Which beta-lactamase type is not inhibited by beta-lactamase inhibitors?

a. Carbapenemases
b. OXA-beta types
c. CTX-M types
d. AmpC type
e. SHV types

A

d. AmpC type

294
Q

Which of the following best describes rifampicin resistance?

a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation

A

b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered

295
Q

Which of the following proteins lead to vancomycin resistance?

a. D-Ala-D-hydroxybutyrate
b. D-Ala-Ala-hydroxybutyrate

A

a. D-Ala-D-hydroxybutyrate

when this protein is incorporated, it can’t be recognized by glycopeptides

296
Q

Which of the following best describes mupirocin resistance?

a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation

A

d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation

297
Q

Which of the following best describes quinolone resistance?

a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation

A

a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered

298
Q

Which of the following would you use to treat MRSA?

a. macrolides
b. fluoroquinolones
c. vancomycin
d. any beta-lactam

A

c. vancomycin

299
Q

Which of the following describes DNA transfer via bacteriophage?

a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
d. mobilization

A

c. transduction

300
Q

Which of the following describes the transfer of non-conjugative plasmids?

a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
d. mobilization

A

d. mobilization

it hitches a ride with its conjugative plasmid friend

301
Q

Which of the following is a qualitative method of testing for antibiotic resistance?

a. E test
b. Broth dilution
c. Disk effusion
d. MIC determination

A

c. Disk effusion

the rest are quantitative

302
Q

Which of the following E. coli express colonization factor antigen II (CFA 2)?

a. EPEC
b. ETEC
c. EHEC
d. EIEC
e. EAEC

A

b. ETEC

303
Q

Which of the following has haemagglutinin?

a. ETEC
b. streptococcus mutants
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. bordetella pertussis

A

d. bordetella pertussis

& H. Pylori

304
Q

Which of the following invades via the junctions between epithelial cells?

a. salmonella spp.
b. streptococcus mutants
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. staph aureus

A

a. salmonella spp.

305
Q

Which of the following describes the siderophore system?

a. breakdown hemoglobin and take the iron
b. reduce the ferric iron to use it
c. remove the iron from the iron binding group
d. damage a human cell to take the iron

A

c. remove the iron from the iron binding group

a= haemolysin
b= ferric reductase
306
Q

Which of the following has an M-protein?

a. salmonella spp.
b. streptococcus pyogenes
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. staph aureus

A

b. streptococcus pyogenes

307
Q

Which of the following best describes legionella?

a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
d. inhibits phagolysosome acidification

A

d. inhibits phagolysosome acidification

308
Q

Which of the following best describes N. gonnorhoeae?

a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing

A

c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals

309
Q

Which of the following best describes M. tuberculosis?

a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
c. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing

A

a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion

310
Q

Which of the following best describes Salmonella?

a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
c. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing

A

d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing

311
Q

Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?

a. S. aureus
b. C. botulinum
c. C. diphtheriae
d. E. coli

A

c. C. diphtheriae

312
Q

Which of the following people are most likely to get erysipeloid?

a. abattoir worker
b. sewage worker
c. fish handler
d. bird handler

A

c. fish handler

313
Q

Which of the following is most likely to infect a bird handler?

a. anthrax
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. psittacosis

A

d. psittacosis

caused by chlamydia psittaci

314
Q

Brucellosis is treated by which TWO of the following?

a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin

A

e. rifampicin
&
b. doxycycline

(for 6 weeks)

315
Q

Which of the following has a protein capsule?

a. Brucella
b. Bacillus anthacis
c. C. botulinum
d. Yersinia pestis

A

b. Bacillus anthacis

316
Q

Which of the following is most likely to infect a leather worker?

a. anthrax
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. psittacosis

A

a. anthrax

cutaneous anthrax

317
Q

Which of the following treats yersinia pestis?

a. rifampicin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline

A

d. tetracycline

318
Q

How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?

a. respiratory droplets
b. blood
c. bites or scratches
d. indirect contact

A

c. bites or scratches (of animals)

319
Q

Which of the following is most likely to infect a swimming pool maintenance worker?

a. pasteurella infection
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. leptospirosis

A

d. leptospirosis

320
Q

Which of the following is used to treat listeriosis?

a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin

A

a. ampicillin

321
Q

Which of the following causes mesenteric or cervical adenitis?

a. bacillus anthacis
b. bovine tuberculosis
c. coxella burnetii
d. erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

b. bovine tuberculosis

322
Q

which of the following is used to teat Q fever?

a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin

A

d. tetracycline

323
Q

which of the following best describes a patient that has myocarditis or meningoencephalitis due to toxoplasmosis?

a. healthy
b. born with toxoplasmosis
c. immunosuppressed

A

c. immunosuppressed

324
Q

Which of the following are associated with Negri bodies?

a. rabies
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. leptospirosis

A

a. rabies

325
Q

Which Leptospira serogroup causes Weils’s disease?

a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
b. L. canicola
c. L. hebdomadis

A

a. L. icterohaemorrhagia

326
Q

Which Leptospira serogroup is found in cattle?

a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
b. L. canicola
c. L. hebdomadis

A

c. L. hebdomadis

327
Q

Which of the following is used along with prophylaxis to prevent rheumatic fever?

a. penicillin II
b. penicillin III
c. penicillin IV
d. penicillin V

A

d. penicillin V

328
Q

Which of the following is used to prevent meningococcal meningitis in pregnant women?

a. ceftriaxone
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole

A

a. ceftriaxone

329
Q

Which of the following is used to prevent Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis?

a. benzylpenicillin
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole

A

c. rifampicin

330
Q

Which of the following is used to prevent recurrent UTI’s?

a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole

A

d. co-trimoxazole

331
Q

Which of the following is used to prevent gas gangrene?

a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. rifampicin
d. amoxicillin

A

b. benzylpenicillin

332
Q

Which of the following is used to prevent endocarditis in a dental patient who has heart lesions?

a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. gentamicin
d. amoxicillin

A

d. amoxicillin

333
Q

Which TWO of the following is used to prevent endocarditis in a dental patient who has a prosthetic heart valve?

a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. gentamicin
d. amoxicillin

A

c. gentamicin
&
d. amoxicillin

(use these two when patient is going under general anesthesia)

334
Q

Which TWO of the following are used during Dacron graft surgery?

a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin

A

b. cefuroxime
&
e. cefoxitin

335
Q

Which TWO of the following are used during gynecological surgery?

a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin

A

a. cefotaxime
&
c. metronidazole

336
Q

Which of the following is used during hip replacement surgery?

a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin

A

d. cloxacillin

337
Q

Which of the following is true about toxoplasmosis?

a. transmitted via contact with cats
b. higher transmission in the 1st-trimester
c. most severe abnormalities when infected in the 1st-trimester
d. most infects show immediate symptoms

A

c. most severe abnormalities when infected in the 1st-trimester

338
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of congenital listeriosis?

a. intracranial calcification
b. hutchinson’s triad
c. frontal bossing
d. granulomatosis infantiseptica

A

d. granulomatosis infantiseptica

339
Q

In which of the following do nearly half of all children in the womb die?

a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeriosis
c. congenital syphilis
d. brucellosis

A

c. syphilis

340
Q

Which TWO diseases may lead to hydrocephalus development (CSF accumulation)?

a. toxoplasmosis
b. congenital brucellosis
c. congenital syphilis
d. congenital listeriosis

A

a. toxoplasmosis
&
c. congenital syphilis

341
Q

Which TWO of the following Plasmodium spp. are associated congenital malaria?

a. P. falciparum
b. P. knowlesi
c. P. malariae
d. P. vivax

A

c. P. malariae
&
d. P. vivax

342
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of early congenital syphilis?

a. hydrocephalus
b. flaring scapulas
c. saddle nose
d. clutton’s joints
e. hydrops fetalis
f. high arched palate

A

e. hydrops fetalis

it’s the abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments

343
Q

Iin which of the following disease can you NOT rely on the serology test?

a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeria
c. brucellosis
d. malaria

A

b. listeria

syphilis serology test is also misleading

344
Q

Which fo the following is diagnosed with silver stain or dark ground microscopy?

a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeria
c. brucellosis
d. syphilis

A

d. syphilis

345
Q

Which of the following is given to treat congenital malaria in the 1st trimester?

a. quinine
b. artemisin IV
c. quinine IV
d. benzyl penicillin

A

c. quinine IV

A is used to treat a neonate with malaria

346
Q

Which TWO are used to treat brucellosis in pregnant women?

a. co-trimoxazole
b. rifampicin
c. amoxicillin
d. benzylpenicillin

A

a. co-trimoxazole
&
b. rifampicin

347
Q

Which test is used to diagnose malaria?

a. FTA-Abs
b. RPR/VDRL
c. Heal prick
d. Blood culture

A

c. heal prick test

348
Q

Which is used to treat listeria?

a. ampicillin
b. rifampicin
c. co-trimoxazole
d. benzylpenicillin

A

a. ampicillin

349
Q

How long must a woman with toxoplasmosis wait before getting pregnant?

a. 2 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

A

d. 1 year

350
Q

Artemisin IV and quinine are used to treat which stage of malaria?

a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. A&B
e. B&C

A

e. B&C

Artemisin IV is teratogenic in the first trimester

351
Q

Which of the following kills bacteria by hydrolyzing the proteins?

a. hydrogen peroxide
b. potassium permanganate
c. boric acid
d. heavy metals

A

c. boric acid

352
Q

Which of the following kills bacteria by attaching to the sulphhydryl group of the proteins?

a. hydrogen peroxide
b. potassium permanganate
c. boric acid
d. heavy metals

A

d. heavy metals

353
Q

Which of the following interferes with cell division?

a. crystal violet
b. lactic acid
c. potassium permanganate
d. propionic acid

A

a. crystal violet

354
Q

Which TWO of the following inhibit fermentation?

a. crystal violet
b. lactic acid
c. boric acid
d. propionic acid

A

b. lactic acid
&
d. propionic acid

355
Q

Which THREE of the following are easily inactivated by organic material?

a. hexachlorophene
b. tubid phenolics
c. hypochlorite
d. chlorhexidine
e. quaternary ammonium compounds
f. halogens

A 
b. tubid phenolics (detol)
&
c. hypochlorite
&
e. quaternary ammonium compounds (detergants)
356
Q

Which of the following can cause brain damage?

a. hexachlorophene
b. phenolic compounds
c. halogens
d. chlorhexidine

A

a. hexachlorophene

357
Q

Which of the following is used on burns?

a. hexachlorophene
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver sulphadiazine
d. chlorhexidine

A

c. silver sulphadiazine

358
Q

Which is used for wound infections?

a. silver sulphadiazine
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. copper sulfate

A

hydrogen peroxide

359
Q

What type of disinfectant is used to prevent gonococcal ophthalmia?

a. heavy metals
b. halogens
c. hexachlorophenes
d. phenolic compounds

A

a. heavy metals

360
Q

Which of the following is able to kill spores?

a. hexachlorophene
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver sulphadiazine
d. chlorhexidine

A

b. glutaraldehyde

361
Q

In addition to chlorine, which is used for swimming pools?

a. silver sulphadiazine
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. copper sulfate

A

c. copper sulfate

362
Q

Which of the following is not very stable and is needed to be prepared fresh daily?

a. hexachlorophene
b. phenolic compounds
c. hypochlorite
d. chlorhexidine

A

c. hypochlorite

363
Q

Which of the following do semicritical items interact with?

a. the bloodstream
b. skin
c. non-intact skin

A

c. non-intact skin

364
Q

Which of the following is used to disinfect critical items before surgery?

a. alcohol
b. chlorine dioxide
c. scouring powder
d. hydrogen peroxide

A

b. chlorine dioxide

A&D are for semi-critical items

365
Q

Which vaccine has a cell-mediated response?

a. Rabies
b. BCG
c. VZV

A

b. BCG

366
Q

Which of the following is a live vaccine?

a. typhoid vaccine
b. smallpox variola vaccine
c. oral polio vaccine
d. pertussis

A

b. smallpox variola vaccine

367
Q

Which of the following is cytotoxic T cell-mediated vaccine?

a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine

A

a. attenuated vaccine

368
Q

Which of the following needs an adjuvant?

a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine

A

b. inactive vaccine

369
Q

Which of the following needs a higher dose?

a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine

A

b. inactive vaccine

370
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the polysaccharide capsule?

a. it’s attached to a carrier protein via conjunction
b. allows the immune system to react more broadly
c. allows immunocompromized people to take the vaccine
d. it allows the vaccine to be more immunogenic

A

c. allows immunocompromized people to take the vaccine

it allows young children to be able to take the vaccine

371
Q

Which of these causes convulsions?

a. Rabies vaccine
b. BCG vaccine
c. whooping cough vaccine

A

c. whooping cough vaccine

pertussis vaccine

372
Q

A patient with an egg allergy wants to get the following vaccines, which one should be contraindicated?

a. Pertussis vaccine
b. Yellow fever vaccine
c. BCG vaccine
d. none

A

b. Yellow fever vaccine

as well as influenza vaccine; they’re egg-derived

373
Q

Which of the following can a pregnant woman take?

a. Pertussis vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
c. Yellow fever vaccine
d. Typhoid vaccine

A

b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine

374
Q

Which of the following occurs as a prenatal infection?

a. HBV
b. enterovirus
c. CMV

A

c. CMV

& VZV & Rubella

375
Q

Which of the following presents as Conjunctivitis, Heart anomalies, Arthralgia, & Deafness?

a. varicella
b. parvovirus
c. CMV
d. rubella

A

d. rubella

376
Q

Which of the following presents as hydrops fetalis and erythema infectiosum?

a. varicella
b. parvovirus
c. CMV
d. rubella

A

b. parvovirus

377
Q

Which of the following is the most common neonatal infection?

a. varicella
b. HSV-1
c. HSV-2
d. rubella

A

c. HSV-2

responsible for 80% if neonatal infections

378
Q

Which of the following presents as skin scarring, growth retardation, & limb hypoplasia?

a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. rubella

A

a. varicella

when it occurs in the first 20 weeks= congenital varicella syndrome

379
Q

Which of the following presents as blueberry muffin lesions, microencephaly, & seizures?

a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. rubella

A

b. CMV

380
Q

Which of the following is true about HBV vaccinations?

a. HBV vaccine should not be given if the child is delivered via cesarean
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is +
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is -
c. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if HBs antigen is +

A

b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is +

381
Q

Which of the following is the worst method of treating genital herpes (HSV)?

a. oral acyclovir
b. intravenous acyclovir
c. cream acyclovir

A

c. cream acyclovir

provide little benefit

382
Q

Which of the following has no vaccine nor treatment?

a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HPV
d. HBV
e. HIV
f. zika virus

A

f. zika virus

383
Q

Which of the following is treated with tenofovir or pegylated interferon?

a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HBV
d. HCV

A

d. HBV

384
Q

Which of the following is treated acyclovir?

a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HBV
d. HCV

A

b. HSV

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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