extra micro Q's Flashcards
Which of the following is able to recognize the patterns of antigens?
a. innate immunity
b. specific immunity
a. innate immunity
the pattern recognition receptors recognize the microbe-associated molecular patterns
Which of the following lyses cell wall?
a. lysosome
b. lysozyme
c. interferons
b. lysozyme
What induces an antiviral state?
a. lysosome
b. lysozyme
c. interferons
d. complement proteins
c. interferons
Which of the following is less specific?
a. phagocytosis
b. endocytosis
b. endocytosis
Which if the following is a soluble PRR (pattern recognition receptors)?
a. complement
b. complement receptor
c. t cells
a. complement
B= a PRR on a cell surface
What connects the two lobes of the thymus?
isthmus
Each lymph node is surrounded by
a. elastic capsule
b. fibrous capsule
b. fibrous capsule
Which of the following is NOT a B cell receptor?
a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgM
b. IgG
Which of the following recognizes an antigen presented with MHC class II?
a. CD4+
b. CD8+
a. CD4+
On which chromosome are the genes responsible for HLA proteins?
a. chromosome 2
b. chromosome 6
c. chromosome 10
d. chromosome 15
b. chromosome 6
Where are class I MHC molecules not expressed?
a. epithelial cells
b. neurons
c. red blood cells
d. lymphocytes
c. red blood cells
they’re expressed on all nucleated cells; RBC’s have no nucleus
Where are class II MHC molecules not expressed?
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Macrophages
d. Dendritic cells
a. T cells
they’re expressed on APC cells only
Which of the following methods are used by dendritic cells to internalize antigens?
a. antibody-mediated uptake
b. pinocytosis
c. phagocytosis
b. pinocytosis
a is used by B cells and C by macrophages
Which of the following is used to present an endogenous antigen?
a. class I MHC
b. class II MHC
a. class I MHC (it gets recognized by a cytotoxic T cell)
Which of the following CD molecules is only found in helper T cells?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8
b. CD4
Which of the following CD molecules is only found in cytotoxic T cells?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8
c. CD8
Which of the following does NOT activate B cells?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5
c. IL-3
Which of the following provides a worm immunity?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
a. IgE
Which of the following is only found in intracellular fluids?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
d. IgM
its too big to go extracellularly
Which of the following is the predominant anti-toxin antibody?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
c. IgG
In which form is IgA found in secretions?
a. monomer
b. dimer
b. dimer
monomer in serum
Which of the following is responsible for primary antibody response?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
d. IgM
Which of the following is responsible for secondary antibody response?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
c. IgG
Which of the following systems are complement proteins apart of?
a. innate
b. acquired
c. both
c. both
they can be activated by both of them
Which of the following is FALSE about T cell receptors (TCR)?
a. they have only one binding site
b. they’re very specific
c. have a large part inside the cell
d. it has a co-receptor to signal back to the cell when it is activated
c. have a large part inside the cell
TCR have a small part in the cell while CD3 receptors have a large intracellular part
Which of the following binds to macrophages and releases cytokines to reactivate its defective phagosime and lysosome fusion?
a. B cell
b. T helper 1 cell
c. T helper 2 cell
b. T helper 1 cell
Th1 = CMI
Which of the following is an anti-inflammatory cytokine?
a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-10
c. TNF-alpha
c. IL-10
anti-inflammatory = IL-4, IL-10, TGF
Which is used for humoral immunity?
a. T helper 1 cell
b. T helper 2 cell
b. T helper 2 cell
A is for CMI
A patient with CMV also has HIV, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy
b. retinitis
A patient with BK had a renal transplant, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy
d. nephropathy
A patient with CMV had a transplant, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy
a. pneumonitis
EBV is associated with
a. pneumonia
b. hepatitis
c. mononucleosis-like disease
d. hemorrhagic cystitis
c. mononucleosis like disease
CMV is associated with this too
Which of the following is associated with a vascular rash of different stages?
a. VZV
b. HSV 1
c. HSV 2
d. B&C
a. VZV
HSV-1 &-2 = same stage vascular rash
Which of the following with Kaposi’s sarcoma?
a. HHV6
b. HHV7
c. HHV8
d. A&B
c. HHV8
Which is associated with haemorragic cystitis?
a. BK virus
b. adenovirus
c. hMPV
d. A&B
d. A&B
hMPV is associated with
a. pneumonia
b. severe influenza
c. mononucleosis-like disease
d. hemorrhagic cystitis
b. severe influenza
Which of the following is used to treat CMV?
a. acyclovir
b. valacyclovir
c. famciclovir
d. valganciclovir
d. valganciclovir
and ganciclovir
Which of the following is used for HBV?
a. tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
b. valganciclovir
c. Lamuvidine
d. valacyclovir
e. A&B
f. B&D
g. A&C
g. A&C
Which of the following is used for HCV?
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir
c. protease inhibitors
Which TWO of these is used for adenovirus?
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir
b. ribavirin
&
d. cidofovir
Which of the following is used for BK virus?
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
Which of the following is NOT a primary lymphoid organ?
a. thymus
b. fetal liver
c. bone marrow
d. none
d. none
Where does positive selection occur?
a. cortex
b. medulla
a. cortex
Which of the following does the thymic cortical epithelium express highly?
a. MHC class 1
b. MHC class 2
c. both
c. both
What occurs when a T cell reacts to an MHC class 2 receptor of the thymic cortical epithelium?
a. it becomes a cytotoxic T cell
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
b. it loses the CD8 molecule (in the cortex positive selection occurs so when it reacts to class 2 MHC it becomes a helper T cell by losing the CD8 molecule and keeping CD4)
What occurs when a T cell does not react to any MHC receptor of the thymic cortical epithelium?
a. it becomes a cytotoxic T cell
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
c. it loses the CD4 molecule
d. apoptosis
d. apoptosis
What occurs when a T cell does not react to thymic medullary epithelium?
a. apoptosis
b. maturation
b. maturation
we are talking about the medulla, so its negative selection
Which cytokines are used by Treg to inhibit cellular activity of regular cells?
a. IL-9 & TNF-alpha
b. IL-10 & TGF-beta
c. IL-1 & IL-8
b. IL-10 & TGF-beta
Which of the following methods results in more apoptotic cells?
a. clonal deletion
b. clonal anergy
c. Treg cell
a. clonal deletion
Which of the following causes rheumatic fever?
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance
c. molecular mimicry
Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia?
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance
b. neoantigens
Which of the following causes insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules (on beta cells of the pancreas)
Systemic lupus (SLE) occurs because of high…
a. IL-2 & IL-8
b. IL-4 & IL-10
c. IL-6 & IL-12
d. IL-8 & IL-14
b. IL-4 & IL-10
Thyroiditis occurs because of…
a. high Treg & high Tc
b. high Treg & low Tc
c. low Treg & high Tc
d. low Treg & low Tc
c. low Treg & high Tc
Which of the following is true about the cause of Myasthenia gravis?
a. Auto antibodies attach acetylcholine, so there isn’t enough to bind to receptors
b. Auto antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and stop it from binding
c. Acyetylcholine production is hindered and there isn’t enough to bind to receptors
b. Auto antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and stop it from binding
Which of the following diseases is not organ specific?
a. pernicious anemia
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. insulin-dependent diabeted mellitus
b. rheumatoid arthritis
What is pernicious anemia?
decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B12.
T/F: the more antibodies present, the more precipitate is made
F; a correct antigen to antibody ratio is needed and too much of either causes no precipitation to occur
Which of these Antigen-antibody reactions use dyes to visualize the results?
a. precipitation
b. agglutination
c. immunoassay
c. immunoassay
Which immunofluorescence assay method is used to measure an unknown antibody?
a. direct method
b. indirect method
b. indirect method
when using the indirect method of immunofluorescence assay, which antibody is F-labeled?
a. primary antibody
b. secondary antibody
b. secondary antibody
When the antigen is unknown immunofluorescence assay method is used?
a. direct method
b. indirect method
a. direct method
the primary antibody is tagged
Which of the following is a confirmatory AIDS test?
a. southern blotting
b. northern blotting
c. western blotting
d. eastern blotting
c. western blotting
enzyme immunoassay
Which of the following is the most sensitive?
a. radioimmunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
c. enzyme immunoassay
a. radioimmunoassay
its also hazardous
What is true about ficoll density?
a. its greater than all cells
b. its higher than granulocyte density
c. its lower than lymphocyte density
d. its higher than peripheral blood mononuclear cells
d. its higher than peripheral blood mononuclear cells
in the lymphocyte stimulation test, we measure DNA synthesis (which indicated proliferation) via
a. radioactive thymine
b. radioactive thymidine
c. radioactive guanosine
d. radioactive cytosine
b. radioactive thymidine
during the T cell cytotoxicity assay, how do we know when the T cell kills target cells?
a. measuring proteins
b. measuring enzymes
c. measuring radioactivity
c. measuring radioactivity
they’re released when the target cell dies
Which of the following can be used to sort cells via flow cytometry?
a. radioimmunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
c. enzyme immunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
Which TWO of the following are mediated by igG & igM?
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
b. hypersensitivity type 2
&
c. hypersensitivity type 3
In which of the following is the allergin an antigen?
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
a. hypersensitivity type 1
Which of the following cells bind with high affinity?
a. NK cells
b. Basophils
c. Macrophages
d. Monocytes
b. Basophils
Which of the following cells bind with low affinity?
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes
d. Monocytes
A blood transfusion reaction is an example of…
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
b. hypersensitivity type 2
Which of the following is a newly formed mediator?
a. serotonin
b. thromboxane
c. tryptase
d. heparin
b. thromboxane
Which of the following releases IL-4 to tell the B cells to switch to making IgE?
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. cytotoxic T cell
d. epithelial cells
b. Th2
Which of the following mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity late reaction?
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes
a. Eosinophils
Which TWO of the following complement proteins attract neutrophils?
a. C2b
b. C3b
c. C4a
d. C5a
b. C3b (tags the complex)
&
d. C5a (chemotctic)
Artheritis and bacterial endocarditis are examples of…
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
c. hypersensitivity type 3
Hay fever is examples of…
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
a. hypersensitivity type 1
Which of the following activate macrophages and trigger inflammation in type 4 reaction?
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. cytotoxic T cell
a. Th1
Which of the following usually remove immune comlexes?
a. granulocytes
b. mononuclear phagocytes
b. mononuclear phagocytes
such as monocytes and macrophages
Which of the follwing is a mast cell activator?
a. C2a
b. C3a
c. C4a
d. C5a
d. C5a
Which of the following generate memory Th1 cells against delayed type hypersensitivity antigens?
a. Basophils
b. Dendritic cells
c. Mast cells
d. Eosinophils
b. Dendritic cells
What are colicins and what is their purpose?
a. man-made antibacterial proteins that kill pathogens
b. antibacterial proteins made by pathogenic bacteria to damage human cells
c. antibacterial proteins made by flora to protect itself
c. antibacterial proteins made by flora to protect it
How are pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) recognized?
a. MHC I
b. MHC II
c. T cell receptors
d. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
d. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
LPS activates…
a. TLR 1
b. TLR 2
c. TLR 3
d. TLR 4
d. TLR 4
Which of the following recognizes gram-positive bacteria?
a. TLR 2
b. TLR 3
c. TLR 4
d. TLR 5
a. TLR 2
with help from TLR 1 or 6
Which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to phagocytosis?
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
b. IgG2
the other two have the highest affinity for Fc receptors, which leads to opsonization and phagocytosis
T cell-dependent B cell reaction produces
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
c. IgG
T cell-independent B cell reaction produces
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
b. IgM
Which of the following best describes hypermaturation of B cells?
a. variable changes that make the binding of the antibodies better
b. variable changes that reduce the binding affinity of antibodies
a. variable changes that make the binding of the antibodies better
(said in class)
Which of the following is more specific?
a. TLR
b. PAMP
a. TLR
Which of the following Fc receptors are on phagocytes and bind antibody-coated bacteria?
a. Fc alpha
b. Fc beta
c. Fc gamma
d. Fc delta
c. Fc gamma
Which of the following stops bacterial binding to epithelial cells?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
a. IgA
secretory IgA
Which of the following is the best activator of the complement system?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
b. IgM
it makes lots of antigen-antibody complexes
Which of the following neutralizes the virus?
a. mucin
b. pentraxin
c. collectin
c. collectin
surfactant proteins A and D
Which of the following does CMV virus infect?
a. Leukocytes
b. B cells
c. CD4 T cells
a. Leukocytes
every virus infects the cell that makes receptors for it; B=EBV infects it
Using antibiotics is an example of
a. infection prevention
b. chemo prophylaxis
c. immune prophylaxis
b. chemo prophylaxis
Which of the following should you give to a patient who has been bitten by a venomous spider?
a. active immunization
b. passive immunization
b. passive immunization
give him the antibodies against the agent directly
Which of the following is more dangerous and more effective?
a. killed organism vaccine
b. surface antigen vaccine
c. living attenuated vaccine
c. living attenuated vaccine
Which of the following have a lower immunization time and lower immune reaction?
a. carbohydrate antigens
b. protein antigens
c. aluminum hydroxide
a. carbohydrate antigens
they are poorly immunogenic, so we attach them with carrier proteins to get a better reaction
Which of the following is given to immunocompromized patients?
a. monoclonal antibodies
b. polyclonal antibodies
b. polyclonal antibodies
they have a wide range and can protect them from multiple things at once
Which TWO vaccines are only needed once in life?
a. hep B
b. MMR
c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)
d. varicella
b. MMR
&
d. varicella
Which of the following causes a combined deficiency?
a. B cell defect
b. T cell defect
c. complement component defect
d. phagocytes defect
b. T cell defect
the most severe type of immunodeficiency
NK cells are important in killing
a. intracellular bacteria
b. extracellular bacteria
c. protozoa
a. intracellular bacteria
A deficiency of which of the following causes fungal infections?
a. phagocytes
b. neutrophils
c. complement system
d. NK cells
c. complement system
A deficiency of neutralizing antibodies results in a susceptibility to all of the following, EXCEPT
a. viruses
b. intracellular bacteria
c. extracellular bacteria
d. fungi
e. protozoa
d. fungi
Which if the following occurs because of a B cell failure?
a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
the other two are because of bad T cell signals to B cells
Why are patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia prone to enterovirus infections?
a. because of the T cell deficiency
b. because they lack IgA
c. because they lack IgM
b. because they lack IgA
Which of the following have absent B lymphocytes?
a. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
a= absent plasma cells
Which of the following has low IgG2 and IgG4 levels?
a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
c. IgA deficiency
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
c. IgA deficiency
Patients with which of the following are prone to tumors and autoimmune manifestations?
a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. IgA deficiency
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
When a patient has a defective class switch, which of these indicates that the T cell is deficient?
a. CD40 receptor is defective
b. CD40 ligand is defective
b. CD40 ligand is defective
mentioned in class
In which of the following does pneumonia occur due to Pneumocystis jiroveci?
a. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
a. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
DIGeorge anomaly patients usually have a monosomy of
a. 21q11.2
b. 22q11.3
c. 22q14.2
d. 22q11.2
d. 22q11.2
A patient with ____ has a defective NADPH oxidase
a. leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)
b. chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
c. complement defects
b. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
the pathogens are not killed because there are no oxygen radicals, so the body makes granuloma
CR3 receptor on phagocyte membrane is made out of which two polypeptide chains?
a. CD12b & CD18
b. CD11b & CD16
c. CD11b & CD18
d. CD10b & CD16
c. CD11b & CD18
A deficiency in which inhibitor results in hereditary angioedema?
a. C1
b. C3
c. C5
d. C7
a. C1
Immune complex disease (SLE) develops because of a deficiency in
a. Terminal components
b. Alternative pathway components
c. Classical pathway components
c. Classical pathway components
A deficiency in which of the following does NOT cause a susceptibility to N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis?
a. Classical pathway components
b. Alternative pathway components
c. Terminal components
a. Classical pathway components
deficiencies in both terminal and alternative pathways lead to those infections
A deficiency in which of the following causes an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
a. C1
b. C3
c. C5
d. C7
b. C3
Which of the following causes both systemic and innate fungal infections?
a. H. capsulatum
b. Candida
c. Zygomycetes
b. Candida
Which of the following produce IL-4 and IL-5?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells
b. Th2 cells
Which of the following produce TGF-β and IL-10?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells
d. T-Reg cells
Which of the following produce IL-17 and IL-22?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells
c. Th17
Which of the following is a transplant that uses stem cells taken from a donor?
a. Autologous transplant
b. Allogeneic transplant
b. Allogeneic transplant
Which two Candida species show positive germ tube and chlamydospore test?
a. Candida tropicalis
b. Candida dubliniensis
c. Candida parapsilosis
d. Candida albicans
b. Candida dubliniensis
&
d. Candida albicans
Which agar is used to diagnose Candida spp.?
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
b. Neomycin agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Niger seed agar
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
Which is NOT a sign of angioinvasive aspergillosis patient?
a. ‘halo sign’
b. hemorrhage
c. retinitis
d. coagulative necrosis
c. retinitis
Which of the following is most likely to lead into Invasive aspergillosis?
a. solid organ transplant recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient
Which of the following is most likely to lead into Invasive candidiasis?
a. solid organ transplant recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient
a. solid organ transplant recipient
Fusarium spp. develop from a cottony white color to a
a. blue or green color
b. silver or grey color
c. pink or violet color
c. pink or violet color
Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop cutanious mucormycosis?
a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia
c. soft tissue infections
Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop pulmonary mucormycosis?
a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia
d. leukemia
Which of the following affects the brain?
a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
Which of the following affects the eyes?
a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus
b. cytomegalovirus
Which of the following affects the lungs?
a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus
a. penicilliosis
Which of the following organism has a honeycomb appearance?
a. candida
b. pneumocystis
c. cryptococcosis
b. pneumocystis
What is false about pneumocystis jirovecii?
a. has grey colored cysts
b. treated with Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
c. does not grow in medium
d. cell wall made mostly of ergosterol
d. cell wall made mostly of ergosterol
Which agar is used to diagnose cryptococcosis spp.?
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
b. Neomycin agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Niger seed agar
d. Niger seed agar
brown colonies
Which cryptococcosis spp. grow on canavanine glycine bromothymol blue (CGB) agar?
a. C. gatti
b. C. neoformans
a. C. gatti
Which of the following species can be diagnosed via CSF?
a. Pneumocystis spp.
b. cryptococcosis
c. candida
b. cryptococcosis
Which crypococcosis virulence factor is important for diagnoses?
a. melanin
b. polysaccharide capsule
c. urase production
b. polysaccharide capsule
Which of the following is found in Africa?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus
e. Emergomyces africanus
Which of the following is a Large endospore-filled spherule?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
Which of the following is found in India and SE asia?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
Which of the following is more infective?
a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HIV
a. HBV
Which of the following should you NOT do after a needle prick injury?
a. encourage the wound to bleed
b. wash it with water and soap
c. scrub the area to make sure its clean
d. dry and cover the wound
c. scrub the area to make sure its clean
Which of the following has the highest fatality?
a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
b. marburg virus
Which of the following is spread via hyalomma tick bites?
a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
Which of the following is spread via rat urine or feces?
a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
c. lassa virus
Which of the following is the most appropriate place for a patient with a contagious and dangerous virus?
a. negative pressure room
b. positive pressure room
a. negative pressure room
Which of the following is the most appropriate place for an immunosuppressed patient?
a. negative pressure room
b. positive pressure room
b. positive pressure room
How long do viruses survive on a non-absorbative surface?
a. 3 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 10 hours
d. 10 hours
Which of the following is used to treat RSV?
a. Palivizumab
b. Oseltamivir
c. Zanamivir
d. Tamiflu
a. Palivizumab
Which of the following viruses are responsible for the common cold?
a. CMV
b. RSV
c. Rhinovirus
d. Parainfluenza virus
c. Rhinovirus
Why can a patient get rhinovirus many times without becoming immune?
it has many serotypes
large vs small droplet spread
influenza virus = both
parainfluenza virus= large
adenovirus= both
Which Parainfluenza virus serotype is responsible for causing pneumonia?
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
Which of the following can be acquired endogenously and exogenously?
a. Rhinovirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
b. Adenovirus
Which of the following have the highest risk of developing SARS coronavirus?
a. healthcare worker
b. child
d. elder
a. healthcare worker
20% of the people affected
Which animal is associated with MERS coronavirus?
a. Alligator
b. Bear
c. Camel
d. Dear
c. Camel
Which of the following can be transmitted 4 days before and after the rash?
a. measles
b. rubella
c. parvovirus B19
a. measles
b&c is 7 days before and after the rash
Which of the following is the most likely to be spread to close contacts?
a. parvovirus B19
b. measles
c. varicella zoster virus
b. measles
90% likely
Which of the following cannot be spread via respiratory secretions?
a. shingles
b. chickenpox
a. shingles
only via contact with lesions
Which TWO of the following are used to treat chickenpox?
a. Oseltamivir
b. Famciclovir
c. Valaciclovir
d. Zanamivir
b. Famciclovir
&
c. Valaciclovir
Which of the following causes aseptic meningitis in immunocompromized patients?
a. rubella
b. mumps
c. measles
b. mumps
Enteroviruses shed for how long after the infection?
a. 5 days
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 1 month
d. 1 month
Which of the following is not one of the small round-structured viruses (SRSVs)?
a. astrovirus
b. calicivirus
c. enterovirus 70
d. norwalk virus
c. enterovirus 70
Which of the following is NOT associated with nosocomial infections?
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis E
c. rotavirus
b. hepatitis E
Which of the following is the most common cause of nosocomial infections in pediatric patients?
a. astrovirus
b. calicivirus
c. rotavirus
d. norwalk virus
c. rotavirus
Which of the following best describes the action of amantadine?
a. stops the uncoating stage via the M1 proteins
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
c. binds to sialic acid to deactivate it
d. activate cytokines via agonistic TLR-7 &8
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
Which of the following is active against influenza C?
a. Favipiravir
b. Pimodivir
c. Baloxavir marboxil
a. Favipiravir
Which of the following is only active against influenza A?
a. Favipiravir
b. Pimodivir
c. Baloxavir marboxil
b. Pimodivir
Which of the following best describes the action of imiquimod?
a. stops the uncoating stage via the M1 proteins
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
c. binds to sialic acid to deactivate it
d. activate cytokines via agonistic activity towards TLR-7 &8
d. activate cytokines via agonistic activity towards TLR-7 &8
(treats HPV)
Which of the following is Rimantadine active against?
a. influenza A
b. influenza B
c. influenza C
d. A&B
e. B&C
a. influenza A
it’s an M2 blocker
Which of the following is Zanamivir active against?
a. influenza A
b. influenza B
c. influenza C
d. A&B
e. B&C
d. A&B
Which of the following best describes the action of Peramivir?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
its a neuraminidase inhibitor
Which of the following best describes the action of Baloxavir marboxil?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
its a polymerase inhibitor
Which HCV genotype is resistant to interferon alpha (IFN-α)?
a. genotype 1
b. genotype 2
c. genotype 3
a. genotype 1
Which of the following best describes the action of Ribavirin?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
switching from Th2 to Th1; from humoral to cell mediated
Which of the following best describes the action of IFN-α (interferon alpha)?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
stimulating immune system
Which of the following is true about Ribavirin?
a. an analog of thymine
b. an analog of cytosine
c. pairs up with adenosine
d. pairs up with uridine
d. pairs up with uridine
Ribavirin is an analog of Guanine & Adenine; it pairs up with uridine & cytosine
Which of the following is a non-nucleoside analogue (NNRTI)?
a. Lamivudine
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz
d. Efavirenz
we took nevirapine too
Which of the following is a nucleotide analogue (NRTI)?
a. Atazanavir
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz
b. Tenofovir
Which of the following is a fusion inhibitor?
a. Atazanavir
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz
c. Enfuvirtide
Which of the following is an anti-viral that only works on infected cells?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. valacyclovir
d. famciclovir
b. acyclovir
needs to be phospholyrated to be active. It’s phspholyrated by thymidine kinase, which is only in infected cells.
What is the drug of choice to treat CMV retinitis?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. famciclovir
c. cidofovir
What is the drug of choice to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. foscarnet
b. acyclovir
What drug is used to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis if the patient is resistant to acyclovir?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. foscarnet
d. foscarnet
Which dose of acyclovir are patients with Herpes Simplex Encephalitis given?
a. 10 mg/kg for every 6 hours for 15-21 days
b. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 15-20 days
c. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 14-21 days
d. 10 mg/kg for every 6 hours for 14-20 days
c. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 14-21 days
which of the following is an analogue of guanine?
a. entecavir
b. adefovir
c. lamivudin
a. entecavir
Which of the following treats HBV but cannot treat HIV?
a. entecavir
b. adefovir
c. imiquimod
b. adefovir
can’t be used for HIV because an extremely high dose is required
Which of the following describes the primary stage of syphilis?
a. condylomata lata
b. fever
c. gumma
d. regional lymph nodes enlarged
d. regional lymph nodes enlarged
Which of the following describes the secondary stage of syphilis?
a. chancer development
b. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
d. gumma development
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
Which describes latent syphilis?
a. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
c. gumma development
d. chancer development
a. no clinical manifestations
Which describes tertiary syphilis?
a. chancer development
b. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
d. charcot’s joint
d. charcot’s joint
and gumma development
Which of these is used as a confirmatory syphilis test?
a. serology
b. TPHA specific test
c. non-specific test
d. direct microscopy
b. TPHA specific test
Which of these is used to measure syphilis activity?
a. serology
b. TPHA specific test
c. VDRL/RPR non-specific test
d. direct microscopy
c. VDRL/RPR non-specific test
penicillin is prescribed for 15-21 days to treat syphilis in the case of
a. primary & secondary syphilis
b. tertiary & late syphilis
c. pregnancy & congenital syphilis
b. tertiary & late syphilis
Adult patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin, which of the following should you prescribe?
a. ceftriaxone
b. doxycycline
c. erythromycin
b. doxycycline
A pregnant patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin, which of the following should you prescribe?
a. ceftriaxone
b. doxycycline
c. erythromycin
a. ceftriaxone
it crosses the placenta
Which of the following has more mutations?
a. RNA
b. DNA
a. RNA
Which of the following is true?
a. the faster the viral clearance, the more the mutations
b. the faster the viral production, the more the mutations
c. the slower the viral production, the more the mutations
b. the faster the viral production, the more the mutations
Which is true about a drug with maximal antiviral activity
a. an eliminate the wild type only
b. has a moderate chance of producing resistance
c. produces no viral load
d. high selective pressure
c. produces no viral load
Which is true about a drug with intermediate antiviral activity
a. an eliminate the mutant viruses only
b. has no chance of producing resistance
c. produces no viral load
d. high selective pressure
d. high selective pressure
Which of the following is more likely to cause a drug resistance?
a. poor antiviral activity
b. intermediate antiviral activity
c. maximal antiviral activity
b. intermediate antiviral activity
Which TWO of the following mutations cause nelfinavir?
a. D20M
b. D30N
c. L90M
d. L80N
b. D30N
&
c. L90M
Which of the following has a high genetic barrier to resistance?
a. protease inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. integrase inhibitors
a. protease inhibitors
Which of the following requires 1 or 2 mutations to get drug resistance?
a. protease inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. integrase inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
low genetic barrier
Which of the following should you give to a patient that has a YMDD mutant hep B virus?
a. lamivudine
b. adefovir
c. entecavir
c. entecavir
effective against lamivudine-resistant strains
Which of the following HCV genotype is the most susceptible to resistance?
a. genotype 1
b. genotype 2
c. genotype 3
d. genotype 4
a. genotype 1
Which genotype of the IL28B gene is associated with a better response?
a. CT
b. TT
c. CC
c. CC
mutations NS3 &NS4A are associated with resistance to…
a. HCV DNA inhibitors
b. HCV protease inhibitors
c. HBV DNA inhibitors
d. HBV protease inhibitors
b. HCV protease inhibitors
Which of the following insertion site has the highest infection rate?
a. femoral
b. subclavian vein
c. jugular
a. femoral
which of the following is the most common cause of infection in a long central line?
a. candida
b. enterococcus
c. staphylococcus
d. pseudomonas
c. staphylococcus
a catheter was inserted due to an emergency, when must you remove it?
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 72 hours
b. after 24 hours
A peripheral venous catheter was inserted, when does it have to be removed?
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 7 days
c. after 72 hours
A central venous catheter was inserted, when does it have to be removed?
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 7 days
d. after 7 days
What is used to disinfect a catheter for high-risk patients?
a. chlorhexidine
b. vancomycin
b. vancomycin
the Hickman catheter is what type?
a. central venous catheter
b. peripheral venous catheter
a. central venous catheter
Which of the following inhibits DNA synthesis?
a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins
c. flucytosine
Which of the following inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis?
a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins
a. azoles
Which is true about liposomal amphotericin B (L-AMB)?
a. more neurotoxic than amphotericin B
b. don’t harm human cells
c. accumulates in the kidney
b. don’t harm human cells
the rest are false!
Which of the following causes ergosterol disruption?
a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins
b. polyenes
Which of the following has a disk-like particle shape?
a. ABLC
b. ABCD
c. L-AMB
b. ABCD
Which of the following has a ribbon-like particle shape?
a. ABLC
b. ABCD
c. L-AMB
a. ABLC
Which of the following is the drug of choice for deep-seated fungal infections?
a. Amphoterin B
b. ABLC
c. ABCD
d. L-AMB
a. Amphoterin B
Which of the following spreads more evenly due to its small size?
a. Amphoterin B
b. ABLC
c. ABCD
d. L-AMB
d. L-AMB
Which of the following enzyme does azole inhibit?
a. 14-alpha-demethylase
b. 16-alpha-demethylase
c. 14-alpha-methylase
d. 16-alpha-methylase
a. 14-alpha-demethylase
What is the precursor of ergosterol?
squalene
Which of the following is used for UTI’s?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
a. fluconazole
Which of the following is active against zygomycetes?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
d. posaconazole
Which of the following is the best choice for aspergillosis infection?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
c. voriconazole
Which of the following is a prodrug?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
e. isavuconazole
Which of the following is becomes more bioavailable when taken orally with high-fat meal?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
d. posaconazole
(voriconazole becomes less bioavailable if taken with a fatty meal
Which TWO of the following has a side-effect of visual disturbances such as hallucinations?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
b. itraconazole
&
c. voriconazole
Which of the following requires cyclodextrin to function?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
c. voriconazole
Which of the following has an oral bioavailability that’s equal to intravenous bioavailability?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
e. isavuconazole
Which of the following is true about flucytosine?
a. rarely used in combination
b. getting resistance is rare
c. high levels lead to myelotoxicity
c. high levels lead to myelotoxicity
flucytosine + Amphoterin B combo are used to treat which TWO of the following?
a. candida endophthalmitis
b. candida parapsilosis
c. cryptococcal pneumonitis
d. cryptococcal meningitis
a. candida endophthalmitis
&
d. cryptococcal meningitis
Which of the following cannot be treated with Echinocandins?
a. C. albicans
b. C. neoformans
c. C. krusei
d. C. glabrata
b. C. neoformans
What’s the first choice for treating candidiasis?
caspofungin
Which method is used to disinfect porous material?
a. heat
b. steam
c. gamma radiation
b. steam
Which method is used to disinfect plastic that is not heat resistant?
a. heat
b. steam
c. gamma radiation
c. gamma radiation
Which of the following is used to culture Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?
a. Chocolate agar with isovitalex
b. Thayer-Martin medium
c. Chocolate agar
b. Thayer-Martin medium
Which of the following organisms cannot be cultivated?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. treponema pallidum
c. treponema pallidum
which of the following results in chancroid with a soft edge?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b= hard edge
Which of the following symptoms does a baby with congenital syphilis have?
a. chancre
b. rash
c. no symptoms
d. skin gumma
b. rash
symptoms of secondary syphilis
Describe reticular bodies of chlamydia trachomatis
a. non-infectious intracellular form
b. infections extracellular form
b. infections extracellular form
Which of the following is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. chlamydia trichromatis
d. chlamydia trichromatis
Which of the following causes inguinal lymphadentis?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. chlamydia trichromatis
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. treponema pallidum
a. heamophilus ducreyi
Which of the following causes lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. chlamydia trichromatis
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. treponema pallidum
b. chlamydia trichromatis
Which of the following causes painful ulcer?
a. haemophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b= painless
Which of the following causes donovanosis?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. heamophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
c. klebsiella granulomatis
Which of the following is cultured with chocolate agar with isovitalex?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
Which of the following has clue cells when you culture it?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
Which of the following has Donovan bodies when you culture it?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
c. klebsiella granulomatis
Which TWO of the following causes PID?
a. neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. heamophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. mycoplasma genitalium
e. chlamydia trichromatis
f. gardnerella vaginalis
a. neisseria gonorrhoeae
&
d. mycoplasma genitalium
Which of the following is a specific antibody test?
a. VDRL
b. TPHA
c. RPR
b. TPHA
Which of the following CANNOT treat chlamydia trichromatis?
a. tetracycline
b. amoxicillin
c. erythromycin
b. amoxicillin
because it’s a beta-lactam and chlamydia is resistant to them
Which of the following causes painful lesions?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
a. HSV
Which of the following causes cauliflower warts?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
b. HPV
Which of the following produces lesions that produce creamy grey-white lesions?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
c. MCV
Which of the following is most commonly transferred by sexual contact?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
b. HBV
Which of the following would you find after doing a serology test on a patient vaccinated against HBV?
a. Hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc)
b. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
c. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
c. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
Which of the following indicates infectivity?
a. HCV RNA
b. HCV-specific antibodies
a. HCV RNA
B indicates exposure
Which of. the following transmits Zika virus?
a. anopheles
b. aedes
c. culicinae
b. aedes
Which of the following has a complication of developing Guillian Barre syndrome?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
d. Zika Virus
d. Zika Virus
Which of the following confirms antigen presence (used for HIV testing)?
a. Western Bolt
b. PCR
b. PCR
A confirms antibody presence
Which of the following kills spores?
a. boiling water at 100 C
b. autoclaving
c. pasteurization
b. autoclaving
Which of the following is true about dry heat?
a. generally more efficient than moist heat
b. used to sterilize oils and powers
c. requires a lower temperature than moist heat
b. used to sterilize oils and powers
Which sterilization method does the electron accelerator machine use?
a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. gaseous sterilization
d. gamma radiation
e. filters
d. gamma radiation
used to sterilization plastic goods
Which sterilization method do we use for blood?
a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. gaseous sterilization
d. gamma radiation
e. filters
e. filters
Which of the following is a purified subunit vaccine?
a. Oral Polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Influenza vaccine
Which of the following is a recombinant viral antigen vaccine?
a. Oral Polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
e. Measles
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
Which of the following diseases can be vaccinated against via synthetic peptides?
a. Polio
b. Yellow fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Foot and mouth disease
d. Foot and mouth disease
Which of the following should be given to immunocompromised people?
a. IPV (intravenous poliovirus)
b. OPV (oral poliovirus)
a. IPV (intravenous poliovirus)
because its an inactivated version of the virus
Which of the following should be given to an HIV-infected baby?
a. normal immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin
a. normal immune globulin
Patient was bitten by a rabid dog, which of the following should you use to prevent rabies?
a. normal immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin
How do DNA vaccines work?
we inject DNA into muscle tissue, the cells take it and make the viral protein. This protein is like an antigen, so it stimulates an immune reaction.
Which of the following does mumps cause?
a. pneumonia
b. encephalitis
c. meningitis
c. meningitis
A & B caused by measles
Which of the following is live attenuated?
a. hepatitis A
b. yellow fever
c. rabies
b. yellow fever
Which of the following is a monovalent Rotavirus vaccine?
a. Rotateq
b. Rotarix
b. Rotarix
Which of the following chemicals is used to inactivate viruses?
a. Acrylonitrile
b. Beta-propiolactone
c. Tetrachloroethylene
d. Ethylene oxide
b. Beta-propiolactone
What type of vaccine does hepatitis A have?
a. live attenuated
b. killed vaccine
c. serum-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine
What type of vaccine does VZV have?
a. live attenuated
b. killed vaccine
c. serum-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine
a. live attenuated
Which of the following is true?
a. when the MIC is greater than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
b. when the MIC is lower than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
a. when the MIC is greater than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
(MIC= minimum inhibitory concentration)
A bacteria secretes beta-lactamase into the extracellular fluid, which of the following can you assume?
a. it’s gram +
b. it’s gram -
c. it has no cell wall
a. it’s gram +
gram - bacteria secrete beta-lactamase into the periplasmic space
Which beta-lactamase type hydrolizes anti-staphylococcal penicillins?
a. TEM types
b. SHV types
c. CTX-M types
d. OXA-beta types
e. AmpC type
d. OXA-beta types
Which beta-lactamase type can be carried on plasmids?
a. Carbapenemases
b. SHV types
c. CTX-M types
d. OXA-beta types
e. AmpC type
e. AmpC type
aka class C beta-lactamases
Which beta-lactamase type is not inhibited by beta-lactamase inhibitors?
a. Carbapenemases
b. OXA-beta types
c. CTX-M types
d. AmpC type
e. SHV types
d. AmpC type
Which of the following best describes rifampicin resistance?
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
Which of the following proteins lead to vancomycin resistance?
a. D-Ala-D-hydroxybutyrate
b. D-Ala-Ala-hydroxybutyrate
a. D-Ala-D-hydroxybutyrate
when this protein is incorporated, it can’t be recognized by glycopeptides
Which of the following best describes mupirocin resistance?
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
Which of the following best describes quinolone resistance?
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
Which of the following would you use to treat MRSA?
a. macrolides
b. fluoroquinolones
c. vancomycin
d. any beta-lactam
c. vancomycin
Which of the following describes DNA transfer via bacteriophage?
a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
d. mobilization
c. transduction
Which of the following describes the transfer of non-conjugative plasmids?
a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
d. mobilization
d. mobilization
it hitches a ride with its conjugative plasmid friend
Which of the following is a qualitative method of testing for antibiotic resistance?
a. E test
b. Broth dilution
c. Disk effusion
d. MIC determination
c. Disk effusion
the rest are quantitative
Which of the following E. coli express colonization factor antigen II (CFA 2)?
a. EPEC
b. ETEC
c. EHEC
d. EIEC
e. EAEC
b. ETEC
Which of the following has haemagglutinin?
a. ETEC
b. streptococcus mutants
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. bordetella pertussis
d. bordetella pertussis
& H. Pylori
Which of the following invades via the junctions between epithelial cells?
a. salmonella spp.
b. streptococcus mutants
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. staph aureus
a. salmonella spp.
Which of the following describes the siderophore system?
a. breakdown hemoglobin and take the iron
b. reduce the ferric iron to use it
c. remove the iron from the iron binding group
d. damage a human cell to take the iron
c. remove the iron from the iron binding group
a= haemolysin b= ferric reductase
Which of the following has an M-protein?
a. salmonella spp.
b. streptococcus pyogenes
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. staph aureus
b. streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following best describes legionella?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
d. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
Which of the following best describes N. gonnorhoeae?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
Which of the following best describes M. tuberculosis?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
c. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
Which of the following best describes Salmonella?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
c. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?
a. S. aureus
b. C. botulinum
c. C. diphtheriae
d. E. coli
c. C. diphtheriae
Which of the following people are most likely to get erysipeloid?
a. abattoir worker
b. sewage worker
c. fish handler
d. bird handler
c. fish handler
Which of the following is most likely to infect a bird handler?
a. anthrax
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. psittacosis
d. psittacosis
caused by chlamydia psittaci
Brucellosis is treated by which TWO of the following?
a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin
e. rifampicin
&
b. doxycycline
(for 6 weeks)
Which of the following has a protein capsule?
a. Brucella
b. Bacillus anthacis
c. C. botulinum
d. Yersinia pestis
b. Bacillus anthacis
Which of the following is most likely to infect a leather worker?
a. anthrax
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. psittacosis
a. anthrax
cutaneous anthrax
Which of the following treats yersinia pestis?
a. rifampicin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
d. tetracycline
How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?
a. respiratory droplets
b. blood
c. bites or scratches
d. indirect contact
c. bites or scratches (of animals)
Which of the following is most likely to infect a swimming pool maintenance worker?
a. pasteurella infection
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. leptospirosis
d. leptospirosis
Which of the following is used to treat listeriosis?
a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin
a. ampicillin
Which of the following causes mesenteric or cervical adenitis?
a. bacillus anthacis
b. bovine tuberculosis
c. coxella burnetii
d. erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
b. bovine tuberculosis
which of the following is used to teat Q fever?
a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin
d. tetracycline
which of the following best describes a patient that has myocarditis or meningoencephalitis due to toxoplasmosis?
a. healthy
b. born with toxoplasmosis
c. immunosuppressed
c. immunosuppressed
Which of the following are associated with Negri bodies?
a. rabies
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. leptospirosis
a. rabies
Which Leptospira serogroup causes Weils’s disease?
a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
b. L. canicola
c. L. hebdomadis
a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
Which Leptospira serogroup is found in cattle?
a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
b. L. canicola
c. L. hebdomadis
c. L. hebdomadis
Which of the following is used along with prophylaxis to prevent rheumatic fever?
a. penicillin II
b. penicillin III
c. penicillin IV
d. penicillin V
d. penicillin V
Which of the following is used to prevent meningococcal meningitis in pregnant women?
a. ceftriaxone
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole
a. ceftriaxone
Which of the following is used to prevent Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis?
a. benzylpenicillin
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole
c. rifampicin
Which of the following is used to prevent recurrent UTI’s?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole
d. co-trimoxazole
Which of the following is used to prevent gas gangrene?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. rifampicin
d. amoxicillin
b. benzylpenicillin
Which of the following is used to prevent endocarditis in a dental patient who has heart lesions?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. gentamicin
d. amoxicillin
d. amoxicillin
Which TWO of the following is used to prevent endocarditis in a dental patient who has a prosthetic heart valve?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. gentamicin
d. amoxicillin
c. gentamicin
&
d. amoxicillin
(use these two when patient is going under general anesthesia)
Which TWO of the following are used during Dacron graft surgery?
a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin
b. cefuroxime
&
e. cefoxitin
Which TWO of the following are used during gynecological surgery?
a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin
a. cefotaxime
&
c. metronidazole
Which of the following is used during hip replacement surgery?
a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin
d. cloxacillin
Which of the following is true about toxoplasmosis?
a. transmitted via contact with cats
b. higher transmission in the 1st-trimester
c. most severe abnormalities when infected in the 1st-trimester
d. most infects show immediate symptoms
c. most severe abnormalities when infected in the 1st-trimester
Which of the following is a symptom of congenital listeriosis?
a. intracranial calcification
b. hutchinson’s triad
c. frontal bossing
d. granulomatosis infantiseptica
d. granulomatosis infantiseptica
In which of the following do nearly half of all children in the womb die?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeriosis
c. congenital syphilis
d. brucellosis
c. syphilis
Which TWO diseases may lead to hydrocephalus development (CSF accumulation)?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. congenital brucellosis
c. congenital syphilis
d. congenital listeriosis
a. toxoplasmosis
&
c. congenital syphilis
Which TWO of the following Plasmodium spp. are associated congenital malaria?
a. P. falciparum
b. P. knowlesi
c. P. malariae
d. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
&
d. P. vivax
Which of the following is a symptom of early congenital syphilis?
a. hydrocephalus
b. flaring scapulas
c. saddle nose
d. clutton’s joints
e. hydrops fetalis
f. high arched palate
e. hydrops fetalis
it’s the abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments
Iin which of the following disease can you NOT rely on the serology test?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeria
c. brucellosis
d. malaria
b. listeria
syphilis serology test is also misleading
Which fo the following is diagnosed with silver stain or dark ground microscopy?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeria
c. brucellosis
d. syphilis
d. syphilis
Which of the following is given to treat congenital malaria in the 1st trimester?
a. quinine
b. artemisin IV
c. quinine IV
d. benzyl penicillin
c. quinine IV
A is used to treat a neonate with malaria
Which TWO are used to treat brucellosis in pregnant women?
a. co-trimoxazole
b. rifampicin
c. amoxicillin
d. benzylpenicillin
a. co-trimoxazole
&
b. rifampicin
Which test is used to diagnose malaria?
a. FTA-Abs
b. RPR/VDRL
c. Heal prick
d. Blood culture
c. heal prick test
Which is used to treat listeria?
a. ampicillin
b. rifampicin
c. co-trimoxazole
d. benzylpenicillin
a. ampicillin
How long must a woman with toxoplasmosis wait before getting pregnant?
a. 2 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
d. 1 year
Artemisin IV and quinine are used to treat which stage of malaria?
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. A&B
e. B&C
e. B&C
Artemisin IV is teratogenic in the first trimester
Which of the following kills bacteria by hydrolyzing the proteins?
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. potassium permanganate
c. boric acid
d. heavy metals
c. boric acid
Which of the following kills bacteria by attaching to the sulphhydryl group of the proteins?
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. potassium permanganate
c. boric acid
d. heavy metals
d. heavy metals
Which of the following interferes with cell division?
a. crystal violet
b. lactic acid
c. potassium permanganate
d. propionic acid
a. crystal violet
Which TWO of the following inhibit fermentation?
a. crystal violet
b. lactic acid
c. boric acid
d. propionic acid
b. lactic acid
&
d. propionic acid
Which THREE of the following are easily inactivated by organic material?
a. hexachlorophene
b. tubid phenolics
c. hypochlorite
d. chlorhexidine
e. quaternary ammonium compounds
f. halogens
b. tubid phenolics (detol) & c. hypochlorite & e. quaternary ammonium compounds (detergants)
Which of the following can cause brain damage?
a. hexachlorophene
b. phenolic compounds
c. halogens
d. chlorhexidine
a. hexachlorophene
Which of the following is used on burns?
a. hexachlorophene
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver sulphadiazine
d. chlorhexidine
c. silver sulphadiazine
Which is used for wound infections?
a. silver sulphadiazine
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. copper sulfate
hydrogen peroxide
What type of disinfectant is used to prevent gonococcal ophthalmia?
a. heavy metals
b. halogens
c. hexachlorophenes
d. phenolic compounds
a. heavy metals
Which of the following is able to kill spores?
a. hexachlorophene
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver sulphadiazine
d. chlorhexidine
b. glutaraldehyde
In addition to chlorine, which is used for swimming pools?
a. silver sulphadiazine
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. copper sulfate
c. copper sulfate
Which of the following is not very stable and is needed to be prepared fresh daily?
a. hexachlorophene
b. phenolic compounds
c. hypochlorite
d. chlorhexidine
c. hypochlorite
Which of the following do semicritical items interact with?
a. the bloodstream
b. skin
c. non-intact skin
c. non-intact skin
Which of the following is used to disinfect critical items before surgery?
a. alcohol
b. chlorine dioxide
c. scouring powder
d. hydrogen peroxide
b. chlorine dioxide
A&D are for semi-critical items
Which vaccine has a cell-mediated response?
a. Rabies
b. BCG
c. VZV
b. BCG
Which of the following is a live vaccine?
a. typhoid vaccine
b. smallpox variola vaccine
c. oral polio vaccine
d. pertussis
b. smallpox variola vaccine
Which of the following is cytotoxic T cell-mediated vaccine?
a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
a. attenuated vaccine
Which of the following needs an adjuvant?
a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
Which of the following needs a higher dose?
a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
Which of the following is FALSE about the polysaccharide capsule?
a. it’s attached to a carrier protein via conjunction
b. allows the immune system to react more broadly
c. allows immunocompromized people to take the vaccine
d. it allows the vaccine to be more immunogenic
c. allows immunocompromized people to take the vaccine
it allows young children to be able to take the vaccine
Which of these causes convulsions?
a. Rabies vaccine
b. BCG vaccine
c. whooping cough vaccine
c. whooping cough vaccine
pertussis vaccine
A patient with an egg allergy wants to get the following vaccines, which one should be contraindicated?
a. Pertussis vaccine
b. Yellow fever vaccine
c. BCG vaccine
d. none
b. Yellow fever vaccine
as well as influenza vaccine; they’re egg-derived
Which of the following can a pregnant woman take?
a. Pertussis vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
c. Yellow fever vaccine
d. Typhoid vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
Which of the following occurs as a prenatal infection?
a. HBV
b. enterovirus
c. CMV
c. CMV
& VZV & Rubella
Which of the following presents as Conjunctivitis, Heart anomalies, Arthralgia, & Deafness?
a. varicella
b. parvovirus
c. CMV
d. rubella
d. rubella
Which of the following presents as hydrops fetalis and erythema infectiosum?
a. varicella
b. parvovirus
c. CMV
d. rubella
b. parvovirus
Which of the following is the most common neonatal infection?
a. varicella
b. HSV-1
c. HSV-2
d. rubella
c. HSV-2
responsible for 80% if neonatal infections
Which of the following presents as skin scarring, growth retardation, & limb hypoplasia?
a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. rubella
a. varicella
when it occurs in the first 20 weeks= congenital varicella syndrome
Which of the following presents as blueberry muffin lesions, microencephaly, & seizures?
a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. rubella
b. CMV
Which of the following is true about HBV vaccinations?
a. HBV vaccine should not be given if the child is delivered via cesarean
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is +
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is -
c. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if HBs antigen is +
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is +
Which of the following is the worst method of treating genital herpes (HSV)?
a. oral acyclovir
b. intravenous acyclovir
c. cream acyclovir
c. cream acyclovir
provide little benefit
Which of the following has no vaccine nor treatment?
a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HPV
d. HBV
e. HIV
f. zika virus
f. zika virus
Which of the following is treated with tenofovir or pegylated interferon?
a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HBV
d. HCV
d. HBV
Which of the following is treated acyclovir?
a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HBV
d. HCV
b. HSV
