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I&I Past Exams > 2010 I&I exam > Flashcards

2010 I&I exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of congenital syphilis?

a. Guillain-Barre syndrome
b. Hutchinson’s teeth
c. Hydrops fetalis
d. Patent ductus arteriosus

A

b. Hutchinson’s teeth

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2
Q

Which of the following viruses needs “high-security infectious disease unit”?

a. Lassa virus
b. HPV
d. MERs

A

a. Lassa virus

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3
Q

How can a pregnant woman acquire toxoplasmosis?

a. Contact with cow litter
b. Contact with camel litter
c. Contact with cat litter

A

c. Contact with cat litter

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4
Q

Which of the following drugs is inhibited by a change in porin A in Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a. Amoxicillin
b. Imipenem
c. Benzyl penicillin

A

b. Imipenem

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5
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Amphotercin B?

a. Making pores in the cell wall
b. Inhibiting DNA synthesis
c. Inhibiting protein synthesis
d. Disrupting mitotic process

A

a. Making pores in the cell wall

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6
Q

a young boy ate a cream pie 3 hours later he developed vomiting and abdominal pain, what most likely would be the causative agent?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

what is the most infectious virus in hospitalS?

a. Rotavirus
b. CMV
c. RSV
d. VZV

A

d. VZV

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8
Q

Which of the following malignancies in HIV patient is caused by EBV?

a. Temporal lobe malignancy
b. Extra nodal lymphoma

A

b. Extra nodal lymphoma

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9
Q

Which one of the following cytokine is anti-inflammatory?

a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-10
d. TNF-alpha

A

c. IL-10

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10
Q

Which of the following is the most common STD virus?

a. CMV
b. HSV
c. EBV

A

b. HSV

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11
Q

Patient presented w/painless domed shaped lesions in the groin region?

a. Syphilis
b. Molluscum contagiosum virus
c. H. ducreyi

A

b. Molluscum contagiosum virus

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12
Q

Which of the following cells expresses both MHC-1 & MHC-2?

a. RBC
b. B lymphocytes

A

b. B lymphocytes

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13
Q

Which of the drugs develop resistant if used alone?

a. Clavulanic acid
b. Fusidic acid
c. Oxazolidinone

A

b. Fusidic acid

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14
Q

Which of the following is used to kill spores?

a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection

A

a. Sterilization

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15
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of aminoglycosides?

a. causes bone marrow toxicity
b. used for respiratory infections
c. used to treat severe sepsis
d. used for respiratory infections

A

c. used to treat severe sepsis

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16
Q

What happens in positive selection?

A

MHC molecules are recognized by CD8 CD4

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17
Q

What is type 1 fimbria in E.coli used for?

a. to invade the intestine wall
b. attachment to the epithelial cells of the urinary tract

A

b. attachment to the epithelial cells of the urinary tract

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18
Q

which of the following is a virulence factor of Neisseria Gonorrhea?

a. Pillius
b. Toxins
c. Flagella

A

a. Pillius

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19
Q

Which of the following is an anti-sense?

a. Oseltamivir
b. Fomivirsen
c. Zanamivir

A

b. Fomivirsen

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20
Q

which of the following is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

a. Tenofovir
b. Zidovudine
c. Nevirapine

A

c. Nevirapine

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21
Q

Which of the following is a protease inhibitor?

a. Saquinavir
b. Maraviroc
c. Raltegravir

A

a. Saquinavir

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22
Q

A diabetic female presented w/bleeding nose, a nasal swab showed non-septate hypha, which of the following pathogens is the possible cause?

a. Aspergillosis
b. Mucorales
c. Candida

A

b. Mucorales

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23
Q

what is the mechanism of action of maraviroc?

a. Inhibits viral uncoating
b. Inhibits viral entry
c. Inhibits viral release

A

b. Inhibits viral entry

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24
Q

which of the following antibiotics binds reversibly to 30s subunit?

a. Tetracycline
b. Macrolide

A

a. Tetracycline

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25
Q

which of the following cytokines initiate allergic reaction?

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4

A

d. IL-4

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of fever?

a. cancer
b. infection
c. connective tissue disorder

A

b. infection

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27
Q

What’s the best way of clearing viruses?
A. cytotoxic cell-mediated apoptosis
B. Antibodies

A

A. cytotoxic cell-mediated apoptosis

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28
Q

What’s is the difference between the primary Ab and secondary Ab responses?
A. Higher rate of Abs production
B. Slower degradation of antibodies

A

A. Higher rate of Abs production

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29
Q

Which of the following methods is best used in blood grouping?

a. percipitation
b. agglutination
c. immunoassay

A

b. agglutination

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30
Q

Which of the following antibiotic works on inhibit topoisomerases?

a. Cefotaxime
b. Vancomycin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Nitofurantoin

A

c. Ciprofloxacin

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31
Q

Which of the following fungi is characterized by large endospores?

a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Penicillum marneffi
d. Emergomyces africanus

A

b. Coccidioides immitis

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32
Q

A 29 woman presented with Vaginal discharge with rotten fish smell. What most likely would be the cause?

A

Gardnerella Vaginalis

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33
Q

Which of the following antifungals inhibit 1,3-B Glucan?

a. Echinocandins
b. Griseofulvin
c. Terbinafine

A

a. Echinocandins

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34
Q

A man presented with severe pneumonia, what is the appropriate diagnostic test?

a. Blood culture
b. Throat swab
c. Urine test

A

b. Throat swab

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35
Q

Which of the following is an indirect effect of Antibody?

a. Agglutinate bacteria
b. Prevent virus or bacterial entry
c. Opsonization
d. Inactivate toxins

A

c. Opsonization

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36
Q

Which of the following is stimulated by CRP?

a. complement proteins
b. antibodies

A

a. complement proteins

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37
Q

Which of the following cells bind to Ag-Ab complex in the lymph node?
A. B cells
B. dendritic cells
C. follicular dendritic cells

A

C. follicular dendritic cells

38
Q

An isolation of MRSA in 10 patients showed the same strain, within 2 weeks of staying in the hospital, after 2 weeks another 10 patients were infected with the same MRSA. The same nurse gaveMedications to all of the 20 patients. How can you describe the situation?

a. local infection
b. Pandemic
c. epidemic
d. endemic
e. sporadic

A

e. sporadic

39
Q

What type of Epithelial reticular cells from the Hassall’s corpuscles in the medulla?

a. Type II ER cells
b. Type IV ER cells
c. Type V ER cells
d. Type VI ER cells

A

d. Type VI ER cells

40
Q

Defect in which type of cells will lead to chronic granulomatous disease?

a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Macrophages
d. Plasma cells

A

c. Macrophages

41
Q

Which of the following fungi is characterized by oval yeast-like cells/short hyphae (throconidial forms) divide by fission?

a. Mucormycosis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Penicillium marneffei
d. Aspergilosis

A

c. Penicillium marneffei

42
Q

What is meant by Quarantine?

A

Isolating persons who are not yet ill but were exposed to the infectious agent

43
Q

Which is the most region in the world common in Yellow fever?

a. South America
b. Mongolia
c. Congo
d. China

A

a. South America

44
Q

Why viruses are not killed by cytokines?

A

viruses doesn’t express cytokine receptors

45
Q

Which is the most common virulence factor of Bacillus Anthracis?
A. Polypeptide capsule
B. Toxin

A

B. Toxin

both are suppose to be correct…

46
Q

Penicillin is given prophylactically to prevent ___?___ in a child with rheumatoid fever

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

47
Q

What is the main symptom that characterizes syphilis?

a. hepatitis
b. persistent rhinitis
c. maculopapular rash
d. osteohondritis

A

b. persistent rhinitis

48
Q

What is the main symptom that characterizes Listeriosis?

a. thrombocytopenia
b. micro-abscesses
c. hepatosplenomegaly
d. granuloma infantisepticum

A

d. granuloma infantisepticum

49
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of vaccination policy in Kuwait?

a. Hib in the 2nd month
b. Hib in the 3rd month
c. Hib in the 4th month

A

a. Hib in the 2nd month

50
Q

Khalid, a 20-year-old collage student, he is a sensation seeker and he is willing to be engaged with the physical and social challengesassociated with the health-related behaviors that may put him in risk with STD. what is the characteristic associated with Khalid’s risk behavior?
A. he underestimates the risk associated with such a behavior
B. because his brother is engaged in high-risk behavior also
C. he has the high-risk personality

A

A. he underestimates the risk associated with such a behavior

51
Q

What is the best way to diagnose VZV?

A

PCR of the vesicular fluid

52
Q

56-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with fever and pain in the upper right side of the abdomen she was diagnosed with pyelonephritis. What is this condition called?
A. Community-acquired infection
B. Hospital acquired infection

A

A. Community-acquired infection

53
Q

A 30 years old female presented with painful ulcers in the vagina and vulva. However, there are no ulcers in the anal and perianal regions. What most likely would be the causative agent?

a. Chancroid
b. Molescum contagious virus

A

b. Chancroid

54
Q

HIV patient was aggressive, confused, in agitation form. What is this complication called?

a. Anxiety
b. Depression
c. Guilt
d. Delirium

A

d. Delirium

55
Q

In renal transplant patient, What is the most common manifestation of BK virus?

A

nephropathy

56
Q

A woman presented with bacteria in the vagina. Weeks later she got pregnant, and she had birth after 33 weeks of pregnancy, with foul smelled fluid during delivery. On histopathology examination of the placenta, what do you find?

A

Neutrophils in the chorion and amnion

57
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance of E.Colli to ciprofloxacin?

a. Targeting A subunit of DNA gyrase
b. Targeting B subunit of DNA gyrase
c. Targeting A subunit of topoisomerase 2
d. Targeting B subunit of topoisomerase 2

A

b. Targeting B subunit of DNA gyrase

the exam said A but it’s B

58
Q

What is the function of reticular cells found in the spleen?

a. Produces collagen type I
b. Produces collagen type II
c. Produces collagen type III
d. Produces collagen type IV

A

c. Produces collagen type III

59
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is used in Gallium imaging?

a. Binding to leukocytes
b. Binding to transferrin
c. Binding to T cells
d. Binding to RBC’s

A

b. Binding to transferrin

60
Q

What STDs has a vaccine against it?

A

Human papillomavirus

61
Q

A dental patient will undergo tooth extraction procedure, knowing that he has a heart valve problem. What prophlaxis would be used and in what amount?

A

High oral dose of amoxicillin

62
Q

which of the following causes 2ndry IDD?

a. Macrophage deficiency
b. Malnutrition
c. DNA synthesis disruption

A

b. Malnutrition

63
Q

what is the most efficient in making laboratory containers and media to non-hazardous?

a. 35% Ethanol
b. 45% Ethanol
c. 50% Hypochlorite
d. 65% Hypochlorite

A

c. 50% Hypochlorite

64
Q

Hiv +ve patient presented w/vascular spaces and spindle-shaped cells on the skin, which of the following is most likely?

a. Leukocytosis
b. Cervical cancer
c. Kaposi sarcoma

A

c. Kaposi sarcoma

65
Q

72-year-old man immunocompromized was on the ventilator for 2 months presented with pneumonia, what is the most likely causative agent?

A

MRSA

66
Q

What occurs in primary lymphoid organs?

A

Initial differentiation of lymphocytes

67
Q

Which of the following differences between fetus and adult spleen?

a. medulla
b. lobules
c. primary nodules
d. secondary nodules

A

d. secondary nodules

68
Q

a 30-year-old pregnant woman in her 17th week presented w/toxoplasmosis, which type of test is best used on the amniotic fluid?

a. Antibody-antigen detection
b. PCR
c. Immunoflourence

A

b. PCR

69
Q

which of the following viruses cause cellular inclusions?

a. CMV
b. Rubella
c. HPV

A

a. CMV

70
Q

which of the following antibiotics is used in the case of 10 years boy presented w/tonsillitis and he is allergic to penicillin?

a. Cephalosporin
b. Erythromycin
c. Tetracycline

A

b. Erythromycin

71
Q

What mediates tissue damage in TB?
A. T cells
B. Complement
C. anti-body antigen complex

A

A. T cells

72
Q

which of the following is a characteristic of cytotoxic T cells?

a. stimulate plasma cell proliferation
b. Perforin-granzymes

A

b. Perforin-granzymes

73
Q

which of the following cytokines is produced by T helpers cell and works on T helper cell?

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4

A

b. IL-2

74
Q 
A young lady presented w/toxic shock syndrome because of streptococcus pyogens, which of the following is the best diagnostic test?
A. PCR
B. Antigen-antibody
C. Procalcitonin
D. Superantigen
A

D. Superantigen

75
Q

which antiviral drug is mostly associated w/mutation in YMDD gene?

a. Adefovir
b. Lamivudine
c. Entecavir

A

b. Lamivudine

76
Q

which of the following is used to disinfect the skin before injection?

a. alcohol
b. povidone iodine
c. 70% ethanol

A

c. 70% ethanol

77
Q

a boy had a cut on his middle finger, which of the following to be avoided?

a. 50% hypochlorites
b. Crystal violet
c. Alcohol

A

a. 50% hypochlorites

78
Q

There is blood spoilage on the floor from a HbsAg + patient, which of the following disinfectants is used?

a. 10% hypochlorite
b. glutaraldehyde

A

a. 10% hypochlorite

B= used for disinfection of scopes and NOT blood spillage

79
Q

a patient presented w/diarrhea, elevated cAmp levels were detected in the small intestine, what most likely would be the cause?

a. cholera O1
b. cholera non-01

A

a. cholera O1

80
Q

a patient presented bloody diarrhea, what is the most probable cause?

a. EHEC
b. ETEC
c. shigella

A

a. EHEC

81
Q

A 30 years old man presented w/bilateral inguinal buboes, which of the following pathogen is the probable cause?

a. Haemophilis ducreyi
b. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

b. Chlamydia trachomatis

a= usually unilateral

82
Q

which of the following causes intrauterine infection?

a. HIV
b. Parvovirus B19
c. HSV

A

b. Parvovirus B19

83
Q

which of the following methods is used to screen syphilis?

a. TAPHA
b. RPR

A

b. RPR

84
Q

which of the following have a live attenuated vaccine?

a. salk polio
b. VZV
c. rubella

A

b. VZV

85
Q

which of the following characterizes sepsis?

a. Can present as adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. Can be treated with antibiotics

A

a. Can present as adult respiratory distress syndrome

86
Q

what is given as prophylaxis if you are exposed to a patient w/swine flu (H1N1)?

A

Oseltamivir

87
Q

which of the following is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

a. Didanosine
b. Nevirapine
c. Efavirenz
d. Oseltamivir

A

a. Didanosine

B&C=non-RTI’s

88
Q

Which antiviral drug is a neuraminidase inhibitor?

a. Didanosine
b. Maraviroc
c. Efavirenz
d. Oseltamivir

A

d. Oseltamivir

89
Q

which of the following pathogens causes meningitis in HIV patient?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

90
Q

which of the following best describe recombinant vaccine?

a. vaccine inactivated and injected
b. the gene coding for an antigen is expressed on a vector
c. antigen inserted, our cells express them and get immunized

A

b. the gene coding for an antigen is expressed on a vector

recombinant vaccine used for HBV

91
Q

which of the following fungi characterized by broad-based budding yeast cells?

a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Bastomyces dermatitidis

A

b. Bastomyces dermatitidis

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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