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I&I Past Exams > 2016 I&I exam > Flashcards

2016 I&I exam Flashcards

1
Q

What part of the lymph node will be poorly developed if perinatal thymectomy was performed?

a. Deep cortex
b. Medullary cords
c. Germinal center
d. Subcapsular sinus

A

a. Deep cortex

deep cortex- aka the paracortex - is thymus dependent

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2
Q

Which cells participate in the functional maturation of T-lymphocytes?

a. Type III epithelial reticular cells
b. Type VI epithelial reticular cells
c. Type IV epithelial reticular cells
d. Type V epithelial reticular cells

A

d. Type V epithelial reticular cells

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3
Q

Which of the following is characterized by memory and specificity?

a. B-cells
b. Mast cells
c. Neutrophils

A

a. B-cells

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4
Q

During which stage is the thymus size the largest?

a. infancy
b. Neonatal
c. Puberty
d. Childhood

A

c. Puberty

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5
Q

A 20-year-old man presented with vesicles on his lower lip what is the most likely cause?

a. VZV
b. CMS
c. HSV
d. Rubella virus

A

c.HSV

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6
Q 
A 40 year old man was diagnosed with kaposi sarcoma What is the cause?
A- HHV8
B- VZV
C- HSV 
D- Influenza virus
A

A- HHV8

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7
Q 
A renal transplant patient on immune suppressants develop mononucleosis-like syndrome What is most likely the cause ?
A- BK virus 
B- CMV
C- HSV
D- VZV
A

B- CMV

CMV is the most common opprotunistic viral pathogen of AIDS; EBV may also be correct

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8
Q

Which of the following is most associated with catheter infections?

a. S. Aureus
b. S. Epidermidis

A

b. S. Epidermidis

other places say S. Aureus

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9
Q

A 26 year old homosexual male complains of difficulty swallowing and loss of body weight. Physical examination shows extensive oral thrush. What is the most likely disease?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Pneumocystis

A

B. Candidiasis

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10
Q

Which antibiotic is known to cause thrombocytopenia?

a. Tetracycline
b. Ceftotaxime
c. Niiturorofufiracnitnoin
d. Gentmicin

A

b. Ceftotaxime

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11
Q

What is the bacterial virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhea?

a. lipopolysaccharide
b. toxin A/B
c. capsule
d. antigenic variation

A

d. antigenic variation

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12
Q

What is the difference between natural killers and cytotoxic T cells?

a. NK cells do not recognize MHC-epitope
b. NK kill cancer cells but Tc does not
c. NK cells kill virally infected cells but Tc does not

A

a. NK cells do not recognize MHC-epitope

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13
Q

What is the fate of endogenous viral epitopes?

a. Presented by MHC class l
b. Recognized by CD8 molecules
c. Recognized by Th cells after presentation
d. Presented by MHC class ll molecules

A

a. Presented by MHC class l

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14
Q 
A patient with not well-controlled diabetes presented with nasal discharge with bleeding; biopsy revealed replicating non-septate hyphae
A. Aspergillus
B. Mucor circinelloides
C. Talaromyces marneffei
D. Coccidyotes
A

B. Mucor circinelloides

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15
Q

What is the infective agent in mucormycosis?

a. Sporangiospores
b. Conidia

A

a. Sporangiospores

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16
Q

Which of these is an endogenous factor that contributes to risk taking behaviors?

a. Depression
b. Lack of parenteral supervision
c. Peer pressure
d. Poverty

A

a. Depression

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17
Q

What best describes the worried well?

a. Reduced treatment compliance
b. Absence of anxiety
c. Misinterpreting physical symptoms

A

c. Misinterpreting physical symptoms

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18
Q

What describes the selective toxicity of streptomycin?

a. binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit
b. binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit

A

a. binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit

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19
Q

How is co-trimoxazole selectively toxic to bacteria?

a. Bacteria have unique enzymes that metabolize this compound to its active form
b. Bacteria lack mechanisms to take up folate from the environment
c. Humans topoisomerase is structurally distinct from bacterial topoisomerase
d. The structure of bacterial ribosomes differs from that of humans

A

b. Bacteria lack mechanisms to take up folate from the environment

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20
Q

What is the drug combination used to treat systemic fungal infections?

a. Amphotericin B + flucytosine
b. Fluconazole + caspofungin

A

a. Amphotericin B + flucytosine

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21
Q

What statement best describes the mechanism of actions of terbinafine?

a. Disrupts ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase
b. Inhibits lanosterol conversion to ergosterol
c. Inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthase
d. Inhibits fungal mitosis by disrupting the spindle aparatus

A

a. Disrupts ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase

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22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?

a. inhibits entry by binding to CCR5 receptor
b. Inhibits integration of DNA into the host cell genome
c. Inhibits neuraminidase needed for influenza A and B to be released
d. Cleavage of proteolytic chains into individual proteins

A

c. Inhibits neuraminidase needed for influenza A and B to be released

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23
Q

A patient with colon cancer underwent surgery, after that he was febrile, the organism was resistant to fluconazole. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

a. Candida albicans
b. Candida parapsiolosis
c. Candida Kruzie

A

c. Candida Kruzie

intrinsically resistant to fluconazole

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24
Q 
A person got watery diarrhea after traveling to a developing country most likely has
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli 
C. Yersina pestis
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Shigella
A

B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

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25
Q 
A person developed Flaccid paralysis most likely has
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli 
C. Yersina pestis
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Shigella
A

D. Clostridium botulinum

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26
Q 
A 20-year-old bone marrow transplant patient presented with same stage vesicular rash, which of the following is most likely?
A. EBV 
B. CMV 
C. VZV 
D. BK
E. HSV-1
A

E. HSV-1

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27
Q 
A 45-old renal transplant man on immune suppressants for 1 year is presented with hemorrhagic cystitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. EBV 
B. CMV 
C. VZV 
D. BK
E. HSV-1
A

D. BK

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28
Q 
A newborn diagnosed with hydrops fetalis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. CMV
B. VZV
C. Parvovirus B19 
D. HSV
E. Rubella
A

C. Parvovirus B19

Fetal infection by parvovirus B19 is a common cause of fetal anemia, hydrops fetalis, and abortion

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29
Q 
A baby presented with vesicular rash, scarring, limb atrophy most likely has
A. VZV
B. Parvovirus B19 
C. HSV
D. HBV
A

A. VZV

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30
Q

An aids patient with a rough white coating on the side of the tongue that can be scraped most likely has
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia
B. Oral thrush candidiasis

A

B. Oral thrush candidiasis

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31
Q

9 months old baby with bacterial bronchitis, low B cell and immunoglobulins and normal T cell count

a. MHC Class II deficiency
b. Common variable Immunodeficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Severe combined Immunodeficiency

A

c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

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32
Q

What used to preserve strawberry gam?

A

Osmotic pressure

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33
Q

What method used to slow down bacterial growth?

a. Cold temperature
b. Warm temperature

A

a. Cold temperature

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34
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Treponema pallidum?
A. conjunctivitis
B. granuloma inguinale 
C. skin rash
D. soft painful chancer
A

C. skin rash

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35
Q 
Which of the following is associated with H. ducreyi?
A. conjunctivitis
B. granuloma inguinale 
C. skin rash
D. soft painful chancer
A

D. soft painful chancer

36
Q

Which of the following provides immunity against worms?

a. IgA
b. IgB
c. IgE
d. IgG

37
Q

Which of the following is used to treat heat sensitive liquids?

a. UV- radiation
b. Boiling at 100*C
c. phenolic compounds
d. Pasteurization
e. Filtration

A

e. Filtration

38
Q

Which of the following is Easily inactivated by organic materials?

a. phenolic compounds
b. hypochlorite solutions

A

b. hypochlorite solutions

39
Q

Which of the following presents with heart disease and a small thymus?

a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. Common variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)
c. Phagocyte defect
d. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)

A

a. DiGeorge syndrome

40
Q

A patient with persistent CMV infection and oral thrush, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. XLA
b. CVID
c. SCID
d. DiGeorge Anomaly

A

c. SCID

(disturbed development of functional T cells and B cells; allowing intracellular pathogens -like viruses- and opportunistic infections -like candida- to grow)

41
Q

Which organism is responsible for Burn wound infection?

a. Candida
b. Clostridium
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

42
Q

Methicillin resistant s.aures is treated with?

a. fluoroquinolones
b. vancomycin
c. chlorhexidine

A

b. vancomycin

43
Q

A patient with bilateral infiltration pneumonia and hypoxemia responded only to sulfamethoxazole-
trimethoprim (TMP-SMX) therapy. Repeated cultures of bronchio-alveolar lavage were negative.
A. cryptococcus neoformans
B. candida albicans
C. pneumocystitis jirovecii
D. histoplasma capsulatum

A

C. pneumocystitis jirovecii

44
Q

When is MMR contraindicated?

a. Chronic lung disease
b. IgA deficiency
c. Complement defect
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency
e. Preterm baby

A

d. Severe combined immunodeficiency

45
Q

Who is recommended to take the influenza vaccine annually?

a. Chronic lung disease
b. IgA deficiency
c. Complement defect
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency
e. Preterm baby

A

a. Chronic lung disease

46
Q 
Which one can neutralize toxins on mucosal surfaces?
A. IgA 
B. IgG 
C. IgM 
D. IgD 
E. IgE
47
Q 
Which one has the highest ability to activate the complement system? 
A. IgA 
B. IgG 
C. IgM 
D. IgD 
E. IgE
A

C. IgM

IgM > IgG3 > IgG1

48
Q 
A 34-year-old man developed anaphylaxis after eating a shrimp meal, which cell is responsible?
A. Mast cells 
B. Basophils 
C. Eosinophils 
D. Leukocytes 
E. Neutrophils
A

A. Mast cells

49
Q 
Which cell is responsible for a late reaction?
A. Mast cells 
B. Basophils 
C. Eosinophils 
D. Leukocytes 
E. Neutrophils
A

C. Eosinophils

50
Q 
Which organism does a newborn baby with thrush have?
A. c. albicans
B. cocciodes immits
C. talaromyced marneffei 
D. pneumocystis jirovecii
A

A. c. albicans

51
Q 
Which one is a protease inhibitor and causes lipodystrophy?
A. Formivirsen 
B. Zidovudine 
C. Raltegravir 
D. Saquinavir 
E. amantadine
A

D. Saquinavir

52
Q 
Which one is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
A. Formivirsen 
B. Zidovudine 
C. Raltegravir 
D. Saquinavir 
E. amantadine
A

B. Zidovudine

53
Q

Which of the following methods is used for plasma sterilization?

a. UV- radiation
b. Boiling at 100*C
c. membrane filtration

A

c. membrane filtration

54
Q 
Which of the following causes gray baby syndrome?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Chloramphenicol
A

E. Chloramphenicol

55
Q 
Which of the following causes yellow discoloration of teeth in children?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Chloramphenicol
A

C. Tetracycline

56
Q 
The separation & restriction of movement of those who were exposed to an infectious agent but don’t have the disease is...
A. Elimination 
B. Isolation
C. Eradication 
D. Quarantine
A

D. Quarantine

57
Q 
The separation & restriction of movement of those are infected from the healthy ones is...
A. Elimination 
B. Isolation
C. Eradication 
D. Quarantine
A

B. Isolation

58
Q 
Which cell type makes up the majority of the lymph node’s cortex?
A. Type 1 epithelioreticular cells 
B. Type V epithelioreticular cells
C. Follicular dendritic cells
D. B lymphocytes
E. T lymphocytes
A

D. B lymphocytes

59
Q

A 34-year-old woman was found to be HIV +ve. What cancer test program should be carried out at shorter intervals compared to normal subjects?
A) Breast cancer
B) colon cancer
C) cervical cancer

A

C) cervical cancer

60
Q

A two-month-old baby presented with recurrent viral and bacterial infections. Genetic testing showed a mutation in the gene encoding the common ‘y’ chain shared by cytokines. What disease does he present with?

a. Bruton XLA
b. SCID
c. Hyper IgM syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

b. SCID

Severe combined immunodeficiency (XSCID)

61
Q

A child suffered from cataracts, deafness, and peripheral artery stenosis. Her mother suffers from a maculopapular rash. What is the causative agent?

a. CMV
b. Rubella
c. HSV
d. EBV

A

b. Rubella

baby has congenital rubella syndrome

62
Q

What does a biofilm formation predominantly consist of?

a. Lipopolysaccharides
b. Proteins
c. Glycopeptides
d. Polysaccharide

A

d. Polysaccharide

63
Q

What’s the concept of precipitation?

a. interaction between soluble Ag and Ab
b. interaction between antibodies and particulate antigens

A

a. interaction between soluble Ag and Ab

64
Q

Where is brucellosis prevalent?

a. Australia
b. Africa
c. GCC

65
Q

What is responsible for tuberculin test?

a. B cells
b. T cells

A

b. T cells

66
Q

A sewage worker developed jaundice and conjunctivitis, what is the organism?

a. Leptospira hebdomadis
b. Leptospira canicola
c. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

A

c. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

67
Q

What disinfectant is active against viruses?

a. Bentadine
b. Hypochlorite

A

b. Hypochlorite

68
Q

a healthcare worker was in contact with a child with influenza at the pediatric ward What is the antiviral that should be given to the healthcare worker?

a. Oseltamivir
b. Ribavirin
c. Adefovir
d. Valacyclovir

A

a. Oseltamivir

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir, & Tamiflu can be used

69
Q

the virus that requires a high-security infectious unit?
A- HIV
B- lassa fever virus
C- hepatitis B virus

A

B- lassa fever virus

70
Q

What bacteria can spread from person to person in hospitals and in the community?

a. MRSA
b. S. pneumonia

71
Q

What is responsible for resistance to antibacterial drugs in unrelated species?

a. Plasmid
b. Transposons

A

a. Plasmid

72
Q

A patient suffered from Vesicular rash that was in the same stage, what is the causative agent?

a. HSV
b. VZV

73
Q

Which organism releases enterotoxins while sporulating in the intestine?

a. klebsiella granulomatous
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Leptospira canicola
d. S. Aureus

A

b. Clostridium perfringens

germinating = botulism

74
Q

Geimsa stained tissue sample from a patient suspected to have a sexually transmitted disease showed many bacilli inside macrophages. Which pathogen can cause this?

a. klebsiella granulomatous
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Leptospira canicola
d. S. Aureus

A

a. klebsiella granulomatous

75
Q

which is transmitted by sexual contact and tattooing a.Hepatitis A

b. Hepatitis B
c. Klebseilla
d. Neisseris gonorrhea

A

b.Hepatitis B

76
Q

The additional carbon in cephalosporins is responsible for?

a. Broader spectrum
b. Enzyme stability
c. both

77
Q

How can T cell lymphoproliferative activity be measured?

A

By measuring radioactive thymidine uptake

78
Q

What is used in enumeration of neutrophils?

A

Flow cytometry

79
Q

Which of the following is used to treat MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

80
Q

what is the type of resistance to Gentamicin?

a. Target modification
b. Enzymes
c. Permeability

A

b. Enzymes

(Although gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, works on the bacterial ribosome the bacteria resist by producing enzymes AAC, APH, & AAD)

81
Q

which vaccine evokes a life long protective immune response against rubella?

a. live attenuated vaccine
b. conjugate vaccine
c. recombinant vaccine
d. killed vaccine

A

a. live attenuated vaccine

82
Q

Which microorganism colonizes the nostrils of health care workers?

83
Q

what interaction is essential for communication between antigen presenting cells and T cells?

a. CD2 and CD58
b. CD4 and CD16
c. CD28 and B7
d. CD40 and CD40 ligand

A

d. CD40 and CD40 ligand

84
Q

Which investigation is most appropriate for 2-month-old with interstitial pneumonia & failure to thrive?

a. CD3 & CD4
b. bone marrow aspirate & biopsy
c. CD4+ & CD8+ cell count
d. IgG IgM IgA

A

c. CD4+ & CD8+ cell count

85
Q

A renal transplant patient is immunocompromised, which virus can cause him hemorrhagic cystitis?

86
Q

Which organism is cultured with niger (bird seed) agar?

a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Fusarium

A

a. Cryptococcus neoformans

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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