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I&I Past Exams > 2015 I&I exam > Flashcards

2015 I&I exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cells is capable of self-renewal, proliferation, and differentiation?
A. CD 34+
B. CD 20+

A

A. CD 34+

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2
Q

What is the method of resistance in penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. Efflux pump
B. Target modification
C. Ribosomal protection

A

B. Target modification

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3
Q

Which of the following drug is contraindicated in children <8 years?
A. Penicillin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Tetracycline

A

C. Tetracycline

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4
Q

Which vaccine enhances immunity in infants?
A. Conjugated vaccine
B. Toxoid vaccine
C. Live attenuated

A

A. Conjugated vaccine

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5
Q

What vaccine is forbidden for children diagnosed with combined immunodeficiency?
A. Toxoids
B. Conjugated vaccine
C. Live attenuated

A

C. Live attenuated

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6
Q

Which of the following vaccine is prepared by killing the pathogen with formalin?
A. Influenza A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis A

A

C. Hepatitis A

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7
Q

A baby was born with blueberry muffin lesions, what is the diagnosis?
A. Congenital rubella
B. Congenital syphilis

A

A. Congenital rubella

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8
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis against Haemophillus influenza B?
A. Rifampicin
B. Gentamicin

A

A. Rifampicin

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9
Q

Which antimicrobial is used for urinary tract infections?
A. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Penicillin

A

A. Sulfamethoxazole

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10
Q

What is the difference b/ Th1 and Th2?
A. Th1 activates B cells while Th2 activates CMI
B. Th1 activates macrophages while Th2 activates B-cells

A

B. Th1 activates macrophages while Th2 activates B-cells

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11
Q

Which Ig provides immunological protection for fetus and which Ig protects neonates?
A. IgA, IgG
B. IgM, IgA

A

A. IgA, IgG

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12
Q

Which of the following molecules neutralize toxins?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG

A

C. IgG

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13
Q

What is the special molecule in T helper cells?
A. CD4
B. TCR
C. CD3

A

A. CD4

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14
Q

Which of the following bacteria is seen as bacilli in macrophages by Giemsa stain?
A. Hemophillus ducreyi
B. Calymmatobacterium granulomatous

A

B. Calymmatobacterium granulomatous

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15
Q

Which bacteria causes soft, painful chancre?
A. H. ducreyi
B. Treponema pallidum

A

A. H. ducreyi

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16
Q

What does chlamydia trachomatis cause?
A. Chancre
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Inguinal lymphadenopathy with grooves

A

C. Inguinal lymphadenopathy with grooves

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17
Q

Which of the following pathogens result in bloody diarrhea with a complication of Gillian-Barre syndrome?
A. EHEC
B. S. Dysentriae
C. C. jejuni

A

C. C. jejuni

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18
Q

A patient experienced bloody diarrhea after a meal of seafood, what could be the causative agent?
A. E. Coli
B. V. parahaemolyticus

A

B. V. parahaemolyticus

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19
Q

What helps E. coli in causing UTIs?
A. common type fimbriae
B. polysaccharide capsule

A

A. common type fimbriae

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20
Q

Which antibiotic acts on bacterial mRNA?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Trimethoprim

A

A. Nitrofurantoin

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21
Q

Which antibiotic is effective only against gram-negative bacteria?
A. Aztreonam
B. Impinem

A

A. Aztreonam

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22
Q

Which molecule defends the body by bacterial agglutination?
A. IgM
B. Complements

A

A. IgM

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23
Q

Which molecule is part of both innate and adaptive immunity?
A. IgG
B. complements

A

B. complements

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24
Q

A diabetic patient suffers from nose bleeding. The microscopy revealed non-septated branching fungi at right angles. What is the causative organism?
A. Rhizopus
B. Fusarium
C. Aspergillus

A

A. Rhizopus

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25
Q

A baby was born with microabscesses in his liver, what is the causative agent?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Toxoplasma Gondi

A

A. Listeria monocytogenes

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26
Q

What is the antibiotic given for children with defective mitral valve and undergoing tooth extraction?
A. Rifampicin
B. ciprofloxacin
C. High dose of oral amoxicillin

A

C. High dose of oral amoxicillin

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27
Q

Which is administered to an infant in the first day of life? A. BCG
B. Influenza A

A

A. BCG

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28
Q

Which bacterium is transmitted among HCW?
A. Chlamydia
B. Acinetobacter
C. HCV

A

B. Acinetobacter

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29
Q

What is the most common infective cause of pyrexia?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Brucella

A

A. Tuberculosis

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30
Q

A child was born with a tongue covered by a white layer, what is the diagnosis?
A. C. albicans
B. VZV
C. HSV

A

A. C. albicans

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31
Q

Which virus is inhibited by integrase strand inhibitors?
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C

A

A. HIV

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32
Q

Which virus can develop resistance against adefovir?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis C

A

A. Hepatitis B

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33
Q

How can you diagnose a 1-week old girl with syphilis?
A. VRDL
B. TPHA

A

A. VRDL

Venereal disease research laboratory test

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34
Q

Upon traveling to which country should a person get yellow fever vaccination?
A. Nigeria
B. Canada
C. Japan

A

A. Nigeria

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35
Q

Upon travelling to which country should a person get meningococcal meningitis vaccination?
A. Libya
B. Italy
C. Niger

A

C. Niger

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36
Q 
Which of the following country have urinary schistosomiasis only? 
A. Egypt
B. Thailand 
C. China
D. Algeria
A

D. Algeria

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37
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the diphtheria toxin?
A. Protein synthesis inhibition
B. Diarrhea
C. Skin rash

A

A. Protein synthesis inhibition

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38
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the Clostridium difficile toxin A & B?
A. Diarrhea
B. Pseudomembranous colitis

A

B. Pseudomembranous colitis

39
Q

Which of the following test can detect metabolism activity?
A. Gallium 67
B. Indium 111
C. Tc 99m

A

A. Gallium 67

40
Q 
A patient with persistent fever had a trauma that affected his abdomen. Which imaging test is recommended to detect any sepsis?
A. Ct scan
B. Ultrasound
C. Indium 111 WBC 
D. Galium 67
A

C. Indium 111 WBC

41
Q

What is the site of B cell maturation?
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow

A

C. Bone marrow

42
Q

What is the immunological concept behind blood typing? A. Precipitation
B. hemagglutination
C. Immunoassays

A

B. hemagglutination

43
Q

What is the difference between Tc 99m WBC and Tc 99m Leukoscan?
A. There is no difference
B. The former needs less preparation
C. The later doesn’t require WBC separation

A

C. The later doesn’t require WBC separation

44
Q

What is the definition of agglutination?
A. Interaction between antibodies and particulate antigens
B. Interaction between antibodies and soluble antigens

A

A. Interaction between antibodies and particulate antigens

45
Q

A 34-year-old male developed an anaphylactic reaction after eating shrimp. What is the cell responsible for the reaction?
A. Mast cells
B. Th1

A

A. Mast cells

46
Q 
Which of the following is a key mediator in late phase hypersensitivity reactions?
A. Mast cells 
B. IgE
C. Eosinophils 
D. Th1
A

C. Eosinophils

47
Q

How would you diagnose a child with generalized maculopapular rash, hepatosplenomegaly, and a saddle nose?
A. Rubella
B. Syphilis
C. Toxoplasmosis

A

B. Syphilis

48
Q 
What is the key cell in the hypersensitivity reaction during contact dermatitis?
A. Th1 
B. Th2
C. Eosinophils 
D. Mast cells
49
Q

Which of the following causes villitis and has a 100% chance of being transmitted to the fetus?
A. TB
B. Malaria
C. Rubella

A

C. Rubella

50
Q 
Aside from Th CD4+ cells, what cells are affected by the HIV virus during AIDS?
A. Cytotoxic T cells 
B. B cells
C. Follicular dendritic cells 
D. Dendritic cells
A

C. Follicular dendritic cells

51
Q

How can you differentiate between organ and non-organ specific autoimmunity diseases?
A. The severity of the reaction
B. The localization of the immunological response

A

B. The localization of the immunological response

52
Q

During microscopy, spherical yeast in arthroconidial form was shown to divide by fission intracellularly. What is the diagnosis?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Penicillum maneffei

A

C. Penicillum maneffei

53
Q

Which cell secretes collagen type III?
A. Reticular cells
B. Epithelioreticular cells type VI

A

A. Reticular cells

54
Q

What cells form Hassall’s corpuscles?
A. Epithelioreticular cells type VI
B. Epithelioreticular cells type V

A

A. Epithelioreticular cells type VI

55
Q

How does HIV avoid the immune system?
A. IgA proteases
B. Protein capsule
C. Inhibition of Fas mediated lysis

A

C. Inhibition of Fas mediated lysis

56
Q

Which of the following antimicrobials cause ototoxicity?
A. Gentamicin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Chloramphenicol

A

A. Gentamicin

57
Q

A patient suffered from nausea and vomiting after eating a cream pie. What could be the causative agent?
A. S. aureus
B. Bacillus cereus

A

A. S. aureus

58
Q

What is a causative agent of erysipelas?
A. S. pyogenes
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

A. S. pyogenes

59
Q

What is the causative agent of carbuncles?
A. S. aureus
B. S. pyogenes

A

A. S. aureus

60
Q

A patient with open tuberculosis was admitted to the hospital. What is the first step in management?
A. Room isolation with negative pressure
B. Room isolation with positive pressure

A

A. Room isolation with negative pressure

61
Q

Which cell has both MHC class I and II?
A. B cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Th1 cells

A

A. B cells

62
Q

What’s a characteristic of a person who is a sensation seeker?
A. Anticipate more positive outcomes
B. Has siblings with a “sensation seeker” personality

A

A. Anticipate more positive outcomes

63
Q

What is a characteristic of the well worried?
A. No past history of HIV tests
B. Misinterpret physical complaints

A

B. Misinterpret physical complaints

64
Q

what is the mechanism of clonal anergy?
A. Overexpression of CD80/Cd86
B. Inhibition of co-stimulatory signals

A

B. Inhibition of co-stimulatory signals

65
Q

A febrile neutropenic patient was infected by fungi and experienced hemoptysis. What is the causative organism?
A. Aspergillus
B. Mucorales

A

A. Aspergillus

66
Q

A person is traveling to drug-resistant malaria endemic area. What advice would you give him?
A. Malaria vaccine
B. Antimicrobial prophylaxis
C. Bed nets and insect repellant

A

C. Bed nets and insect repellant

67
Q

Which of the following organism is intrinsically resistant to fluconazole and shows negative germ tube test?
A. Candida Krusei
B. Cryptococcus neoformans

A

A. Candida Krusei

68
Q

On Niger seed agar test, an organism showed brown colonies. What could this organism be?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans

A

A. Cryptococcus neoformans

69
Q

After undergoing a transplantation surgery, a patient developed a vesicular rash in different stages on dermatome on his right flank. What is your diagnosis?
A. HSV
B. VZV
C. BK virus

70
Q

How can plastic tools be sterilized?
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Alcohol

A

A. Ethylene oxide

71
Q

A child was experiencing recurrent infections. After genetic testing, he was found to be missing the y chain of cytokine receptor. What disease is he having?
A. Severe combined immunodeficiency
B. Hyper IgM
C. Common variable immunodeficiency

A

A. Severe combined immunodeficiency

72
Q

What is the color change of a tape in an autoclaving machine indicate?
A. Sterilization is guaranteed
B. The item was subjected to the right temperature

A

B. The item was subjected to the right temperature

73
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibit viral entry by binding to the CCR5?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Amantadine
C. Maraviroc

A

C. Maraviroc

74
Q

A woman suffered from nephropathy after a kidney transplant surgery. What could be the causative agent?
A. BK virus
B. JC virus
C. Human Papilloma virus

A

A. BK virus

75
Q

Which of the following drugs acts as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
A. Ratlegravir
B. Zidovudine

A

B. Zidovudine

76
Q

Which drug inhibits DNA gyrase activity?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin

A

A. Ciprofloxacin

77
Q

What is used in the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?
A. Flucytosine + Amphotericin B
B. Itraconazole + Flucytosine
C. Amphotericin B + Itraconazole

A

A. Flucytosine + amphotericin B

78
Q

What is the method of sterilization for antisera?
A. Autoclave
B. Pasteurization
C. Filtration

A

C. Filtration

79
Q

What is that mechanism by which Bacillus anthracis evade the immune system?
A. Capsule
B. Fimbriae
C. Teichoic acid

A

A. Capsule

80
Q

Which of the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant lady?
A. Hepatitis B
B. MMR
C. Tetanus

A

C. Tetanus

81
Q

What inhibits viral neuraminidase from cleaving hemagglutinin in influenza A and B?
A. Ribavirin
B. Cidofovir
C. Oseltamivir

A

C. Oseltamivir

82
Q

What type of vaccine provides long-lasting protection against Rubella?
A. Killed
B. Live attenuated
C. Subunit

A

B. Live attenuated

83
Q 
Which of the following indicates AIDS? 
A. CD4+ cell count less than 200
B. CD4+ cell count of 300 
C. CD4+ cell count of 400 
D. CD4+ cell count of 500
A

A. CD4+ cell count less than 200

84
Q

what is used for the physical separation of cells based on their cell surface antigen?
A. Flow cytometry
B. ELISA
C. Agglutination

A

A. Flow cytometry

85
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibit folic acid synthesis in its early stages?
A. Trimethoprim
B. Sulfamethoxazole

A

B. Sulfamethoxazole

86
Q

A country has high levels of infectious diseases as well as chronic ones. What is the best term for this scenario?
A. Iceberg concept of infection
B. Epidemiological transition
C. Double burden of disease

A

C. Double burden of disease

87
Q

A family of four had bloody diarrhea after eating coleslaw. What could be the causative agent?
A. EHEC
B. S. aureus
C. V. cholerae

88
Q

A patient had an episode of bloody diarrhea that progressed to hemolytic uremic syndrome. What is the causative pathogen?
A. V. cholerae
B. S. aureus
C. EHEC

89
Q

In which of the following methods is the presence of a bacteriophage needed?
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation

A

B. Transduction

90
Q

A patient came to the ER with non-itchy maculopapular rash and generalized lymphadenopathy. What could be your diagnosis?
A. Syphilis
B. Mumps
C. Leptospirosis

A

A. Syphilis

91
Q

What is the function of TNF alpha and beta when released from a viral infected cell?
A. Causes cytotoxicity
B. Inhibits viral replication

A

B. Inhibits viral replication

92
Q 
Where is this secondary nodule present?
A. Spleen
B. Peyer’s patches 
C. Thymus
D. Lymph node
93
Q

What is the name of this non-septated fungi?
A. Fusarium solani
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Rhizopus stolonifer

A

C. Rhizopus stolonifer

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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