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I&I Past Exams > 2013 I&I exam > Flashcards

2013 I&I exam Flashcards

1
Q 
Which cell has both class I and II HLA? 

A. Tc

B. Th

C. Nk

D. B cell
A


D. B cell

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2
Q 
What is the maternal immunoglobulin that protects the fetus?
A.	IgG
B.	IgM
C.	IgD
D.	IgE
E.	IgA
A

A. IgG

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3
Q 
What can prevent HIV transmission when used before sexual intercourse?

A. tenofivir gel

B. lamivudine pill 

C. zidovudin suppositry 

D. acyclovir
A

A. tenofivir gel


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4
Q 
What are the initial responses to a viral infection?
A.	Interferon
B.	TNF α
C.	NK
D.	Macrophages
A

A. Interferon

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5
Q 
What's the most common non-infection cause of PUO? 

A.  
endocrinedisease
B. connective tissue disease 

C. malignancy 

D. hypersensitivityreactions
A

C. malignancy 


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6
Q 
Which organism is transmitted in the swimming pool?

A. Q fever

B. Yellow fever 

C. Rabies

D. Leptospira
A

D. Leptospira

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7
Q 
What is the most common adverse effect associated with sulphonamide?

A. Anaphylactic shock

B. Ototoxicity

C. Nephrotoxicity

D. Hematuria

E. Pseudomembranous colitis
A

D. Hematuria


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8
Q

What is the structure used by E.coli to cause UTI?
A. Common fimbrea
B. Polysaccharide capsule

A

A. Common fimbrea

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9
Q 
What is used in the case of herpes simplex virus after organ transplant?

A. Ganciclovir

B. Acyclovir

C. Oseltamivir

D. Lamivudine
A

B. Acyclovir

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10
Q 
Which of these is a screening test for syphilis:?
A. TPHA
B. RPR
C. Silver stain
D. Dark microscopy field
A

B. RPR

Rapid plasma reagin

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11
Q

Defect in the negative selection during T cells maturation results in

A

Autoreactive T cells

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12
Q

Which of these is an example of innate immunity barrier?
A. opsonization complement 

C. antibody killing

D. antibody defendant cytotoxic cell (ADDC) 

E. IgA in the mucosa of the intestine

A

A. opsonization complement 


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13
Q 
What is the best treatment to decontaminate used specimen containers and media?
A. 5% phenol 

B. Hypoclorate 

C. Autoclaving

D. Formaldehyde 

E. Glutaraldehyde
A


C. Autoclaving


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14
Q

41 year old diabetic lady was admitted to the hospital with septicemia because of E. Coli, what is the risk factor?
A. Vap 

B. central line infection

C. pyelonephritis

A


C. pyelonephritis

E. Coli is the most common cause of UTI; that means she has UTi then developed septicemia

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15
Q 
Which of these binds to egosterol & makes pores?
A.	Fluconazole
B.	Voriconazole
C.	Caspofungin
D.     Nystatin
A

D. Nystatin

a polyene

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16
Q 
What on B-cells can recognize protein and polysaccharide? 

A. MHC II

B. CD20 

C. IgM

D. IgG

E. IgA
A

C. IgM


IgM & LgD are both receptors for B-cells

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17
Q 
Deficiency in which of these gives a poor tuberculin test result?

A. T cell

B. B cell

C. NK

D. phagocyte
A


A. T cell


Tuberculin test is an example for hypersensitivity type 4, T-cell mediated

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18
Q

Deficiency in CD40 Ligand on the T cell results in

a. hyper IgG syndrome
b. hyper IgM syndrome
c. hyper IgA syndrome

A

b. hyper IgM syndrome

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19
Q 
What is the main function of Th2 cells?
A. killing of intracellular viruses 

B. induction of inflammatory response
C. induction of apoptosis.
D. activation of macrophages

E. activation of antibody production
A

E. activation of antibody production

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20
Q

Which of the following contains sequestered antigen?
A. skin
B. stomach 

C. eyes

A

C. eyes

tissues are damaged, they’re suddenly exposed to the immune system, which treats them as foreign

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21
Q 
Whats used to recognize cell antigens in situ
A.	Elisa
B.	Radioimmuno
C.	Immunoassay
D.     Immunofluorescence
A

D. Immunofluorescence

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22
Q 
What is the most common etiological agent of impetigo?
A. streptococcus milleri 

B. streptococcus agalactiae 

C. streptococcus pyogenes 

D. streptococcus mitis
A

C. streptococcus pyogenes 


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23
Q

What inhaled component causes zygomycosis infection?

A. Sporangiospores 

B. Blastomyces

A

A. Sporangiospores 


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24
Q

What mechanism of Amphotericin B kills fungal cell?

A. Loss of K

B. Accumulation of k 

C. Synthesis of ergosterol

A


A. Loss of K

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25
Q 
Which of these organisms is resistant to alcohol scrub?

A. Salmonella typhimurium

B.  e. Coli
C. clostridium difficile

D. s. aureus
 
E. enterococcus feacalis
A

C. clostridium difficile


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26
Q

If a baby was suspected syphilis what is the best method to investigate it?

A. Venereal disease laboratory assay

B. fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbent test

C. IgM-ELISA

D. IgG-ELISA

A


A. Venereal disease laboratory assay


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27
Q

What is the causative agent of saber shin?

A

Congenital syphilis

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance to vancomycin by enterococcus feacalis?
A) target modification
B) altering permeability
C) efflux pump

A

A) Target modification

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29
Q 
Which part of the world is endemic for both urinary and hepatic schistosomiasis ? 
A) Africa 
B) South East Asia
C) South America
D) China
A

A) Africa

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30
Q

N. gonorrhea virulence factors?
A) capsule
B) fimbrae
C) lipooligosaccharide

A

C) lipooligosaccharide

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31
Q 
What is the best disinfectant for laparoscopy?
A. 5% phenol 
B. Hypochlorite 
C. Formaldehyde 
D. Glutaraldehyde
A

D. Glutaraldehyde

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32
Q

What is the causative agent of genital nodules?
A) human papilloma virus
B) herpes simplex virus
C) molluscum contagiosum virus

A

C) molluscum contagiosum virus

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33
Q 
A 35-year-old patient with anaphylactic reaction from peanut consumption. What is the effector cell in this case?

A. Th1

B. Th2

C. Monocyte

D. Macrophage

E. Mast cell 
F. Eosinophil
A

E. Mast cell

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34
Q

What inhibits fungal DNA synthesis and acts synergistically with amphotericin B?

A. Flucytosine

B. Ketoconazole

C. Fluconazole

A


A. Flucytosine

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35
Q 
A vaginal discharge showed clue cells. What can this be?

A. Gardnerella vaginalis

B. Treponema pallidum 

C. Chlamydia trachomatis

D. Haemophilus ducreyi

E. Mycoplasma hominis
A

A. Gardnerella vaginalis


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36
Q 
Lyme disease symptom
s include
A. Body rash 

B. Hepatomegaly 

C. Splenomegaly

E. Eschar 

F. Lymphadenopathy

G. Haemorrhage
A

E. Eschar

a dry, dark scab or falling away of dead skin

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37
Q 
What is the reservoir for Leptospira icterohemorrhagia?

A. dogs 

B. pigs

C. chicken
D. cats 

E. rats
A

E. rats

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38
Q 
What is the reservoir for Campylobacter jejuni
?

A. dogs 

B. pigs

C. chicken
D. cats 

E. rats
A

C. chicken

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39
Q 
A mother had an intrauterine fetal death at 30 weeks on autopsy the baby had microabscess in spleen and liver. What is the causative agent?
A. Toxoplasmosis

B. Treponema 

C. Listeria 

D. CMV

E.  B. Melitens
F.  M. Tuberculosis 

G.  P. Falciparum 

H.  Adenovirus
A

C. Listeria 


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40
Q 
What Permits precise enumeration of B cell sample
?
A. Cytometry flow

B. ELISA

C. Precipitation 

D. Agglutination 

E. Immunoassay
A

A. Cytometry flow


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41
Q

A 3 year old boy presented with tonsillitis. Laboratory investigation showed β hemolytic gram positive bacteria. What could be the causative agent?

A. streptococcus pyogenes 

B. staphylocoocus aureus
C. streptococcus pneumonia

A

A. streptococcus pyogenes 


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42
Q 
What's the physical finding for Lyme disease?
A)	Rash 
B)	Eschar
C)	Hepatomegaly
D)	Lymphadenopathy 
E)	Jaundice
43
Q

What’s the physical finding for Lassa fever?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Jaundice
C) Hepatomegaly

A

A) Hemorrhage

44
Q 
What is the most common pathology caused by Tuberculosis
?
A.	chronic villiositis 
B.	deciduitis 
C.	intervilliositis
D.	chorioamnionitis
E.	acute villitis
F.     funisitis
A

B. deciduitis

long-lasting inflammation that arises in pregnancy and affects the endometrial stromal tissue

45
Q 
What is the most common pathology caused by CMV
?
A.	chronic villiositis 
B.	deciduitis 
C.	intervilliositis
D.	chorioamnionitis
E.	acute villitis
F.     funisitis
A

A. chronic villiositis

46
Q

What is the most common cause of septicemia?
A. E.coli
B. strept pneumoniae
c. s. aureus

A

c. s. aureus

47
Q

What is the most likely causative agent of an outbreak of bloody diarrhea and HUS?

a. EPEC
b. EHEC
c. ETEC

48
Q

What is the most infectious virus in hospital setting ?

a. HSV-1
b. HPV
c. CMV
d. VZV

A

d. VZV

Varicella Zoster Virus

49
Q

What’s true about worried well?
A) high-risk sexual history
B) misinterprets physical complaints

A

B) misinterprets physical complaints

50
Q

Where was the Thymus derived from?

a. 1st pharyngeal pouches
b. 2nd pharyngeal pouches
c. 3rd pharyngeal pouches

A

c. 3rd pharyngeal pouches

51
Q

Antiviral that inhibits separation of influenza A/B from the host cell?

a. Rimantadine
b. Pimodivir
c. Oseltamivir

A

c. Oseltamivir

52
Q

which virus may lead to severe anemia In infants?

a. VZV
b. Parvovirus b19
c. HSV

A

b. Parvovirus b19

53
Q

What may lead to ototoxicity?

A

Gentamicin

54
Q

Which drug inhibits NA?

a. Oseltamivir
b. Baloxavir marboxil
c. Favipiravir

A

a. Oseltamivir

55
Q

What is the best antibiotic for tuberculosis?

A

Rifampicin

56
Q

Someone with renal transplantation suffered from hemorrhagic cystitis. What’s the causative agent?

a. VZV
b. BK virus

A

b. BK virus

57
Q

what causes patent ductus arteriosis?

a. Parvovirus B19
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. Rubella

A

d. Rubella

58
Q

which of the following lead to anti-viral resistance?

a. INF
b. Ribavirin

59
Q

The most common Chemical messenger used in hypersensitivity?

a. Heparin
b. Histamine
c. Serotonin

A

b. Histamine

60
Q

HIV causes

a. Low CD4+
b. Low CD8+

A

a. Low CD4+

61
Q

Which type pf epithelia-reticular cells form Hassall’s corpuscles?

a. Type 4
b. Type 6
c. Type 5
d. Type

62
Q

What causes retinitis in HIV patients?

a. HSV
b. HPV
c. CMV
d. Zika virus

63
Q

The late reaction of type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by?

a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophils
c. CD4+
d. Reticuloendothelial cells

A

a. Eosinophil

64
Q

What is the cause of a kid with hepatosplenomegaly, bossing frontal lobe, and saddle nose?

a. Rubella
b. Syphilis
c. CMV
d. HIV

A

b. Syphilis

65
Q

How can you prevent Cervical cancer?

a. screening tests
b. vaccination

A

b. vaccination

66
Q

A 29 year old woman presented with vaginal discharge with rotten fish smell. What most likely to be the cause?

a. Genital herpes
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
c. Cervical Cancer

A

b. Gardnerella vaginalis

67
Q

What is the reservoir for Yersinia pestis?

a. Squirrels
b. Dogs
c. Cats
d. Rats

A

What is the reservoir for Yersinia pestis ?

Rats

68
Q 
The function of reticular cells in the spleen? 
A) production of collagen type 1
B) production of collagen type 2
C) production of collagen type 3
D) production of collagen type 4
A

C) production of collagen type 3

69
Q

Which one of the following coagulase positive?

a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saptrophyticus

A

a. S. aureus

70
Q

Which of the following antibiotics act on the early stage of peptidoglycan synthesis?

a. Cefotaxime
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Amoxicillin

A

c. Vancomycin

it’s a glycopeptide

71
Q

Which of the following antibiotics act on the late stage of peptidoglycan synthesis?

a. Cefotaxime
b. Vancomycin

A

a. Cefotaxime

it’s a Cephalosporin, a beta-lactam

72
Q

Which of the following nucleoside analogue RTI?

a. tenofovir
b. nevirapine
c. zidovudine
d. raltegravir

A

c. zidovudine

73
Q

A 1-year-old child acquired w/meningococcal meningitis. What prophylaxis should be given to the contacts?

a. rifampicin
b. 
ciprofloxacin
c. penicillin V

A

b. 
ciprofloxacin

74
Q

A person with bilateral inguinal buboes most likely has…

a. Chlymadia trachomatis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Kelbsella granulomatis
d. Gardnerella vaginalis

A

a. Chlymadia trachomatis

Kelbsella granulomatis is usually unilateral

75
Q

What does Gallium 67 citrate imaging bind to?

a. Leukocytes
b. Transferrin
c. Antibodies
d. Heme

A

b. Transferrin

76
Q

What’s an example of type 4 hypersensitivity?

a. Anaphylaxis to peanuts
b. Systemic Lupus Erythmatous
c. Tuberculin skin test
d. Blood agglutination test

A

c. Tuberculin skin test

77
Q

What’s the key mediator in immediate-type 1 hypersensitivity?

a. Mast cells
b. Macrophages
c. Cytokines
d. B cells

A

a. Mast cells

78
Q

What causes IDDM?

a. Neoantigen
b. Cytokine imbalance
c. High level expression of MHC-2

A

c. High level expression of MHC-2

79
Q

What is most likely to cause catheter-related infection?

a. Total parenteral nutrition
b. Peripheral venous catheter
c. Pulmonary artery catheter

A

a. Total parenteral nutrition

80
Q

Which drug is used to inhibit integration of viral DNA into the host DNA?

a. tenofovir
b. nevirapine
c. zidovudine
d. raltegravir

A

d. raltegravir

81
Q

which of the following is true regarding maraviroc?

a. CCR5 receptor agonist
b. CCR5 receptor antagonist
c. CCR7 receptor agonist
d. CCR6 receptor antagonist

A

b. CCR5 receptor antagonist

82
Q

A patient with mitral valve lesion wants to undergo tooth extraction. What is the best prophylaxis?

a. low oral dose cephalosporin
b. high oral dose cephalosporin
c. low oral dose amoxicillin
d. high oral dose amoxicillin

A

d. high oral dose amoxicillin

83
Q

What does quarantine mean?

a. Isolation of people who are not ill but have been exposed
b. Isolation of people who are ill due to exposure
c. Isolation of people based on their symptoms

A

a. Isolation of people who are not ill but have been exposed

84
Q

What type of cells line the splenic sinuses?

A

Elongated cells

85
Q

Who’s the most likely to get a high-risk cervical test?

a. Women aged more than 14 years and have abnormal pap smear test
b. Women aged more than 18 years and have abnormal pap smear test
c. Women aged more than 21 years and have abnormal pap smear test

A

c. Women aged more than 21 years and have abnormal pap smear test

86
Q

What’s the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

87
Q

What’s the most common agent that causes nosocomial septicemia infections?

a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saptrophyticus

A

a. S. aureus

88
Q

How do you prevent reccurent HPV infections?

a. immunoglobulins
b. suppression therapy

A

b. suppression therapy

89
Q

A pregnant lady presents with flu-like illness. Her child presented at birt with micro-abscesses in his liver and an eythmatous skin rash with nodules. A culture of the placenta revealed gram-positive bacilli. What is the causative agent?

a. Rubella
b. Listeria monocytogens
c. Toxoplasmosis

A

b. Listeria monocytogens

90
Q

Khalid, a 20 year old college student, is a sensation seeker and engages in physical and social challenges associated with health- related behaviors that may put him at risk of acquiring an STD. What is the characteristic associated with Khalid’s behavior?

A

He underestimates the risk involved

91
Q

What causes meningitis in HIV patients?

a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. CMV
d. Aspergillus flavus

A

b. Cryptococcus neoformans

92
Q

what causes meningitis black colonies on niger seed agar?

a. Nocardia species
b. Candida albicans
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Cryptococcus neoformans

A

d. Cryptococcus neoformans

93
Q

What infection causes sub pleural granulomatous in granulomatous lymphadenitis?

A

Mycobacterium (tuberculosis)

94
Q

A neonate has encephalomyocarditis what infection that can cause this?

a. CMV
b. Coxsackie virus
c. HPV

A

b. Coxsackie virus

95
Q

Where do you find radiolabeled leukocytes?

a. Persisting fever
b. lymphomas
c. leukemia

A

a. Persisting fever

96
Q

What is the first thing that happens during a viral infection?

a. Interferon proliferation
b. B cell differentiation
c. Macrophage activation
d. T cell activation

A

a. Interferon proliferation

97
Q

How do cytokines released by TH1 promote a better cell-mediated immunity?

a. Activate the plasma cell proliferation
b. Activate macrophages
c. Eosinophil stimulation

A

b. Activate macrophages

98
Q

Hypoplasia of the right lower limb caused by?

a. HSV
b. VZV
c. Rubella
d. CMV

99
Q

Histology for HIV patient showed intranuclear inclusions with epithelial cell fusion. What is the causative organism?

a. HSV
b. VZV
c. Rubella
d. CMV

100
Q

How does ketoconazole affect the effectiveness of amphotericin?

A

it inhibits ergosterol synthesis and amphotericin binds to ergosterol to disrupt the ion balance of the fungus

101
Q

A 15 year old boy presented with vomiting and abdominal pain 4 hours after eating a cream pie. What is the causative agent?

102
Q

How can HPV be prevented?

103
Q

What’s true about Tc?

A

it makes cytokines

I&I Past Exams (14 decks)

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