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Anatomy Lecture > Exam I | Overview of Tissues and Systems > Flashcards

Exam I | Overview of Tissues and Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Where are osteons located?

A

compact bone

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2
Q

What are the components of an oseton?

A
  • Haversian canal
  • lamellae
  • lacunae
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3
Q

Which canals run parallel to the bone axis?

A

Haversian canals

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4
Q

Which canals run perpendicular to bone axis?

A

Volkmann’s canals

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5
Q

What are the rings of bone matrix that surround the Haversian canal?

A

lamellae

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6
Q

What are the spaces that contain the osteocytes?

A

lacunae

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7
Q

What are canaliculi?

A
  • microscopic canals between the lacunae

- the radiating processes of the osteocytes project into these canals, joined together by gap junctions.

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8
Q

What does the endosteum do?

A
  • lines the bone marrow cavity.
  • lines the inner surfaces of the central canals
  • covers the trabeculae of spongy bone
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9
Q

What are trabeculae, and where are they found?

A
  • interconnecting plates that bear weight and help the bone resist bending and twisting
  • found in spongey bone
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10
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

central cavity of bone shafts where red bone marrow and/or yellow bone marrow (adipose tissue) is stored

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11
Q

What is an osteocyte?

A

mature bone cell that maintains bone marrow matrix

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12
Q

Where is most of the neural innervation in bone?

A

periosteum

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13
Q

What do nutrient arteries supply?

A
  • bone marrow
  • spongy bone
  • compact bone
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14
Q

What do periosteal arteries supply?

A

much of compact bone

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15
Q

What do metaphyseal and epiphyseal arteries supply?

A

extremities of bone

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16
Q

How can bones be made clear?

A

injecting ethyl cinnamate

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17
Q

where do nutrient arteries and veins enter the bone?

A

by way of nutrient foramina

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18
Q

Where do nutrient veins depart?

A

epiphyseal regions

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19
Q

Bones have blood vessels, nerves, ______, and ______.

A

lymphatic vessels; fibers

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20
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

bones adapts to load (atrophy or hypertrophy)

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21
Q

What is avascular necrosis?

A
  • loss of functional bone tissue following impaired blood supply
  • small regions of necrosis occur with every fracture or significant trauma to bone
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22
Q

What is the concern with a compound fracture? Why?

A

infection, because bone breaks through skin (at least momentarily)

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23
Q

What type of fracture is typically associated with falling injuries?

A

impacted fracture. broken ends are driven together

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24
Q

What can cause a pathological fracture?

A

osteoporosis or osteopenia, which weaken bone

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25
Q

What is the difference between an compound and closed fracture?

A

in a closed fracture there is no perforation of skin

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26
Q

What is another name for closed fracture?

A

simple fracture

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27
Q

What is the difference between a complete and incomplete fracture?

A

complete fracture is bone broken into 2 or more parts; bone remains whole in incomplete fracture

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28
Q

What is the difference between a complete and comminuted fracture?

A

comminuted fracture is FRAGMENTATION of bone, complete fracture is into DISCRETE parts

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29
Q

What are 2 types of incomplete fractures?

A
  • greenstick fracture

- stress fracture

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30
Q

what is a greenstick fracture?

A

incomplete fracture following distortion of bone

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31
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

a fracture at a right angle to bone axis

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32
Q

What is an impacted fracture?

A

broken ends driven together

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33
Q

What 5 things does proper healing of bones require?

A

1) that the broken ‘ends’ be set in normal apposition
2) that fibroblasts secrete sufficient collagen to form a CALLUS that holds ends together
3) that REMODELING occurs in order to ‘bridge’ the fracture
4) CALCIFICATION of fractured region
5) RESORPTION of callus and displacement of callus by bone

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34
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

a group of genetic disorders in which bones break easily (can be once a week or month) from mild trauma or no apparent reason

35
Q

What is an ILIZAROV?

A
  • a circular fixator used to stabilize and lengthen the tibia
  • small wires and pins fix the bone to the frame until healing occurs
36
Q

What is mesenchyme?

A

embryonic connective tissue

37
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

-long bones originating from cartilage

38
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

fetal ossification of mesenchyme

39
Q

How are bones derived from mesenchyme?

A
  • intramembranous ossification

- endochondral ossification

40
Q

What are the first 4 steps of endochondral ossification (before primary ossification)

A
  • mesenchymal cells become chondroblasts, forming the cartilaginous model
  • cartilage begins to ossify from central region of bone
  • periosteal capillaries invade interior bone
  • blood vessels and osteogenic cells form PERIOSTEAL BUD
41
Q

Where does the primary ossification center generally appear?

A

in the shaft (diaphysis)

42
Q

Where and when does the secondary ossification center appear?

A

epiphyses; after birth

43
Q

When do primary and secondary ossification centers meet?

A

when lengthening ceases (epiphyseal plates close)

44
Q

Determination of bone age is dependent on knowledge of what 3 things?

A
  • sites of normal ossification
  • rates of normal ossification
  • normal progression of fusion of ossification centers
45
Q

What is bone age generally estimated from?

A
  • location and degree of ossification in ossification centers
  • prominence of epiphyseal plate
  • extent of fusion
46
Q

How must chondrocytes receive nutrients?

A

diffusion from the perichondrium, since cartilage lacks blood vessels

47
Q

What is the function of the perichondrium?

A
  • to surround cartilage (except articular cartilage) and provides it with nutrients
  • provides sites for attachment of binding tissues
48
Q

Where in the body can you find elastic cartilage?

A
  • epiglottis

- pinna (ear)

49
Q

What fibers is fibrocartilage made up of?

A

collagen

50
Q

Where in the body can you find fibrocartilage?

A
  • intervertebral disks

- innermost pubic symphysis

51
Q

Name 5 places in the body where you can find hyaline cartilage.

A
  • nose
  • bronchi
  • costal cartilage
  • articular cartilage
  • embryonic model
52
Q

What are 3 classes of skeletal joint?

A
  • fibrous
  • cartilage: primary, secondary (fibrocartilage layer)
  • synovial
53
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joint?

A
  • hinge
  • ball and socket
  • plane
  • pivot
  • condyloid
  • saddle
54
Q

Which joints are generally immoveable or partially moveable?

A

fibrous joints

55
Q

What is a syndesmosis?

A
  • partially moveable joint

- bones connected by fibrous tissue sheet

56
Q

What is a gomphosis?

A
  • dentoalveolar syndesmosis

- anchors tooth

57
Q

What ties the tooth into the socket?

A

periodontium

58
Q

Give 3 examples of syndesmoses.

A
  • cranial sutures
  • interosseous membrane (forearm, lower leg)
  • bilateral costotransverse joints of rib 11 and 12
59
Q

which joints are made by fibrocartilage?

A

-secondary cartilaginous joints

60
Q

What type of joint is the epiphyseal plate?

A

primary cartilaginous joint (synchondrosis)

61
Q

What are the functions of synovial fluid?

A
  • lubricates surfaces of joint

- nourishes articular cartilage

62
Q

What are extrinsic and intrinsic ligaments?

A
  • reinforce synovial joints
  • extrinsic bind exterior of joint
  • intrinsic form part of joint capsule
63
Q

The acromioclavicular joint is what kind of joint?

A

plane joint

64
Q

What is an anastomose?

A

network of branching structures

65
Q

What is an articular (joint) capsule, and what are its components?

A
  • fibrous capsule lined by synovial membrane in synovial joints
  • articular arteries and veins are commonly in synovial membrane
  • nerve endings are abundant in fibrous layer, but sparse in synovial membrane
66
Q

Hilton’s Law

A

nerves innervating a joint often innervate associated muscles and skin of distal attachments

67
Q

what are osteophytes, and what causes them?

A
  • bone spurs

- bone-on-bone osteoarthritis (when cartilage wears down)

68
Q

what is the most common joint disease, and where does it commonly occur?

A
  • osteoarthritis

- knees and hips

69
Q

What areas are most susceptible to general joint disease?

A
  • knees
  • hips
  • vertebral column
  • hands
70
Q

What are the symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A
  • joint stiffness
  • loss of mobility
  • pain
71
Q

What is deglutition?

A

process of swallowing

72
Q

what is a skeletal muscle fiber?

A

skeletal muscle cell

73
Q

What is a tuberosity?

A

large rounded projection; may be roughened

74
Q

What is a tubercle?

A

small rounded projection or process

75
Q

What is a fossa?

A

shallow, basin-like depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface

76
Q

what does latissimus mean?

A

wide and broad

77
Q

What does piriformis mean

A

pear shaped

78
Q

What is a condyle?

A

knob

79
Q

What are 6 ways muscles can be attached to bones and other structures?

A
  • tendons
  • aponeuroses (sheet-like connective tissue)
  • other muscles
  • ligaments
  • fascia
  • mucous membranes
80
Q

pennate muscles

A

feather-shaped

81
Q

fusiform muscles

A

spindle-shaped (round with tapered ends)

82
Q

bicipital muscles

A

2 heads

83
Q

convergent muscles

A

muscle fascicles converge into a single tendon, have broad attachment

84
Q

What make up the motor unit?

A

motor neuron and all muscle fibers innervated by that neuron

Anatomy Lecture (12 decks)

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