Exam 5 - Antifungals Stahelin Flashcards

1
Q

what does amphoteric mean?

A

has both acidic and basic groups (can act as an acid or a base)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mycosamine on amphotericin B is important for

a. pore formation
b. binding to ergosterol
c. binding to cholesterol

A

b. binding to ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the OH at C35 of amphotericin B is important for

a. pore formation
b. binding to ergosterol
c. binding to cholesterol

A

a. pore formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the hydroxyl on mycosamine is important for

a. pore formation
b. binding to ergosterol
c. binding to cholesterol

A

c. binding to cholesterol (not ergosterol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

amphotericin B drug class

A

polyenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

amphotericin B binds to _______, the predominant sterol in fungal cell membranes

A

ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which of the following is FALSE about amphotericin B pharmacokinetics?

a. poorly absorbed from GI tract
b. oral amphotericin B is only effective for GI infections
c. IV injection required for systemic infection
d. fungal meningitis has no treatment

A

d. fungal meningitis has no treatment

(intrathecal therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

amphotericin B adverse effects (3 of them; broad)

A

-infusion related
-renal damage
-liver abnormalities occasionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how can we alleviate the infusion-related AE of amphotericin B? (2 ways)

A

-reduce rate of infusion
-premedicate with diphenhydramine and/or acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the reversible and irreversible component of renal damage due to amphotericin B?

A

reversible: reduced renal perfusion
irreversible: renal tubular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

renal tubular injury due to amphotericin B usually occurs after using how many grams?

A

> 4 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DOC for life-threatening fungal infections

A

amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which polyene drug, similar to amphotericin B, is used for superficial fungal infections?

A

nystatin

(too toxic for systemic administration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which of the following is NOT a lipid formulation of amphotericin B?

a. C-AMB (fungizone)
b. ABCD (amphotec)
c. L-AMB (ambisome)
d. ABLC (abelcet)

A

a. C-AMB (fungizone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in conventional amphotericin B, what is used as the solubilizing agent?

a. glycerin
b. deoxycholate
c. cyclodextrins
d. sodium lauryl sulfate

A

b. deoxycholate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which of the following is FALSE about lipid formulations of amphotericin?

a. they reduce nephrotoxicity
b. act as reservoir of amphotericin
c. amphotec is the only one that uses true liposomes
d. each formulation uses different lipids

A

c. amphotec is the only one that uses true liposomes

(ambisome not amphotec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

allylamine antifungal drugs (4; slide 16-19)

A

-terbinafine
-naftifine
-butenafine
-tolnaftate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MOA of terbinafine and other allylamines

a. inhibits squalene epoxidase
b. inhibits 14a-demethylase
c. inhibit synthesis of B(1-3)glucan
d. inhibits thymidylate synthase and protein synthesis

A

a. inhibits squalene epoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MOA of azoles

a. inhibits squalene epoxidase
b. inhibits 14a-demethylase
c. inhibit synthesis of B(1-3)glucan
d. inhibits thymidylate synthase and protein synthesis

A

b. inhibits 14a-demethylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MOA of echinocandins

a. inhibits squalene epoxidase
b. inhibits 14a-demethylase
c. inhibit synthesis of B(1-3)glucan
d. inhibits thymidylate synthase and protein synthesis

A

c. inhibit synthesis of B(1-3)glucan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MOA of flucytosine

a. inhibits squalene epoxidase
b. inhibits 14a-demethylase
c. inhibit synthesis of B(1-3)glucan
d. inhibits thymidylate synthase and protein synthesis

A

d. inhibits thymidylate synthase and protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cell death due to terbinafine results from accumulation of _______, not loss of ergosterol

A

squalene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which is structurally DIFFERENT than terbinafine, but still inhibits squalene epoxidase?

a. naftifine
b. butenafine
c. tolnaftate

A

c. tolnaftate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which of the following is available oral and topical?

a. terbinafine
b. naftifine
c. butenafine
d. tolnaftate

A

a. terbinafine

(others are only topical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

largest class of antimycotics (aka antifungals)

a. allylamines
b. azoles
c. echinocandins
d. polyenes

A

b. azoles

(> 20 drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

are azoles fungicidal or fungistatic?

A

fungistatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which antifungal drug class works by inhibiting the demethylation of lanosterol, inhibiting its conversion to ergosterol?

A

azoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the importance of the nitrogen on the 5-membered aromatic ring of azoles?

A

essential for binding iron in P450 enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ketoconazole IC50 for candida 14a-demethylase enzyme vs human enzyme (values)

A

candida: 10^-9 M
human: 10^-6 M

(more selective for fungal enzyme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

first orally active azole (slide 26)

a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. isavuconazole
d. ketoconazole

A

d. ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

be able to look at structural features of azoles

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does the added methyl group on voriconazole do?

A

improved binding to fungal 14a-demethylase and increase spectrum

33
Q

what does the furan ring of posaconazole do?

A

alters and increases spectrum of activity

34
Q

posaconazole is available as what two dosage forms?

A

-oral (as suspension)
-IV

35
Q

which of the following is TRUE about isavuconazole?

a. lipid-soluble
b. prodrug
c. structurally similar to itraconazole
d. short half life

A

b. prodrug

(a. is water soluble; c. is voriconazole; d. is long)

36
Q

which of the following is FALSE about isavuconazole?

a. prodrug is isavuconazonium
b. isavuconazonium is cleaved by plasma esterases
c. release active drug and pro-drug cleavage product
d. cleavage product has long half life

A

d. cleavage product has long half life (short)

37
Q

T or F: oteseconazole is used for high risk of recurring fungal or yeast infections

38
Q

newest azole drug to be approved

a. fluconazole
b. posaconazole
c. oteseconazole
d. itraconazole

A

c. oteseconazole (approved in 2022)

39
Q

example of CYP inducer that can dec triazole levels (slide 35)

40
Q

which of the following is NOT a correct drug interaction with ketoconazole?

a. inhibits metabolism of terfenadine and cisapride
b. decrease AUC and half life of triazolam
c. increases bioavailability of cyclosporin
d. rifampin reduces ketoconazole levels

A

b. decrease AUC and half life of triazolam (increase)

41
Q

80% of fluconazole is excreted by the ______ unchanged

42
Q

ketoconazole is a potent inhibitor of

a. CYP2C9
b. CYP2C19
c. CYP3A4
d. CYP3A8

43
Q

put these CYPs in order by which metabolizes voriconazole the most in the liver: CYP3A4, CYP2C9, CYP2C19

A

CYP2C19 > CYP3A4 > > CYP2C9

44
Q

posaconazole is metabolized in liver by _________

A

glucoronidation

45
Q

which echinocandin is a synthetically modified glarea lozoyensis?

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

a. caspofungin

46
Q

which echinocandin is synthetically modified coleophoma empetri

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

b. micafungin

47
Q

which echinocandin is synthetically modified aspergillus nidulans?

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

c. anidulafungin

48
Q

echinocandins route of admin

49
Q

target enzyme of echinocandins

a. dihydrofolate reductase
b. b(1-3)glucan synthase
c. chitin synthase
d. squalene monooxygenase

A

b. b(1-3)glucan synthase

50
Q

3 structural components of yeast cell wall

A

chitin
glucan
mannoprotein

51
Q

-Disseminated and mucocutaneous candida
-Salvage therapy in patients with aspergillosis who fail to respond to amphotericin B

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

a. caspofungin

52
Q

-mucocutaneous candida
-Candida prophylaxis in bone marrow transplant patients

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

b. micafungin

53
Q

-Esophogeal candidiasis
-Invasive candidiasis

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

c. anidulafungin

54
Q

longest half life and no known drug interactions

a. caspofungin
b. micafungin
c. anidulafungin

A

c. anidulafungin

55
Q

T or F: echinocandins are metabolized by liver CYPs

A

F (degraded in blood and in tissues)

56
Q

rezafungin drug class

a. allylamine
b. azole
c. echinocandin
d. polyene

A

c. echinocandin

57
Q

Novel, once-weekly echinocandin antifungal for adults with limited or no alternative treatment options (candidiasis).

a. rezafungin
b. ibrexafungerp
c. flucytosine
d. griseofulvin

A

a. rezafungin

58
Q

oral, small molecule inhibitor of glucan synthase enzyme in fungi; used for vulvovaginal candidiasis

a. rezafungin
b. ibrexafungerp
c. flucytosine
d. griseofulvin

A

b. ibrexafungerp

59
Q

antimetabolite drug that inhibits thymidylate synthase

a. rezafungin
b. ibrexafungerp
c. flucytosine
d. griseofulvin

A

c. flucytosine

60
Q

disrupts fungal microtubules

a. rezafungin
b. ibrexafungerp
c. flucytosine
d. griseofulvin

A

d. griseofulvin

61
Q

what is the active metabolite of flucytosine that inactivates thymidylate synthase?

a. 5-FU
b. 5-FUMP
c. 5-UDP
d. 5-FdUMP

A

d. 5-FdUMP

(suicide inhibitor)

62
Q

which of the following is TRUE about flucytosine?

a. IV only
b. removed by kidney
c. penetrates poorly into CSF
d. nearly always administered with amphotericin B and itraconazole

A

b. removed by kidney

(a. is oral; c. penetrates well; d. is amphotericin B and fluconazole)

63
Q

is griseofulvin fungicidal or fungistatic?

A

fungistatic

64
Q

antifungal that inhibits leucyl transfer RNA synthetase (LeuRS), thus inhibiting protein synthesis

a. tavaborole
b. griseofulvin
c. flucytosine
d. fluconazole

A

a. tavaborole

65
Q

which chemical element is essential for tavaborole activity?

a. chlorine
b. aluminum
c. selenium
d. boron

66
Q

tavaborole is used for topical treatment of __________ (nail fungus)

A

onychomycosis

67
Q

resistance to antifungals: intrinsically resistant to fluconazole; reduced susceptibility to flucytosine and amphotericin B

a. Candida krusei
b. Candida glabrata
c. Aspergillus terreus

A

a. Candida krusei

68
Q

resistance to antifungals: multiazole, echinocandin, and multidrug resistance

a. Candida krusei
b. Candida glabrata
c. Aspergillus terreus

A

b. Candida glabrata

69
Q

resistance to antifungals: intrinsically resistant to amphotericin

a. Candida krusei
b. Candida glabrata
c. Aspergillus terreus

A

c. Aspergillus terreus

70
Q

resistance to antifungals: reduced ergosterol content

a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. echinocandins
d. flucytosine

A

b. polyenes

71
Q

resistance to antifungals: target site mutations; rare

a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. echinocandins
d. flucytosine

A

c. echinocandins

72
Q

resistance to antifungals: cytosine deaminase or UPRT

a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. echinocandins
d. flucytosine

A

d. flucytosine

73
Q

antifungal tx of choice for systemic infections in PREGNANCY

A

amphotericin B

74
Q

which of the following can be used to treat vaginal yeast infections in PREGNANT patients?

a. single dose fluconazole
b. single dose itraconazole
c. single dose posaconazole
d. single dose isavuconazole
e. BID fluconazole

A

a. single dose fluconazole (150 mg)

75
Q

Which of the below choices is the mechanism of action of terbinafine?

A. Inhibits the glucan synthase enzyme.
B. Inhibits thymidylate synthase.
C. Inhibits the 14-alpha-demethylase CYP450.
D. Inhibits the squalene epoxidase enzyme

A

D. Inhibits the squalene epoxidase enzyme

76
Q

Which of the following drugs is an orally available small molecule inhibitor of the fungal glucan synthase enzyme?

A. Itraconazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Caspofungin
D. Ibrexafungerp
E. Amphotericin B

A

D. Ibrexafungerp

77
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibits the leucyl transfer RNA synthetase?

A. Tavaborole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin B
E. Fluconazole

A

A. Tavaborole

78
Q

Which of the following drugs given by IV, is a synthetically modified fungal compound, and inhibits the fungal beta-glucan synthase enzyme?

A. Ibrexafungerp
B. Tavaborole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Itraconazole
E. Caspofungin

A

E. Caspofungin