Lec 1 Intro to ID Rybakov (on slide 29)

Question 1

hallmark of infection

Answer 1

fever

Question 2

a fever is considered > ___ C or > ___ F

Answer 2

> 38 C
100.4 F

Question 3

a drug-induced fever is considered a false-______

a. negative
b. positive

Answer 3

b. positive

Question 4

absence of fever in pts with signs/sx of infection

a. false-negative
b. false-positive

Answer 4

a. false-negative

Question 5

3 examples of antipyretics (slide 6)

Answer 5

acetaminophen, NSAIDs, aspirin

Question 6

4 criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

Answer 6

1. HR > 90 bpm
2. RR > 20 rpm
3. fever > 38 C or < 36 C
4. inc/dec WBC count (> 12000 or < 4000 or > 10% bands)

Question 7

at least ___ criteria out of ___ need to be met for SIRS?

Answer 7

at least 2 criteria out of 4

Question 8

difference between signs and symptoms

Answer 8

signs is what we see (vitals, inc/dec WBC count), symptoms is what the pt is telling you (chills, etc)

Question 9

signs and symptoms of infection may be absent in _______ patients

Answer 9

neutropenic

Question 10

5 types of WBCs

Answer 10

neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils

Question 11

two bolded non-infectious causes of infection: lab test (slide 9)

Answer 11

steroids, leukemia

Question 12

-most common WBC
-fight infections

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

Answer 12

a. mature neutrophils

Question 13

increases during infection = “left shift”

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

Answer 13

b. immature neutrophils (bands)

Question 14

involved in allergic rxns and immune response to parasites

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

Answer 14

c. eosinophils

Question 15

associated with hypersensitivity rxns

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

Answer 15

d. basophils

Question 16

humoral (B-cell) and cell-mediated (T-cell) immunity

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

Answer 16

e. lymphocytes

Question 17

-mature into macrophages
-serve as scavengers for foreign substances

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

Answer 17

f. monocytes

Question 18

-increased neutrophils +/- bands
-associated with bacterial infections

a. leukocytosis
b. lymphocytosis

Answer 18

a. leukocytosis

Question 19

-associated with viral, fungal, or tuberculosis infections
-inc in B and T cells

a. leukocytosis
b. lymphocytosis

Answer 19

b. lymphocytosis

Question 20

risk of infection _______ as ANC ______

a. inc; inc
b. inc; dec
c. dec; inc
d. dec; dec

Answer 20

b. inc; dec

Question 21

T or F: ESR and CRP are always elevated if there is an infection present

Answer 21

F (does NOT confirm infection)

Question 22

normal ESR range in males and females

Answer 22

0-15 (males)
0-20 (females)

Question 23

normal CRP range

Answer 23

0-0.5

Question 24

which acute phase reactant is more specific for bacterial infections than ESR and CRP?

Answer 24

procalcitonin

Question 25

procalcitonin elevation < 0.25

a. low risk of infection
b. antibiotics should be continued

Answer 25

a. low risk of infection

Question 26

procalcitonin elevation > 0.5

a. low risk of infection
b. antibiotics should be continued

Answer 26

b. antibiotics should be continued

Question 27

how often should serial calcitonin measurements be taken?

Answer 27

every 1-2 days

Question 28

T or F: the type of culture collected for identifying a pathogen depends on the site of infection

Answer 28

T

Question 29

blood cultures are obtained from ___ peripheral sites as ___ sets

Answer 29

2; 2

Question 30

what is 1 set of blood cultures?

Answer 30

1 aerobic and 1 anaerobic bottle

Question 31

A potentially pathogenic organism is present at the body site but is not invading host tissue or
eliciting a host immune response

a. colonization
b. infection

Answer 31

a. colonization (no signs or sx of infection)

Question 32

ex. Isolate of Pseudomonas aeruginosa from a sputum culture in a patient with a chronic tracheostomy but no couch, fever, leukocytosis, or infiltrate on chest X-ray

a. colonization
b. infection

Answer 32

a. colonization

Question 33

ex. Isolation of Streptococcus pneumoniae in the sputum of a patient with fever, leukocytosis, shortness of breath, cough, increased sputum production, and evidence of consolidation on chest X-ray

a. colonization
b. infection

Answer 33

b. infection

Question 34

identification of pathogens via cultures: Retrieve cultures from body and send to micro lab

a. minutes to hours
b. 24-48+ hours
c. 48-72+ hours

Answer 34

a. minutes to hours

Question 35

identification of pathogens via cultures: Plate the organism, await growth, Gram-stain growing organisms

a. minutes to hours
b. 24-48+ hours
c. 48-72+ hours

Answer 35

b. 24-48+ hours

Question 36

identification of pathogens via cultures: identification and susceptibility testing

a. minutes to hours
b. 24-48+ hours
c. 48-72+ hours

Answer 36

c. 48-72+ hours

Question 37

Lowest antimicrobial concentration that prevents visible growth

Answer 37

MIC (minimum inhibitory conc)

Question 38

gold standard for MIC testing

Answer 38

broth dilution