Exam 5 - HIV/AIDs Kleyn (ChatGPT made first 54 cards) Flashcards
Which of the following is the primary target cell of HIV?
A. B lymphocyte
B. CD4 T helper/inducer lymphocyte
C. Platelet
D. Red blood cell
B. CD4 T helper/inducer lymphocyte
What type of cells does HIV preferentially bind to?
A. B cells
B. Red blood cells
C. Neurons
D. CD4 T cells
D. CD4 T cells
Which of the following is a route of transmission of HIV?
A. Casual contact
B. Sharing utensils
C. Exposure to infected body fluids
D. Sneezing/coughing
C. Exposure to infected body fluids
Which of the following is used to assess a patient’s overall immunocompetence?
A. HIV RNA (viral load)
B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
C. p24 antigen
D. IgG antibodies
B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
During which stage of HIV infection are viral loads typically the highest?
A. Chronic HIV infection
B. AIDS
C. Acute Retroviral Syndrome
D. Latent infection
C. Acute Retroviral Syndrome
What is the usual range of CD4 cells/mm3 in a patient at baseline?
A. 100-300 cells/mm3
B. 400-600 cells/mm3
C. 600-1000 cells/mm3
D. 800-1500 cells/mm3
D. 800-1500 cells/mm3
Which of the following is a way HIV can be transmitted?
A. Sharing food
B. Infected body fluids
C. Insects
D. Closed-mouth kissing
B. Infected body fluids
What is the first laboratory marker detectable after HIV infection?
A. IgG antibodies
B. p24 antigen
C. HIV RNA
D. IgM antibodies
C. HIV RNA
What type of sample is used for the OraQuick In-Home HIV test?
A. Blood
B. Saliva
C. Urine
D. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Saliva
In the recommended laboratory HIV testing algorithm, how is an HIV diagnosis confirmed?
A. Positive result from a rapid test
B. Positive result from an antibody test
C. Positive result from a multi-test algorithm
D. Positive result from p24 antigen test
C. Positive result from a multi-test algorithm
Which of the following is a surrogate marker used to assess a patient’s immunocompetence?
A. HIV RNA (viral load)
B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
C. p24 antigen
D. HIV DNA
B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
Which surrogate marker is most useful for assessing the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy after its initiation?
A. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
B. p24 antigen
C. HIV RNA (viral load)
D. Antibody levels
C. HIV RNA (viral load)
A decrease in which surrogate marker is a strong indicator that ART is working?
A. CD4%
B. HIV RNA (viral load)
C. p24 antigen
D. White blood cell count
B. HIV RNA (viral load)
What is the CD4 count threshold that defines AIDS?
A. <500 cells/mm3
B. <300 cells/mm3
C. <200 cells/mm3
D. <100 cells/mm3
C. <200 cells/mm3
HIV infection is classified as stage 3 (AIDS) when:
A. The patient is asymptomatic
B. The patient’s CD4 count is >500
C. An AIDS-defining opportunistic infection is diagnosed
D. The patient has a high viral load
C. An AIDS-defining opportunistic infection is diagnosed
Which antiretroviral drug class prevents HIV from entering the host cell by binding to the CD4 T-cell co-receptor?
A. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
B. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C. Chemokine Coreceptor 5 (CCR5) Antagonist
D. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
C. Chemokine Coreceptor 5 (CCR5) Antagonist
Which antiretroviral drug class inhibits the HIV integrase enzyme, preventing proviral DNA integration?
A. Fusion Inhibitor
B. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
C. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
D. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
B. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
Which antiretroviral drug class interferes with the action of the viral protease enzyme?
A. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)
B. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
D. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
C. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
What is the typical adult dose of dolutegravir when used in combination with other antiretrovirals?
A. 200 mg once daily
B. 300 mg once daily
C. 50 mg once daily
D. 400 mg twice daily
C. 50 mg once daily (note)
The handout implies dolutegravir is administered at what frequency?
A. Once daily
B. Twice daily
C. Three times daily
D. Four times daily
A. Once daily
Which antiretroviral requires specific administration with food to enhance absorption?
A. Efavirenz
B. Rilpivirine
C. Atazanavir
D. Elvitegravir
B. Rilpivirine
Which drug has specific requirements for separating administration from antacids?
A. Neviripine
B. Etravirine
C. Rilpivirine
D. Elvitegravir
C. Rilpivirine
Which of the following is a common class effect of NRTIs?
A. Rash
B. GI intolerance
C. Mitochondrial toxicity
D. Weight gain
C. Mitochondrial toxicity
Which antiretroviral is administered via IV infusion?
A. Cabotegravir
B. Ibalizumab
C. Lenacapavir
D. Atazanavir
B. Ibalizumab
Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Protease Inhibitors (PIs)?
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Rash
C. Insulin resistance
D. Anemia
C. Insulin resistance
Which antiretroviral drug class is commonly associated with weight gain?
A. NNRTIs
B. PIs
C. INSTIs
D. NRTIs
C. INSTIs
What is the recommendation for managing drug interactions between antiretrovirals and antacids?
A. Administer antacids at the same time as antiretrovirals.
B. Separate antacid administration from integrase inhibitors by 6 hours.
C. No separation is required.
D. Increase the dose of the antiretroviral.
B. Separate antacid administration from integrase inhibitors by 6 hours.
Which benzodiazepines are preferred when used with protease inhibitors and cobicistat?
A. Alprazolam
B. Diazepam
C. Lorazepam
D. Clonazepam
C. Lorazepam
What is the recommendation for managing potential drug interactions between dolutegravir and biguanides?
A. Increase the dose of the biguanide.
B. Decrease the dose of the biguanide.
C. Administer them 2 hours apart.
D. There is no clinically significant interaction.
B. Decrease the dose of the biguanide.
Which antiretroviral class commonly requires dosage adjustment in patients with renal insufficiency?
A. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
B. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)
D. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
C. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)
Which NRTI does NOT require dosage adjustment in renal insufficiency?
A. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)
B. Zidovudine
C. Lamivudine
D. Emtricitabine
B. Zidovudine
Why do most NRTIs require renal dose adjustment?
A. They are primarily metabolized by the liver.
B. They can accumulate and increase the risk of side effects.
C. They directly damage the kidneys.
D. Renal impairment increases their effectiveness.
B. They can accumulate and increase the risk of side effects.
What specific lab test is required before starting abacavir?
A. Renal function tests
B. HLA-B*5701 genotype
C. Liver function tests
D. CD4 count
B. HLA-B*5701 genotype
What is the purpose of testing for the HLA-B*5701 genotype before administering abacavir?
A. To predict the drug’s effectiveness.
B. To assess the risk of liver toxicity.
C. To identify patients at risk for a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction.
D. To monitor kidney function.
C. To identify patients at risk for a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction.
What test must be performed before initiating maraviroc?
A. HLA-B*5701 genotype
B. Renal function tests
C. HIV tropism assay
D. Liver function tests
C. HIV tropism assay
The federally approved HIV/AIDS medical practice guidelines can be found at which website?
A. www.cdc.gov
B. www.who.int
C. http://clinicalinfo.hiv.gov
D. www.nih.gov
C. http://clinicalinfo.hiv.gov
How frequently are the HIV/AIDS medical practice guidelines typically updated?
A. Annually
B. Every 5 years
C. Every 6-9 months
D. Every 2 years
C. Every 6-9 months
What type of information can be found on the clinicalinfo.hiv.gov website?
A. Information on global HIV/AIDS statistics
B. Antiretroviral drug information and treatment guidelines
C. Information on HIV basic science research
D. Patient support group listings
B. Antiretroviral drug information and treatment guidelines
What is the primary goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART)?
A. To cure HIV infection
B. To eliminate all traces of the virus from the body
C. To maximally and durably suppress plasma HIV RNA
D. To prevent the development of drug resistance
C. To maximally and durably suppress plasma HIV RNA
Which of the following is a general principle of ART?
A. Monotherapy is preferred to minimize side effects.
B. Treatment interruptions are beneficial for long-term management.
C. Eradication of HIV is achievable with current treatments.
D. ART should be continued indefinitely (lifelong).
D. ART should be continued indefinitely (lifelong).
What is a key benefit of effective antiretroviral therapy?
A. Reduced risk of HIV transmission
B. Increased viral replication
C. Shortened lifespan
D. Increased inflammation
A. Reduced risk of HIV transmission
When is ART recommended for individuals with HIV?
A. Only when the CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mm3
B. Only when the patient develops AIDS-defining conditions
C. Only during pregnancy
D. For all individuals with HIV, regardless of CD4 count
D. For all individuals with HIV, regardless of CD4 count
In which situation is immediate initiation of ART particularly important?
A. In patients with a high CD4 count
B. In patients with acute or recent HIV infection
C. In patients who are asymptomatic
D. In patients with well-controlled HIV
B. In patients with acute or recent HIV infection
Why is early initiation of ART recommended?
A. It increases the risk of drug resistance.
B. It is less expensive than delayed treatment.
C. It has no impact on long-term outcomes.
D. It delays the progression of HIV and reduces transmission risk.
D. It delays the progression of HIV and reduces transmission risk.
A recommended first-line antiretroviral regimen for most treatment-naïve patients consists of:
A. Monotherapy with an NNRTI
B. Dual therapy with two PIs
C. Two NRTIs in combination with a third active ARV from one of three drug classes
D. An INSTI plus a PI
C. Two NRTIs in combination with a third active ARV from one of three drug classes
Which of the following is a commonly used NRTI backbone in a first-line ART regimen?
A. Abacavir + lamivudine
B. Dolutegravir + lamivudine
C. Efavirenz + tenofovir
D. Ritonavir + darunavir
A. Abacavir + lamivudine
Which antiretroviral class generally has a higher genetic barrier to resistance?
A. NNRTIs
B. Boosted-PIs
C. NRTIs
D. INSTIs
B. Boosted-PIs
What does “genetic barrier to resistance” refer to?
A. The likelihood of developing side effects
B. The number of mutations required for the virus to become resistant to a drug
C. The cost of the medication
D. The patient’s adherence to the medication
B. The number of mutations required for the virus to become resistant to a drug
What is a clinical implication of NNRTIs having a lower genetic barrier to resistance compared to boosted-PIs?
A. NNRTIs are less likely to cause drug interactions.
B. NNRTIs are more forgiving with missed doses.
C. NNRTIs are more likely to lead to resistance with poor adherence.
D. NNRTIs are preferred in patients with multi-drug resistant HIV.
C. NNRTIs are more likely to lead to resistance with poor adherence.
What is the recommended duration of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
D. 28 days
When should PEP be initiated for it to be most effective?
A. Within 72 hours of exposure
B. Within 7 days of exposure
C. 1 week after exposure
D. 2 weeks after exposure
A. Within 72 hours of exposure
What is the primary goal of pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)?
A. To treat existing HIV infection
B. To prevent HIV infection in high-risk individuals
C. To cure AIDS
D. To reduce the side effects of ART
B. To prevent HIV infection in high-risk individuals
Which medication is commonly used for PrEP?
A. Dolutegravir
B. Efavirenz
C. Emtricitabine/tenofovir
D. Ritonavir
C. Emtricitabine/tenofovir
What is an important monitoring parameter for individuals taking PrEP?
A. Regular HIV testing
B. CD4 count monitoring
C. Viral load monitoring
D. Liver enzyme monitoring
A. Regular HIV testing
as a general rule, combination ART consists of ___ to ___ active agents from at least ___ classes
2 to 3; 2 classes
which glycoprotein binds to CD4 receptors cells in HIV?
gp120
What happens to CD4 cells after they are infected by HIV?
a. they become resistant to viral replication
b. they are destroyed by a cytolytic effect after being used for viral replication
c. they produced antibodies against HIV
d. they undergo uncontrolled division
b. they are destroyed by a cytolytic effect after being used for viral replication
During which stage of the HIV lifecycle is viral RNA converted into DNA?
a. binding
b. reverse transcription
c. assembly
d. budding
b. reverse transcription
