Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHRM 865 Therapeutics > Lec 6 Clindamycin/Tetracyclines/Chloramphenicol/Quinolones Cushman > Flashcards

Lec 6 Clindamycin/Tetracyclines/Chloramphenicol/Quinolones Cushman Flashcards

1
Q

clindamycin MOA

A

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial 50S ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

clindamycin is most effective against (2 things)

A

1) Aerobic Gram-(+) cocci, including some members of the Staphylococcus and Streptococcus genera.
2) Anaerobic Gram-(–) bacilli, including some members of the Bacteroides and Fusobacterium genera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clindamycin may be used systemically to treat bone infections with _______ _______ (bacteria), or topically to treat severe acne

A

staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clindamycin is administered IV with _______ and _______ to treat AIDS patients with _______ caused by Toxoplasma gondii.

A

pyrimethamine
leucovorin
encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

potentially lethal condition commonly assoc with clindamcyin (2-10% of pts)

A

pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tx for pseudomembranous colitis assoc with clindamycin (2)

A

metronidazole or vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic that was found in ____ of Egyptians and Nubians

A

beer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tetracyclines form stable chelates with polyvalent metal ions such as (4 of them listed)

A

Ca, Al, Cu, Mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tetracycline should not be given with what two things (2 examples)

A

high calcium (milk)
heavy metals (TUMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When concomitant therapy with tetracyclines and multivalent metals cannot be avoided, the metals should be administered ___-___ hours after the tetracycline.

A

1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why should children not be given tetracyclines?

A

teeth discoloration due to chelating calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tetracyclines should be avoided after the ___ month of pregnancy in order to avoid undesirable effects on fetal bones and teeth

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tetracyclines undergo ___ ___ ___ at pH values of 8.5 or above. The _______ product in inactive.

A

cleavage in base; lactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tetracyclines MOA (2 things)

A

-binds to 30S ribosome subunit, blocks attachement of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site of ribosome
-inhibitors of codon-anticodon interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tetracyclines most common use

a. gynecomastia
b. acne
c. fever
d. vertigo

A

b. acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tetracyclines remain the treatment of choice for infections caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. chlamydia
b. Rickettsia
c. brucellosis
d. salmonella
e. spirochetal infections

A

d. salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tetracycline is produced by fermentation of _______ _______

A

streptomyces aureofaciens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tetracycline C-6

a. secondary hydroxyl
b. tertiary hydroxyl
c. no hydroxyl

A

b. tertiary hydroxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

demeclocycline C-6

a. secondary hydroxyl
b. tertiary hydroxyl
c. no hydroxyl

A

a. secondary hydroxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T or F: tetracycline and demeclocycline absorption is lowered with food and milk

A

T (take without)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

minocycline, doxycycline, tigecycline C-6

a. secondary hydroxyl
b. tertiary hydroxyl
c. no hydroxyl

A

c. no hydroxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the significance of the secondary hydroxyl on demeclocycline?

A

it dehydrates more slowly than tetracycline bc the secondary cation intermed formed is less stable (higher nrg) than the tertiary cation intermed formed from tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which drug has vestibular toxicities such as vertigo, ataxia, and nausea?

a. tetracycline
b. demeclocycline
c. minocycline
d. doxycycline
e. tigecycline
f. sarecycline

A

c. minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

half-life of 18-22 hours permits once a day dosing

a. tetracycline
b. demeclocycline
c. minocycline
d. doxycycline
e. tigecycline
f. sarecycline

A

d. doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the significance of the tetracyclines lacking a C-6 hydroxyl?

A

therefore does not undergo acid-catalyzed dehydration, therefore has no potential for 4-epi…mediated toxicity

26
Q

T or F: tigecycline is active against gram-positive only

A

F (both pos and neg)

27
Q

T or F: tigecycline is available PO and IV

A

F (IV only)

28
Q

protected from resistance development due to efflux pump induction and also due to to ribosomal protection proteins

a. tetracycline
b. demeclocycline
c. minocycline
d. doxycycline
e. tigecycline
f. sarecycline

A

e. tigecycline

29
Q

weight adjusted dosing

a. tetracycline
b. demeclocycline
c. minocycline
d. doxycycline
e. tigecycline
f. sarecycline

A

f. sarecycline

30
Q

interaction with penicillin and tetracyclines

A

tetracyclines are bacteriostatic and penicillins work
on dividing bacteria; don’t give together

31
Q

sarecycline use

A

acne

32
Q

T or F: dose inc is recommended for sarecycline with anticoagulants and Pgp substrates (digoxin)

A

F (dec)

33
Q

sarecycline most common SE

A

nausea

34
Q

chloramphenicol MOA: binds reversibly to the ___ ribosomal subunit, inhibits ______ ______ activity of the ribosome and blocks peptide bond formation between the P site and the A site

A

50S; peptidyl transferase

35
Q

which of the following is FALSE about chloramphenicol?

a. prodrug is chloramphenicol sodium succinate
b. lipid soluble
c. relatively bound to plasma proteins
d. does not cross BBB
e. indicated for bacterial meningitis and typhoid fever

A

d. does not cross BBB

36
Q

which is NOT a resistance mechanism for chloramphenicol?

a. reduced membrane permeability
b. mutation of the 50S ribosomal subunit
c. increased efflux pumps
d. elaboration of chloramphenicol acetyltransferase

A

c. increased efflux pumps

37
Q

-most serious toxicity is aplastic anemia
-bone marrow suppression is common

a. omadacycline
b. chloramphenicol
c. levofloxacin
d. clindamycin

A

b. chloramphenicol

38
Q

inc risk of childhood leukemia

a. tetracycline
b. chloramphenicol
c. levofloxacin
d. clindamycin

A

b. chloramphenicol

39
Q

first gen quinolones have activity against gram _____ bacteria

A

negative

40
Q

second gen quinolones have a _______ substituent at C-6 and a heterocyclic ring (usually ________) at C-7

A

fluorine
piperazine

41
Q

_________ is the most potent fluoroquinolone showing MIC = 0.01 to 1 µg/mL for Gram-(–) organisms

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. oxolinic acid

A

a. ciprofloxacin

42
Q

T or F: second gen quinolones have less activity against gram positive organisms and mycoplasma compared to first gen

A

F (extended activity)

43
Q

two discontinued first gen quinolones

A

oxolinic acid
nalidixic acid

44
Q

“drug of last resort” due to severe SE

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

c. moxifloxacin

45
Q

third gen

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

b. levofloxacin

46
Q

second gen

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

a. ciprofloxacin

47
Q

fourth gen

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

c. moxifloxacin

48
Q

used topically to treat impetigo due to staph aureus or strep pyogenes

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

d. ozenoxacin

49
Q

oral or IV use for tx of skin infections

a. moxifloxacin
b. ozenoxacin
c. delafloxacin

A

c. delafloxacin

50
Q

DNA _______ is blocked by the quinolones

a. folding
b. religation
c. cleavage
d. binding

A

b. religation

51
Q

increasing resistance to quinolones has led to which drug being first line for neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a. cefipime
b. cefdinir
c. ceftriaxone
d. cephalexin

A

c. ceftriaxone

52
Q

effective against chlamydia trachomatis

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

b. levofloxacin

53
Q

__________ as a sole therapy is effective in 50% of diabetic foot infections.

A

ciprofloxacin

54
Q

effective against haemophilus ducreyi

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin

A

a. ciprofloxacin

55
Q

resistance to fluroquinolones (3 things)

A
  1. decreased cellular permeability
  2. efflux pumps
  3. point mutations of enzymes
56
Q

fluoroquinolone resistance: which is more common, point mutations in the A or B subunit of the DNA gyrase?

A

A

57
Q

T or F: if you are resistant to one fluoroquinolone, you can switch to another of the same class

A

F (cross resistance, but not with other classes of antibiotics)

58
Q

T or F: fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines should NOT be given with foods and drugs containing heavy metals

A

T

59
Q

__________ has been associated with hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia in diabetic patients

a. ciprofloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ozenoxacin
e. gatifloxacin

A

e. gatifloxacin

60
Q

T or F: tetracyclines can cause damage growing cartilage and cause tendon rupture

A

F (fluoroquinolones)

61
Q

can be used to treat pseudomonal infections with children with cystic fibrosis

a. clindamycin
b. tetracyclines
c. chloramphenicol
d. fluoroquinolones

A

d. fluoroquinolones

PHRM 865 Therapeutics (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions