Exam 3 review questionss Flashcards

1
Q

marine viruses play an important role in what cycle

A

the carbon cycle

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2
Q

what do all viruses contain

A

a capsid and a genome

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3
Q

viroids are _____ agents that affect _____

A

RNA; plants

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4
Q

the baltimore system classifies viruses based predominantly on what feature

A

their means of RNA synthesis

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5
Q

but for a few exceptions, when a bacterial cell is infected by a bacteriophage, the viral capsid…..

A

remains on the outside of the host cell

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6
Q

some bacterial viruses can insert their genome into the chromosome of the host cell. what is the integrated genome called

A

prophage

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7
Q

the primary factor determining the life cycle of an animal virus is the form of its____

A

gemone

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8
Q

in contrast to animal viruses and bacteriophages, plant viruses infect cells by mechanisms that do not involve specific

A

receptors

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9
Q

the period of time when virions are virtually undetectable inside the infected cell is called what

A

the eclipse period

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10
Q

bacteriopage lambda binds to the ____ that is embedded in the outer membrane of E. coli.

A

the maltose porin

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11
Q

the genome of influenza virus consists of ____

A

negative strand segmented RNA

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12
Q

flu pandemics are associated with reassortment of which viral genes

A

hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

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13
Q

what are the characteristics of HIV

A
  • it is an enveloped virus
  • it uses reverse transcriptase
  • it attaches to coreceptors
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14
Q

which virus has been used successfully in gene therapy

A

lentiviruses

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15
Q

what process is sensitive to extracellular DNases?

A

transformation

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16
Q

gene transfer from one bacterium to another by means of a bacteriophage is called _____, whereas _____ involves the transfer of DNA following cell-to cell contact

A

transduction; conjugation

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17
Q

pyrimidine dimers are caused by

A

UV light

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18
Q

error-proof repair pathways include:

A

-base excision repair
-photoreactivation
-nucleotide excision repair

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19
Q

the simplest transposable elements are

A

insertion sequences

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20
Q

phase variation of flagellar proteins in the salmonella enterica involves

A

DNA rearrangments

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21
Q

what is the phenotype of an E. coli strain with a mutation in the lac operator that prevents the lac repressor from binding? assume glucose is absent

A

transcription of the lac operon is very high

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22
Q

transcription initiation of the lac operon is enhanced when ______ interacts with RNA polymerase

A

cAMP receptor protein

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23
Q

attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control the transcription of operons that code for

A

amino acid biosynthesis

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24
Q

what processes are used to control sigma factors

A

-proteolysis
-anti-sigma factors
- anti-anti-sigma factors

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25
Q

the lac operon, RNA polymerase binds to the _______ which is_______ the structural genes

A

promoter; upstream

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26
Q

some repressible operons are also regulated by attenuation. what is true regarding attenuation

A

-occurs after translation has started
-involves synthesis of a leader peptide
-loops form in the mRNA

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27
Q

a mutation to resistance to two antibiotics might occur at the rate of

A

10E-16

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28
Q

____ bind(s) to the target sequence in a PCR reaction

A

primiers

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29
Q

how does RNA- polymerase make mRNA

A

from DNA template

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30
Q

how does DNA polymerase make a molecule of DNA

A

from a DNA template

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31
Q

what does transposase do

A

insert DNA segments into DNA

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32
Q

true or false: a virion may or may not have an envelope

A

true

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33
Q

true or false: the Baltimore virus classification is based on how a virus makes dsRNA

A

true

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34
Q

true or false: a lysogenic bacterium can initiate the lytic cycle

A

true

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35
Q

true or false: a phage plaque is a zone of lysis

A

true

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36
Q

true or false: in bacterial replication, DnaA-ATP recognizes multiple sites on the bacterial chromosome

A

false

37
Q

true or false: some bacterial DNA ligases use NQAD while some use ATP

A

false DNA ligases use NAD

38
Q

true or false: ParM filaments segregate plasmids

A

true

39
Q

true or false: the influenza receptor is a sialic acid glycoprotein

A

true

40
Q

true or false: the influenza virus does not need a “cap”

A

false it steals cap from host mRNA

41
Q

true or false: if a riboswitch ligan sequesters a ribosome binding site, transcription is prevented

A

false translation is prevented

42
Q

true or false: ppGpp synthesis results in rRNA and tRNA synthesis

A

false

43
Q
  1. Gram-negative microbes are surrounded by two layers of __________, between which lies
    __________.
A

membrane; periplasmic space and peptidoglycan

44
Q
  1. In order to transfer, an F factor must have which of the following?
A

oriT and tra genes

45
Q
  1. Interrupted mating involves breaking __________ bridges using a blender.
A

conjugation

46
Q
  1. A derivative F plasmid that contains host DNA is called an:
A

F’ plasmid

47
Q
  1. Agrobacterium can transfer DNA to __________ using its __________.
A

plants; Ti plasmid

48
Q
  1. The transfer of F factor in E. coli from one donor cell to a __________ cell results in two
    __________ cells.
A

recipient; donor

49
Q
  1. The difference between generalized and specialized transduction is
A

that in generalized transduction, any DNA can be moved, but with specialized
transduction, only certain DNA near the phage site can be moved

50
Q
  1. Bacteria have developed a “Halt! Who goes there?” approach to gene exchange to prevent
    unrestricted incorporation of DNA into the cell. It is called __________ and __________.
A

restriction; modification

51
Q
  1. Large regions of sequence homology are required when recombining DNA molecules by
    __________ recombination.
A

general

52
Q
  1. Ames used his reversion test with Salmonella to screen compounds for:
A

mutagenicity

53
Q
  1. Which of the following forms of DNA repair is error-prone?
    a. base excision d. nucleotide excision b. methyl mismatch e. photoreactivation
    c. SOS repair
A

C

54
Q
  1. A(n) __________ phage may integrate its genome into that of the host cell.
A

temperate

55
Q
  1. .A spacer is a(n):
A

piece of phage DNA

56
Q
  1. What happens to the virus protein coat when a bacterial cell is infected?
A

It remains on the outside of the host cell.

57
Q
  1. When __________ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation
    of the lac operon.
A

cAMP receptor protein

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is the favored carbon source of Escherichia coli?
A

glucose

59
Q
  1. What occurs when an inducer is added to a medium containing an organism with a metabolic
    pathway controlled by a repressor?
A

The inducer combines with the repressor and inactivates the repressor.

60
Q
  1. Transcriptional attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control many operons that code
    for what?
A

amino acid biosynthesis

61
Q
  1. You might say that the role of a leader sequence is to: (read carefully)
A

determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon

62
Q
  1. __________ RNAs bind to complementary sequences of target transcripts and may act to
    prevent translation and other effects.
A

Antisense

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is a second messenger that helps to regulate biofilm
    production.
A

cdiGMP

64
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
    A) DNA polymerase — makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
    B) RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template
    C) DNA ligase — joins segments of DNA
    D) transposase — insertion of DNA segments into DNA
    E) DNA gyrase — coils and twists DNA
A

B

65
Q
  1. Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order?
    1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands;
    2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis;
    3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization.
    A) 1, 2, 3
    B) 3, 2, 1
    C) 1, 3, 2
    D) 2; 1; 3
    E) 3; 1; 2
A

C

66
Q
  1. what is pBR322
A

a plasmid vector

67
Q
  1. taq dna polymerase is
A

heat stable

68
Q
  1. primers are how many base pairs
A

20 base pairs

69
Q
  1. EcoR1 is a
A

restriction enzyme

70
Q
  1. what is used to make cDNA
A

reverse transcriptase

71
Q
  1. what covalently closes the plasmid vector after cutting and insertion of the “foreign” gene.
A

DNA ligase

72
Q
  1. The Ames test utilizes bacterial strains of what genus?______________
A

Salmonella

73
Q

50-51. Mutagenicity is rated based upon the number of

A

reversions to the prototroph

74
Q
  1. The Ames test strains are deficient in ______________repair
A

DNA

75
Q
  1. The Ames test strains are _________________auxotrophs.
A

Histidine

76
Q

54-55. In Figure (above), which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine- Requiring?
In Table (above), what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2?

A

1) 4 and 8
2) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leu+, his+

77
Q
  1. originate MAR plasmids _________
A

Transposition

78
Q
  1. Electroporation_________
A

transformation (natural or artificial)

79
Q
  1. Hfr (donor) ___________
A

Conjugation

80
Q
  1. spread of MAR plasmids __________
A

Conjugation

81
Q
  1. lysogeny __________
A

transduction

82
Q
  1. Calcium heat-shock _________
A

transformation (natural or artificial)

83
Q
  1. sex pilus _________
A

Conjugation

84
Q
  1. generalized or specialized ___________
A

transduction

85
Q
  1. cell-free DNA ___________
A

transformation (natural or artificial)

86
Q
  1. In the figure above, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and on then plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will
A

form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.

87
Q
  1. true or false Bacteria are protected from their own restriction certain bases in the target sequence.
A

true

88
Q
  1. “rho” is a …….
A

bacterial transcription terminator protein