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000 Radiobiology > Exam 3 Radiobiology > Flashcards

Exam 3 Radiobiology Flashcards

1
Q

*What is the term for the proportional amount of time during which the x-ray beam is on and directed toward a particular protective barrier.

A. occupancy factor

B. workload factor

C. distance factor

D. Use factor

A

D. use factor

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2
Q

*Patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is most often reported in _____. a. bone marrow dose b. gonadal dose c. entrance skin exposure d. none of the above

A

c. entrance skin exposure

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3
Q

If the radiographic technique for a KUB calls for 40 mAs, what is the ESE when the output intensity is 0.075 mGy/mAs? a. 0.40 mGy b. 0.475 mGy c. 3 mGy d. 30 mGy

A

c. 3 mGy

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4
Q

For the average fluoroscopy exam the ESE is a. 40 mGy/min b. 80 mGy/min c. 400 mGy/hr d. 250 mGy/hr

A

a. 40 mGy/min

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5
Q

The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the _____. a. film badge b. G-M meter c. nomogram d. thermoluminescent dosimeter

A

d. thermoluminescent dosimeter

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6
Q

*The approximate average bone marrow dose to the population of the United States is _____ mGy/yr. a. 0.01 b. 0.1 c. 1 d. 10

A

c. 1

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7
Q

The genetically significant dose for the general public is important because of the risk of _____. a. increasing skin cancer b. effects on the gene pool c. damage to the fetus d. all of the above

A

b. effects on the gene pool

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8
Q

CT is considered a low-dose procedure. a. True b. False

A

false

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9
Q

The period of major organogenesis is during the _____ of pregnancy. a. first 2 weeks b. second to tenth week c. 2nd trimester d. 3rd trimester

A

b. second to tenth week

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10
Q

Patient dose can be reduced by using _____. I. faster screens II. higher kVp III. increased distance a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III

A

c. I & II

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11
Q

Breast dose from a scoliosis exam can be reduced by using the _____. I. AP projection II. PA projection III. lead shielding a. I b. II c. I & III d. II & III

A

d. II & III

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12
Q

The dose in CT is lower if the multislice number is higher. a. True b. False

A

a. True

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13
Q

Which of the following instruments is called a cutie pie? A. Geiger Muller detector B. Ionization chamber type survey meter C. Optically stimulated luminescence meter D. Proportional counter

A

B. Ionization chamber type survey meter

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14
Q

What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration A. to decrease beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial areas B. To increase beam hardness, thereby reducing the radiation received by the patients and the dose to superficial areas

A

B. To increase beam hardness, thereby reducing the radiation received by the patients and the dose to superficial areas

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15
Q

The maximum weekly permitted dose for a controlled area must bot exceed: A. 1000 microsievert (100mrem) B. 100 microsievert (10mrem) C. 20 microsievert D. 2 microsivert

A

A. 1000 microsievert (100mrem)

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16
Q

Exposure rate is 10R/ minute at 40 inches, what will be the rate at 20 inches? A. 20 R/ minute B. 40 R/ minute C. 60 R/ minute D. 80 R/minuste

A

B. 40 R/ minute

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17
Q

*The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than _____% from each other. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

A

a. 5

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18
Q

*Measuring the relationship between the output intensities of adjacent mA stations is a test of _____. a. HVL b. beam limitation c. reproducibility d. linearity

A

d. linearity

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19
Q

*The source-to-skin distance must be no less than _____ cm on stationary fluoroscopes. a. 30 b. 38 c. 42 d. 48

A

b. 38

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20
Q

*The _____ is the primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube. a. ceiling b. floor c. image intensifier d. table top

A

c. image intensifier

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21
Q

A fluoroscopy system with automatic collimation must provide an unexposed border around the image at _____ above the table top. a. all heights b. 35 cm c. 25 cm d. 18 cm

A

a. all heights

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22
Q

*The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a(n) _____ type. a. rheostat b. automatic c. deadman d. on-off

A

c. deadman

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23
Q

*The bucky slot opening in the side of the table must be automatically covered with _____ mm Pb during fluoroscopy. a. 1.25 b. 1.0 c. 0.5 d. 0.25

A

d. 0.25

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24
Q

*A cumulative timer is designed to _____ of fluoroscopy beam-on time. a. make the radiologist aware b. turn off the radiation every 5 minutes c. prevent more than 10 minutes d. shut down the system after 15 minutes

A

a. make the radiologist aware

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25
Q

*A controlled area is one occupied primarily by _____. a. radiology personnel b. patients c. the general public d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

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26
Q

For exposure to 1 rad of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest dose to the individual? A. external source of 1 Mev x-rays B. external source of diagnostic x-rays C. internal source of alpha particles D. external source of beta particle

A

C. internal source of alpha particles

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27
Q

Biologic material is lest radiosentive to irradiation under which of the following condition? A. Anoxic B. Hypoxic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

A

A. Anoxic

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28
Q

How far must a radiographer stand back during a mobile radiographic exposure? a. 1 meter b. 2 meters c. 3 meters d. 4 meters

A

b. 2 meters

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29
Q

A quantity that reflects both dose and volume of tissue irradiated is the___ A. estimated skin exposure B. dose area product C. proportional region D. Rem

A

B. dose area product

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30
Q

Exposure is measured by multiplying _____ by _____. a. shielding thickness, exposure time b. exposure rate, exposure time c. exposure rate, shielding thickness d. exposure time, distance

A

b. exposure rate, exposure time

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31
Q

If a technologist is exposed to 4 mGyt/hr for 45 minutes during a fluoroscopy exam, what will be her total exposure? a. 1 mGyt b. 2 mGyt c. 3 mGyt d. 4 mGyt

A

c. 3 mGyt

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32
Q

When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy, the patient should be considered a(n) _____ source of radiation. a. Area b. Linear c. Round d. Point

A

d. Point

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33
Q

If a technologist is receiving 2 mGyt/hr standing 1 foot from the patient during fluoroscopy, what is his rate of exposure when he steps back to a distance of 2 feet from the patient? a. 0.50 mGyt/hr b. 0.74 mGyt/hr c. 1 mGyt/hr d. 1.75 mGyt/hr

A

a. 0.50 mGyt/hr

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34
Q

A tenth-value layer is equal to _____ half-value layers. a. 1.2 b. 3.3 c. 5.5 d. 10.0

A

b. 3.3

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35
Q

If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb, then how thick should a shield be to reduce the technologists’ exposure to one fourth the incident scatter? a. 0.125 mm Pb b. 0.25 mm Pb c. 0.5 mm Pb d. 1.0 mm Pb

A

c. 0.5 mm Pb

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36
Q

Dose limits are based on a _____ dose-response relationship to radiation. a. nonlinear, nonthreshold b. linear, nonthreshold c. linear, threshold d. nonlinear, threshold

A

b. linear, nonthreshold

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37
Q

A secondary barrier is designed to absorb___ radiation A. leakage B. scattered C. primary D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

38
Q

What is the minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp? a. 1.5 mm Al equivalent b. 2.0 mm Al equivalent c. 2.5 mm Al equivalent d. 3.5 mm Al equivalent

A

c. 2.5 mm Al equivalent

39
Q

The intensity of scatter radiation 1 meter from the patient is approximately _____ of the intensity of the incident beam at the patient. a. 0.01% b. 0.1% c. 10% d. 50%

A

b. 0.1%

40
Q

Radiation interaction with macromolecules can result in disruption of a single chemical bond producing___

A. main chain scission

B. cross linking

C. point lessions

D. macromolecular synthesis

A

C. point lessions

41
Q
A
42
Q

An uncharge molecule that contains a sinlge unpaired to the outer shell is known as:

A. point mutation

B. radiolysis

C. cross linking

D. free radical

A

D. free radical

43
Q

The principle effect of radiation on human is from___

a. indirect

B. direct

A

a. indirect

44
Q

During the crosslinking the viscosity of the molecular solution is:

A. increased

B. decrease

C. no change

A

A. increased

45
Q

Which of the folowing particles is consiered to be a form of antimatter?

A. electron

B. positron

C. x-ray photon

D. scatter x-ray photon

A

B. positron

46
Q

which of the following interactions results in the conversion of matter

A. classical scattering

B. photoelectric

C. modified scattering

A

B. photoelectric

47
Q

Which of the following is a measure of the rate of energy loss along an ionizing particle?

a. scintillation scatter
b. linear energy transfer

C. ionization

A

b. linear energy transfer

48
Q

Which of the following would posses the highest LET?

A. Alpha

B. Beta

C. Gamma

D. x-rays

A

A. Alpha

49
Q

Which of the following types would be the least radiosensitive?

A. bone marrow

B. skin

C. kidney

D. muscle

A

D. muscle

50
Q

The ___ are the most radiosensitive

a. thrombocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. granulocytes
d. neurocytes

A

b. lymphocytes

51
Q

A tungsten atom posses a K shel binding energy of 69.5 kev and a L shell of 12.1 kev. During characteristic x-ray production, a transition of the L shell electron to a vacated K shell would result in production of a characteristic x-ray an energy of:

A. 81.6 kev

B. 69.5 kev

C. 57.4 kev

D. 12.1 kev

A

C. 57.4 kev

52
Q

Which of the following are the by products of photoelectric absorption?

  1. photoelectron
  2. characteristic x-ray
  3. ionized atom

A. 1 and 2

B. 1&3

C. 1,2,3

A

C. 1,2,3

53
Q

Which of the following are not common in diagnostic radiography?

a. coherent
b. photoelectric

C. pair production

d. photodisinteragtion
e. Both c and d

A

e. Both c and d

54
Q

In which of the following interactions the incoming photons do not transfer energy surrounding atoms?

a. coherent
b. photoelectric
c. pair production

A

a. coherent

55
Q

In which of the following the incoming photons interacts with the outer shell and ejects it from its orbit?

a. coherent

b compton

c. photoelectric

A

b compton

56
Q

In which of the following interactions the incoming photon uses all of its energy to eject an electron?

a. compton
b. coherent
c. photoelectric

A

c. photoelectric

57
Q

Which of the following is a wide angle scatter?

a. coherent
b. compton
c. pair production

A

b. compton

58
Q

Most of the back scatter in diagnostic radiography is caused by

A. compton scatter

B. Annihilation

C. coherent

A

A. compton scatter

59
Q

Which of the following interactions causes anti-matter reactions?

a. compton
b. coherent
c. pair production

A

c. pair production

60
Q

To cause an antimatter reaction the incoming photon must posses a minimum energy of

A. 1.02 kev

B. 1.02 mev

C. 0.51 kev

D. 0.51mev

A

B. 1.02 mev

61
Q

Which of the following interactions causes radioactive decay?

A. pair production

B. photodistergration

C. compton

A

B. photodistergration

62
Q

Which of the following interaction is responsible for most of the scatter radiation recieved by radiologic technologist?

A. coherent

B. compton

C. pair production

A

B. compton

63
Q

Proliferation of the genetic cell is known as:

a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. photodisintergration

D

A

b. meiosis

64
Q

Identify the correct order of various stages of cell proliferation as they occur in our body:

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telephase

65
Q

Radiation induced chromosome damage is analyzed during___

a. metaphase
b. anaphase
c. prophase

A

a. metaphase

66
Q

Which of the following act as a communication channels in human cell?

A. erthyroblast

B. osteoblast

C. nerve cells

D. lymphocytes

A

B. osteoblast

67
Q

Which of the following is highly sensitive to radiation?

a. stem cell
b. precursor cell
c. undifferentiated cells
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

68
Q

The LET of diagnostic x-ray is approximately

a. 1.02 mev/micrometer
b. 0.51 mev micrometer
c. 3 kev/ micometer

A

c. 3 kev/ micometer

69
Q

Which of the following causes the least effect to patients?

a. protraction
b. fractionation

A

b. fractionation

70
Q

The ration of the dose of standard radiation necessary to produce a given effect to the dose of test radiation necessary to produce the same effect is known as:

A. LET

B. RBE

C. OER

A

B. RBE

71
Q

OER and LET are

directly proportionate

indirectly proptionate

A

indirectly proptionate

72
Q

Genetic effects are__

a. stochastic

B. nonstochastic

c. deterministic

A

a. stochastic

73
Q

Radiation induced genetic damage follows a

A

linear nonthreshold relationship

74
Q

Radiation induced cancer, leukimia and genetic effects follow a

A

linear nonthreshold relationship

75
Q
A
76
Q

For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during _____ exams.
I. fluoroscopy
II. mobile radiography
III. spinal
IV. dental

a. I & II
b. I & III
c. I & IV
d. III & IV

A

a. I & II

77
Q

Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with _____.

a. collar monitoring only
b. waist monitoring under the apron
c. extremity monitoring
d. gonadal monitoring

A

c. extremity monitoring

78
Q

The lens of the eye should never receive more than _____ per year.

a. 10 mSv (1 rem)
b. 150 mSv (15 rem)
c. 50 mSv (5 rem)
d. 500 mSv (50 rem)

A

b. 150 mSv (15 rem)

79
Q

Dose limits are described as _____.

a. exposure dose
b. threshold dose
c. effective dose
d. dose equivalent

A

c. effective dose

80
Q

Occupational dose is described as _____.

a. exposure dose
b. threshold dose
c. effective dose
d. dose equivalent

A

d. dose equivalent

81
Q

The tissue weighting factor has a higher value for tissues with more _____.

a. density
b. thickness
c. radiosensitivity
d. radioresistance

A

c. radiosensitivity

82
Q

For nursing personnel present during mobile x-ray imaging, a personnel monitoring device is required _____.

a. at all times
b. not at all
c. during exposures
d. only for C-arms

A

b. not at all

83
Q

The dose limit to the extremities is _____.

a. 5000 mSv/yr (500 rem/yr)
b. 500 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr)
c. 50 mSv/yr (5 rem/yr)
d. 5 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr)

A

b. 500 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr)

84
Q

The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during _____.

a. CT
b. mammography
c. fluoroscopy
d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

85
Q

The dose limit to the general public is _____.

a. 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr)
b. 10 mSv/yr (1000 mrem/yr)
c. 100 mSv/yr (10 rem/yr)
d. 1 Sv/yr (100 rem/yr)

A

a. 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr)

86
Q

Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get _____ of the recommended dose limit.

a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 10%

A

d. 10%

87
Q

Optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) monitors are superior to the thermoluminescent dosimeters in that they are _____.

a. lighter weight
b. less sensitive to moisture
c. more sensitive to low exposure
d. both A and B

A

c. more sensitive to low exposure

88
Q

During fluoroscopy the exposure to the collar is _____ times greater than exposure to the trunk of the body under a protective apron.

a. 50
b. 20
c. 10
d. 2

A

b. 20

89
Q

A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

90
Q

The preferred way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a _____.

a. restraining device
b. family member
c. nurse
d. technologist

A

a. restraining device

91
Q

The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is _____.

a. 0.05 mSv/mo (5 mrem/mo).
b. 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo).
c. 5 mSv/mo (500 mrem/mo).
d. 50 mSv/mo (5000 mrem/mo).

A

b. 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo).

000 Radiobiology (52 decks)

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