exam 3 questions Flashcards
a drugs most direct and effective method of delivery to its site of action
- oral administration
- intramuscular injection
- intravenous administration
- aerosol ingestion
intravenous administration
which of the following is not true regarding the abs of drugs?
- dug abs rates may change with age
- morphine may slow the GI motility of a drug
- liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medication
- Crohn’s disease may alter the absorption of some drugs
liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications
True or False
Drugs are susceptible to hepatic metabolism, and this increases the concentration of the drug before it reaches the circulatory system.
false
Which of the following statements is true regarding drug elimination?
- one drug half-life is the time needed for the drug concentration to increase by half
- 5-7 drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration
- most medications are administered as a single dose vs a scheduled basis
- aminoglycoside antibiotics are reabsorbed by the renal tubules
5-7 drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration
The relationship between a drug’s concentration at its target sites and its physiological responses is known as:
- pharmacokinetics
- pharmacogenomics
- pharmacotherapy
- pharmacodynamics
pharmacodynamics
Which of the following is not true concerning therapeutic drug monitoring?
- It ensures correct drug doses for the expected therapeutic range
- It helps to identify non-compliance of the patient
- It identifies drug-drug interactions if multiple drugs are taken simultaneously
- It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients
it establishes a one fit dosing model for all patients
A blood draw to determine a peak level of a drug should be drawn:
- One hour after an orally administered dose
- Immediately after drug administration
- 90 minutes after an orally administered dose
- Immediately before drug administration
- one hour after an orally administered dose
True or False
CYP450 is a gene that influences the effectiveness of a drug in an individual.
true
Which of the following is not true concerning aminoglycosides?
- They are a class of drugs that is administered in the inpatient setting
- Toxic levels can cause hearing impairment
- They are used to treat gram positive and gram negative infections
- Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible
ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible
Pharmacokinetics and drug concentration are influenced by which of the following factors?
- Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
- Absorption, bioavailability, excretion, metabolism
- Biotransformation, distribution, excretion, metabolism
- Adaption, distribution, excretion, metabolism
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
True or False
Only bound fractions of drugs can interact with the site of action and result in a biological response.
false
Tolerance to drugs could be explained as:
- Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response
- Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to an increased response
- 50% of the maximum effect of a drug on the body
Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response
This drug is used to treat arrhythmias and CHF.
- quinidine
- digoxin
- disopyramide
- dilantin
digoxin
This drug may have the adverse effect of “redman syndrome”
- vancomycin
- tobramycin
- amikacin
- gentamicin
vancomycin
This antiepileptic drug requires hepatic markers to be check frequently due to risk of hepatic dysfunction
- carbamazepine
- phenobarbital
- phenytoin
- valproic acid
valproic acid
-carbamazepine: AED, toxicity varies
- phenobaribital: AED, not hepatic toxic
- phenytoin: AED, seizures from hypo/hyper doses
- valporic acid: toxic at upper range of theraputic but can be toxic w/in theraputic range
True or False
Immunosuppressive drugs typically are collected as serum samples.
false
- whole blood specimens
True or False
Common routes of exposure to toxins are through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin.
true
Which specimen type is preferred for analytes demonstrating variation in urinary elimination patterns?
- random specimen
- midstream ‘clean catch’ specimen
- first morning specimen
- 24 hr collection
24 hr collection
Which of the following is not true concerning analysis of toxic agents?
- Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity
- Confirmatory tests report the concentration of the analyte
- Screening tests are a rapid test intended to detect the presence of a substance
- The reference method for most compounds is gas chromatography with a mass spectrometer (GC-MS)
Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity
All of the following statements are true regarding blood alcohol measurements EXCEPT:
- During venipuncture, the skin must be disinfected with iodine or chlorohexidine gluconate
- Plasma and serum are acceptable specimen types for analysis
- When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity
- Specimens should remain capped to avoid evaporation
When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity
True or False
The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is 20-25 times greater than oxygen
false
Toxic levels of acetaminophen are associated with
- Ototoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
hepatotoxicity
Which of the following statements is not true concerning testing for drugs of abuse?
- A two-tired testing approach includes screening and confirmatory testing
- Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity
- Screening tests detect classes of drugs
- GC-MS is the reference method used for confirmation
Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity
Which type of toxicology uses the results from animal experiments to predict what level of exposure will cause harm to humans?
- Descriptive
- Mechanistic
- Regulatory
- Environmental
descriptive
Which is not a common route of exposure to toxic substances.
- Ingestion
- Intravenous
- Inhalation
- Transdermal absorption
intravenous
What phrase best describes what ED50 stands for?
- A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.
- A drug is predicted to have a lethal effect for 50% of the population.
- A drug is predicted to have a negative effect on 50% of the population,
A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.
True or False
Chronic exposure to a toxin always has the same effect as acute exposures.
false
Which is not a common specimen type for analysis of toxic agents?
- urine
- blood
- oral fluid
- all are common types
all are common types
match the alcohol w/ common source: isopropanol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquors
- antifreeze
- tequila
rubbing alcohol
match the alcohol w/ common source: methanol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquors
- antifreeze
- teuquila
homemade liquor
match the alcohol w/ common source: ethylene glycol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquor
- antifreeze
- tequila
antifreeze
match the alcohol w/ common source: ethanol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquors
- antifreeze
- tequila
tequila
True or False
An alternative test that may be performed in order to estimate ethanol in serum is the osmolality.
true
This toxic substance can be found in its organic form in clams and oysters.
- cadmium
- cyanide
- lead
- arsenic
arsenic
This environmental pollutant has been linked to Itai-itai disease.
- cadmium
- lead
- mercury
- arsenic
cadmium
Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Amphetamines
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia
Stimulant with high abuse potential
Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Barbiturates
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia
“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Benzodiazepines
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia
High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Opioids
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia
Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia
Which of the following enzymes is increased in patients with cancer involving bone?
- amylase
- alkaline phosphate
- neuron-specific enolase
- gamma glutamyl transferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?
- CA-15-3
- CEA
- CA 125
- HVA
HVA
Which of the following tumor markers is classified as an oncofetal antigen?
- CEA
- CA 19-9
- BRCA-1
- hCG
CEA
The utilization of tumor markers is most important for:
- Screening of asymptomatic patients
- Screening for molecular markers
- Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment
- Confirming the presence of cancer
Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment
Tumor marker methodology include all of the following except:
- Immunoassays
- Gas chromatography
- Immunohistochemistry
- Enzyme analysis
gas chromatography
True or False
Abnormally low tumor marker concentrations are associated with antigen deficiency and can cause false negative results
false
True or False
To accurately monitor tumor marker levels of the patient, it is important to use the same methodology each time of testing.
True
If tumor cells are found in both the original tumor and also in the regional lymph nodes, this would be classified as stage:
1, 2, 3, 4,
3
This type of tumor marker is valuable in diagnosing neuroblastomas, pituitary and adrenal adenomas.
- Serum protein tumor markers
- Endocrine tumor markers
- Oncofetal antigens
- Carbohydrate antigen tumor markers
Endocrine tumor markers
True or False
All tumor markers can be used to screen asymptomatic populations.
false
Which is not a reason that serial results can be difficult to interpret:
- assay design
- variation in reference ranges
- differences in antibody specificity
- none of the above
- all of the above
THIS ONE MIGHT BE WRONG
- all of the above
Which is not something that is a consideration when considering using immunoassay method for tumor markers.
- hook effect
- requires more specialized skill and experience
- assay linearity
- HAMAs
requires more specialized skill and experience
Match the tumor with the description: Neuroblastoma
- Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
- Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine
common malignant tumor in kids
Match the tumor with the description: Pheochromocytoma
- Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
- Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine
Rare tumor associated with hypertension
Match the tumor with the description: carcinoid
- Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
- Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine
Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine
Which is not an example of an enzyme tumor marker.
- ALP
- AST
- PSA
- LDH
AST
-ALP: bone, liber, leukemia
- LDH: liver, lymphomas, leukemia
- PSA: prostate
Which tumor marker is used primarily with hepatocelluar carcinoma and testicular cancer.
- AFP
- CA 125
- CEA
- hCG
AFP
Elevations in this tumor marker in CSF may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
- CA 19-9
- FLC
- HE4
- NSE
NSE
