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clinical chem 1 > exam 3 questions > Flashcards

exam 3 questions Flashcards

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1
Q

a drugs most direct and effective method of delivery to its site of action
- oral administration
- intramuscular injection
- intravenous administration
- aerosol ingestion

A

intravenous administration

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2
Q

which of the following is not true regarding the abs of drugs?
- dug abs rates may change with age
- morphine may slow the GI motility of a drug
- liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medication
- Crohn’s disease may alter the absorption of some drugs

A

liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications

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3
Q

True or False
Drugs are susceptible to hepatic metabolism, and this increases the concentration of the drug before it reaches the circulatory system.

A

false

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding drug elimination?
- one drug half-life is the time needed for the drug concentration to increase by half
- 5-7 drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration
- most medications are administered as a single dose vs a scheduled basis
- aminoglycoside antibiotics are reabsorbed by the renal tubules

A

5-7 drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration

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5
Q

The relationship between a drug’s concentration at its target sites and its physiological responses is known as:
- pharmacokinetics
- pharmacogenomics
- pharmacotherapy
- pharmacodynamics

A

pharmacodynamics

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6
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning therapeutic drug monitoring?
- It ensures correct drug doses for the expected therapeutic range
- It helps to identify non-compliance of the patient
- It identifies drug-drug interactions if multiple drugs are taken simultaneously
- It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients

A

it establishes a one fit dosing model for all patients

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7
Q

A blood draw to determine a peak level of a drug should be drawn:
- One hour after an orally administered dose
- Immediately after drug administration
- 90 minutes after an orally administered dose
- Immediately before drug administration

A
  • one hour after an orally administered dose
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8
Q

True or False
CYP450 is a gene that influences the effectiveness of a drug in an individual.

A

true

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9
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning aminoglycosides?
- They are a class of drugs that is administered in the inpatient setting
- Toxic levels can cause hearing impairment
- They are used to treat gram positive and gram negative infections
- Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible

A

ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible

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10
Q

Pharmacokinetics and drug concentration are influenced by which of the following factors?
- Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
- Absorption, bioavailability, excretion, metabolism
- Biotransformation, distribution, excretion, metabolism
- Adaption, distribution, excretion, metabolism

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

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11
Q

True or False
Only bound fractions of drugs can interact with the site of action and result in a biological response.

A

false

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12
Q

Tolerance to drugs could be explained as:
- Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response
- Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to an increased response
- 50% of the maximum effect of a drug on the body

A

Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response

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13
Q

This drug is used to treat arrhythmias and CHF.
- quinidine
- digoxin
- disopyramide
- dilantin

A

digoxin

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14
Q

This drug may have the adverse effect of “redman syndrome”
- vancomycin
- tobramycin
- amikacin
- gentamicin

A

vancomycin

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15
Q

This antiepileptic drug requires hepatic markers to be check frequently due to risk of hepatic dysfunction
- carbamazepine
- phenobarbital
- phenytoin
- valproic acid

A

valproic acid
-carbamazepine: AED, toxicity varies
- phenobaribital: AED, not hepatic toxic
- phenytoin: AED, seizures from hypo/hyper doses
- valporic acid: toxic at upper range of theraputic but can be toxic w/in theraputic range

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16
Q

True or False
Immunosuppressive drugs typically are collected as serum samples.

A

false
- whole blood specimens

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17
Q

True or False
Common routes of exposure to toxins are through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin.

A

true

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18
Q

Which specimen type is preferred for analytes demonstrating variation in urinary elimination patterns?
- random specimen
- midstream ‘clean catch’ specimen
- first morning specimen
- 24 hr collection

A

24 hr collection

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19
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning analysis of toxic agents?
- Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity
- Confirmatory tests report the concentration of the analyte
- Screening tests are a rapid test intended to detect the presence of a substance
- The reference method for most compounds is gas chromatography with a mass spectrometer (GC-MS)

A

Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity

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20
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding blood alcohol measurements EXCEPT:
- During venipuncture, the skin must be disinfected with iodine or chlorohexidine gluconate
- Plasma and serum are acceptable specimen types for analysis
- When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity
- Specimens should remain capped to avoid evaporation

A

When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity

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21
Q

True or False
The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is 20-25 times greater than oxygen

A

false

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22
Q

Toxic levels of acetaminophen are associated with
- Ototoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity

A

hepatotoxicity

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is not true concerning testing for drugs of abuse?
- A two-tired testing approach includes screening and confirmatory testing
- Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity
- Screening tests detect classes of drugs
- GC-MS is the reference method used for confirmation

A

Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity

24
Q

Which type of toxicology uses the results from animal experiments to predict what level of exposure will cause harm to humans?
- Descriptive
- Mechanistic
- Regulatory
- Environmental

A

descriptive

25
Q

Which is not a common route of exposure to toxic substances.
- Ingestion
- Intravenous
- Inhalation
- Transdermal absorption

A

intravenous

26
Q

What phrase best describes what ED50 stands for?
- A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.
- A drug is predicted to have a lethal effect for 50% of the population.
- A drug is predicted to have a negative effect on 50% of the population,

A

A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.

27
Q

True or False
Chronic exposure to a toxin always has the same effect as acute exposures.

A

false

28
Q

Which is not a common specimen type for analysis of toxic agents?
- urine
- blood
- oral fluid
- all are common types

A

all are common types

29
Q

match the alcohol w/ common source: isopropanol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquors
- antifreeze
- tequila

A

rubbing alcohol

30
Q

match the alcohol w/ common source: methanol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquors
- antifreeze
- teuquila

A

homemade liquor

31
Q

match the alcohol w/ common source: ethylene glycol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquor
- antifreeze
- tequila

A

antifreeze

32
Q

match the alcohol w/ common source: ethanol
- rubbing alcohol
- homemade liquors
- antifreeze
- tequila

A

tequila

33
Q

True or False
An alternative test that may be performed in order to estimate ethanol in serum is the osmolality.

A

true

34
Q

This toxic substance can be found in its organic form in clams and oysters.
- cadmium
- cyanide
- lead
- arsenic

A

arsenic

35
Q

This environmental pollutant has been linked to Itai-itai disease.
- cadmium
- lead
- mercury
- arsenic

A

cadmium

36
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Amphetamines
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

Stimulant with high abuse potential

37
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Barbiturates
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer

38
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Benzodiazepines
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety

39
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Opioids
- Stimulant with high abuse potential
- High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
- “Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
- Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

40
Q

Which of the following enzymes is increased in patients with cancer involving bone?
- amylase
- alkaline phosphate
- neuron-specific enolase
- gamma glutamyl transferase

A

Alkaline phosphatase

41
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?
- CA-15-3
- CEA
- CA 125
- HVA

A

HVA

42
Q

Which of the following tumor markers is classified as an oncofetal antigen?
- CEA
- CA 19-9
- BRCA-1
- hCG

A

CEA

43
Q

The utilization of tumor markers is most important for:
- Screening of asymptomatic patients
- Screening for molecular markers
- Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment
- Confirming the presence of cancer

A

Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment

44
Q

Tumor marker methodology include all of the following except:
- Immunoassays
- Gas chromatography
- Immunohistochemistry
- Enzyme analysis

A

gas chromatography

45
Q

True or False
Abnormally low tumor marker concentrations are associated with antigen deficiency and can cause false negative results

A

false

46
Q

True or False
To accurately monitor tumor marker levels of the patient, it is important to use the same methodology each time of testing.

A

True

47
Q

If tumor cells are found in both the original tumor and also in the regional lymph nodes, this would be classified as stage:
1, 2, 3, 4,

A

3

48
Q

This type of tumor marker is valuable in diagnosing neuroblastomas, pituitary and adrenal adenomas.
- Serum protein tumor markers
- Endocrine tumor markers
- Oncofetal antigens
- Carbohydrate antigen tumor markers

A

Endocrine tumor markers

49
Q

True or False
All tumor markers can be used to screen asymptomatic populations.

A

false

50
Q

Which is not a reason that serial results can be difficult to interpret:
- assay design
- variation in reference ranges
- differences in antibody specificity
- none of the above
- all of the above

A

THIS ONE MIGHT BE WRONG
- all of the above

51
Q

Which is not something that is a consideration when considering using immunoassay method for tumor markers.
- hook effect
- requires more specialized skill and experience
- assay linearity
- HAMAs

A

requires more specialized skill and experience

52
Q

Match the tumor with the description: Neuroblastoma
- Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
- Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

A

common malignant tumor in kids

53
Q

Match the tumor with the description: Pheochromocytoma
- Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
- Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

A

Rare tumor associated with hypertension

54
Q

Match the tumor with the description: carcinoid
- Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
- Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

A

Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

55
Q

Which is not an example of an enzyme tumor marker.
- ALP
- AST
- PSA
- LDH

A

AST
-ALP: bone, liber, leukemia
- LDH: liver, lymphomas, leukemia
- PSA: prostate

56
Q

Which tumor marker is used primarily with hepatocelluar carcinoma and testicular cancer.
- AFP
- CA 125
- CEA
- hCG

A

AFP

57
Q

Elevations in this tumor marker in CSF may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
- CA 19-9
- FLC
- HE4
- NSE

A

NSE

clinical chem 1 (23 decks)

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