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Pathophysiology > Exam #1 Infection, Inflammation, & Immunity > Flashcards

Exam #1 Infection, Inflammation, & Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What are Exotoxins?

A

Gram positive bacteria
Toxins are released from inside the cells
Deadly

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2
Q

What are Endotoxins?

A

Gram negative bacteria
Toxins are released from the cell wall
Need to worry more about these

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3
Q

What are some organisms that are Exotoxins

A

S. aureus
B. cereus
V. cholera

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4
Q

What are some organisms that are Endotoxins?

A

E. coli
Salmonella typhi
Shigella
FEVER!

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5
Q

What is required for viral infections?

A

Invasion of the host cell for replication (Kills host cell)

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6
Q

3 Need to Know things about Fungal Infections

A

Single or Multicellular
Healthy individual = no disease
Compromised Immune System Individual = death

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7
Q

What are Parasitic infections common in developing countries?

A

They do not have water purification

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8
Q

How are parasitic infections ingested most commonly?

A

Pork products

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9
Q

What types of cells increases when infection is present?

A

White Blood Cells (WBC)

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10
Q

What is another name for mature Neutrophils?

A

Segs

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11
Q

What is another name fro immature Neutrophils?

A

Bands

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12
Q

What types of WBCs are most commonly found at a bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils (Segs & Bands)

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13
Q

What is flank pain?

A

Pain of upper abdomen, back or sides

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14
Q

What types of WBCs are most commonly found at an allergic reaction area?

A

Eosinophils

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15
Q

What types of WBCs are most commonly found at a parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophils

Monocytes

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16
Q

What types of WBCs are most commonly found at a Viral infection?

A

Monocyte

Lymphocyte

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17
Q

What are the 2 types of UTIs?

A

Upper and Lower

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18
Q

What is an exemplar of an Upper UTI?

A

Acute Pyelonephritis

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19
Q

What is an exemplar of a Lower UTI?

A

Cystitis

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20
Q

What are UTIs caused by?

A

Bacteria

Most commonly: E. coli

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21
Q

What are common groups/people at risk for UTI?

A 
Client with indwelling catheter
Urinary Tract Obstructions (kidney stones)
Estrogen deficient women
Women on antibiotics
Prepubertal children
Premature Infants
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22
Q

UtI Prevention

A

Wipe front to back
Pee after sex
Avoid spermicides
Drink lots of water

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23
Q

What is Cystitis?

A

Inflammation of the bladder

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24
Q

Signs and symptoms of Cystitis

A 
Frequency
Dysuria
Urgency
Itching
Burning sensation
CONFUSION! > elderly especially
Discharge
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25
Q

What would the bacterial count be if UTI is present?

A

> 100,000/mL

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26
Q

What is Acute Pyelonephritis?

A

Infection of one/both kidneys

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27
Q

What does Acute Pyelonephritis primarily effect?

A

Interstitial area and renal pelvis

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28
Q

Risk Factors for Acute Pyelonephritis

A

Obstruction - most common cause
Pregnancy
Incomplete bladder emptying
Sexual activity

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29
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Acute Pyelonephritis

A 
Definite Fever
Chills
Flank Pain
Costonvertebral Tanderness
Pus in Urine
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30
Q

What is Glomeruloneritis?

A

Inflammation of the glomeruli

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31
Q

What is Glomeruloneritis caused by?

A 
Streptococcus bacteria (Most Common)
Drugs/Toxins
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32
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Glomeruloneritis.

A

Hematuria

Proteinuria

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33
Q

What is Hematuria?

A

Blood in the urine

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34
Q

What is Proteinuria?

A

Proteins in the blood

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35
Q

What is Oliguria?

A

Small amounts of urine

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36
Q

What does hypertension cause regarding urine output?

A

Oliguria

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37
Q

Uremic Frost

A

Urea deposits on skin

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38
Q

What is Pneumonia?

A

Lower respiratory tract infection

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39
Q

What causes Pneumonia?

A

Bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, parasites

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40
Q

What are the 4 types of acquiring Pneumonia?

A 
Healthcare Acquired (HCAP)
Community Acquired (CAP)
Hospital Acquired (HAP)
Ventilator Associated (VAP)
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41
Q

Atypical Pneumonia is most common in ____

A

School-aged children (CAP)

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42
Q

Symptoms of Atypical Pneumonia

A

Cough
Low grade fever
Gradual

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43
Q

Bacterial Pneumonia is caused by ____

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

bacteria

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44
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Bacterial Pneumonia

A

Fever
Alveoli fill with fluid (Atelectasis)
Blood stasis
Edema

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45
Q

What can cause Viral Pneumonia?

A

Chickenpox & Measles

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46
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Viral Pneumonia

A

Mild fever
Chills
Cough
Malaise

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47
Q

What is the most common type of Pneumonia?

A

Bacterial Pneumonia

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48
Q

What is the most lethal type of Pneumonia?

A

Bacterial Pneumonia

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49
Q

Viral is usually ____ & ____

A

Mild & Self-limiting

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50
Q

Pandemics of Viral Pneumonia include:

A

Swine Flu & Avian Flu

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51
Q

Viral Pneumonia is ___

A

Seasonal

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52
Q

What is Cellular Regulation?

A

All functions carried out within a cell to maintain homeostasis

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53
Q

Hormones

A

Chemical messengers that direct cellular function

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54
Q

Cytokines

A

Chemical messengers that regulate innate & adaptive immune responses
Stimulate movement of cells to area of injury

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55
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Chemical messengers that transmits signals from a nerve cell

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56
Q

Uncorrected errors in cellular growth result in ____

A

Neoplasia

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57
Q

Aerobic Metabolism is associated with what cycle?

A

Krebs Cycle

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58
Q

Anaerobic Metabolism is also the process of ___

A

Glycolysis

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59
Q

What does Aerobic metabolism need to occur?

A

Oxygen

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60
Q

How many ATP does Aerobic Metabolism yield?

A

34

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61
Q

How many ATP does Anaerobic Metabolism yield?

A

2 (+ lactic acid)

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62
Q

Etiology

A

Original cause of a cellular alteration/disease

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63
Q

Histology

A

Microscopic study of tissue & cells

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64
Q

Biopsy

A

Cell sample from an organ/mass of tissues to allow for histological examination

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65
Q

Pathogenetic Changes

A

Unique findings that represent distant disease processes

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66
Q

Atrophy

A

Decrease in cell size

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67
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase in cells size

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68
Q

Neoplasia

A

New growth

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69
Q

Benign Tumor

A

Well differentiated (resembles tissue of origin)
Slow growth
No metastasis

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70
Q

Malignant Tumor

A

Poorly differentiated
Erratic growth
Invasive to normal tissues
Metastasis

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71
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Malignant Neoplasia

A

Fatigue
Weight loss
Organ failure

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72
Q

Risk Factors for Impaired Cellular Regulation

A 
Smoking
Excess weight
Sedentary lifestyle
Environmental carcinogens
Genetics
Infectious agents
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73
Q

Neoplasia lack ____

A

Cellular function & adhesiveness to other cells

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74
Q

Neoplasia secrete ____

A

Inappropriate: enzymes, hormones, clotting factors

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75
Q

Assessment findings for Neoplasias

A

Visible lesions
Palpable masses
Presents of blood in stool

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76
Q

Common diagnostic test for Neoplasias

A

Radiographic tests, colonoscopy, endoscopy, CBC, biopsy

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77
Q

Cancer is a disease of ____

A

Aging

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78
Q

Multiple __ are required before cancer can develop

A

Mutations

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79
Q

Cancer cells can do ___

A

Clonal Proliferation

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80
Q

What is Clonal Proliferation?

A

Selective proliferation of only one type of cell

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81
Q

What is the order of the cell cycle?

A

G0, G1, S, G2, & M

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82
Q

What happens at G0?

A

The cell is at rest & is not actively engaged in the cell cycle

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83
Q

What happens at G1?

A

Cell enters the cell cycle.
Prepare for DNA replication
Genes that control cell replication are activated

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84
Q

What happens at G2?

A

DNA replication take place

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85
Q

What happens at S?

A

Synthesis of structures occur > move to opposite poles in preparation to separate the 2 cells (46 chromosome reorganize into 2 sets of 23)

86
Q

What happens at M?

A

Mitosis is complete and 2 daughter cells are created

87
Q

Differentiation

A

The extent that neoplastic cells resemble normal cells structurally and functionally

88
Q

Anaplasia

A

Lack of differentiation

89
Q

Grade 1 Malignant Tumor

A

Indicates the cells are well differentiated

90
Q

Grade 2 Malignant Tumor

A

Indicates cells are moderately differentiated

91
Q

Grade 3 Malignant Tumor

A

Indicates poorly differentiated or anaplastic cells

92
Q

What does TNM stand for?

A

Tumor size
Number of Lymph Nodes
Metastasis to distant organs

93
Q

If a tumor is a T4 what does that mean?

A

The tumor is very large

94
Q

If a tumor is a N3 what does that mean?

A

The tumor has spread to most all lymph nodes

95
Q

If a tumor is a M1 what does that mean?

A

The tumor has metastasized

96
Q

Why is Cancer a disease of aging?

A

With age the immune system weakens and make it easier for tumors to develop

97
Q

Chronic ____ can lead to cancer

A

Inflammation

98
Q

What do Tumor Suppressor Genes do?

A

Restrain Neoplasia growth

99
Q

What do Oncogenes do?

A

Stimulate constant cellular proliferation and cell cycling

100
Q

Viruses can inhibit ___

A

Tumor Suppressor Genes

101
Q

How can viruses cause cancer?

A

It inserts it’s genes into the host cell. The host cell then manufactures the virus. Causing irregular growth in the body.

102
Q

What factor do cancer cells secrete?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor

103
Q

What is Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor?

A

A substance that gives them capability to develop new blood vessels

104
Q

What characterize metastasis to distant organs?

A

Cancer cells in the blood and lymphatic system

105
Q

Lung Cancer commonly spreads to ___ , ____

A

Bone

Brain

106
Q

Colon Cancer commonly spreads to ____

A

Liver

107
Q

Breast Cancer commonly spreads to __, ___, ___, ___

A

Bone
Brain
Liver
Lung

108
Q

Prostate Cancer commonly spreads to ____

A

Vertebae

109
Q

Melanoma Cancer commonly spreads to ___

A

Brain

110
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Malignancy

A 
Pain
Fatigue
Cachexia
Anemia
Malabsorption
Alopecia
111
Q

What is Cachexia?

A

Progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass due to tumor

112
Q

Why is Anemia associated with Malignancy?

A

May be chronic bleeding resulting on iron deficiency

Malignancy in blood forming organs

113
Q

Tumor invasion of bone marrow can cause ___ & ___

A

Leukocytopenia & Thrombocytopenia

114
Q

What is another toxic to bone marrow (other than cancer)

A

Chemotherapy

115
Q

What are tumor markers?

A

Substances produced by cancer cells that are found on/in tumor cells, blood, urine, CSG, or urine

116
Q

What are Tumor Markers used to do?

A

Screen
Diagnose
Observe clinical course of cancer

117
Q

What 2 ways are tumors classified?

A

Type of tissue in which it originated

Primary site/location in body where it first developed

118
Q

Carcinoma

A

Epithelial origin

119
Q

Sarcoma

A

Supportive/Connective tissues

120
Q

Myeloma

A

Bone Marrow

121
Q

Leukemia

A

Blood

122
Q

Lymphoma

A

Glands/Nodes of lymph system

123
Q

Mixed Type

A

Can be a form of more than one category

124
Q

Inflammation

A

A protective, coordinated response to an injurious agent

125
Q

Inflammation is part of what type of immunity?

A

Innate

126
Q

What are the 4 goals of Inflammation?

A

Wall-off area of injury
Prevent spread
Bring body defenses to injured area
Prepare damage tissue to return to normal function

127
Q

Acute Inflammation

A

Rapid
Enhances healing
Rids body of infectious agent

128
Q

Chronic Inflammation

A

Persist more than 2 weeks
Inhibits healing
Causes cellular damage and organ dysfunction

129
Q

3 Main Stages of Acute Inflammation

A

Vascular Permeability
Cellular Chemotaxis
Systematic Response

130
Q

What is vascular permeability?

A

Vasodilation of blood vessels

131
Q

What are the 2 main mediators of Vascular Permeability?

A

Histamine

Bradykinin

132
Q

What blood components are Vascular Permeability trying to get to the site of injury?

A

Platelets
WBCs
Fluid

133
Q

What does Vascular permeability cause?

A

Edema

134
Q

Cardinal signs of Inflammation

A 
Pain
Redness
Swelling
Heat
Loss of Function
135
Q

Macrophages

A

A protein-rich filtrate that contains WBCs

136
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Process of WBCs surrounding and consuming foreign material

137
Q

Purulent Exudate

A

Edema fluid that is rich from proteins from WBCs, microbial organisms & cellular debris
Ex. Pus (Bacterial/Protozoan)

138
Q

Transudate

A

Edema fluid that contains little protein and is mainly a watery filtrate of blood
Ex. Blister (No bacteria that give off debris)

139
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Chemical signals attract platelets and WBCs to the site of injury during inflammation
Ex. Secretion of histamine and bradykinin

140
Q

Margination

A

WBCs arrive at the site of inflammation and line up along the endothelial lining of vessel wall

141
Q

Emigration

A

Movement of WBCs from vascular space into the the extravascular space at the site of injury

142
Q

What 3 blood component release Histamine?

A

Basophils, Mast Cells, Platelets

143
Q

What things stimulate the secretion of Histamine?

A

Injury
Immune reactions
Cytokines

144
Q

What is rhinorrhea

A

Runny Nose

145
Q

What are clinical manifestation of the secretion of Histamine?

A

Rhinorrhea
Eye tearing
Sinus inflammation

146
Q

Inflammatory mediators

A

Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes
Interleukins

147
Q

Cytokines can ___ & ____ the inflammatory response

A

Build & Deactivate

148
Q

Cytokines stimulate the ___ to release substance called Acute Phase Proteins

A

Liver

149
Q

What are 3 Acute Phase Proteins?

A

C-reactive protein (CPR)
Fibrinogen
Serum amyloid A

150
Q

CBC

A

Complete blood count

Includes: RBC, WBC, Platelets

151
Q

C-Reactive Proteins (CPR)

A

Increases in acute inflammation from certain diseases

152
Q

Erythocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

A

Rate at which RBCs fall to bottom of the tube - quicker with inflammation

153
Q

Antibodies are part of the H___ immune response

A

Humoral

154
Q

Antibodies come from what kind of cell?

A

B cell

155
Q

Types of WBCs

A 
Neutrophils
Monocytes > Macrophages
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Basophils
156
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Inflammation

A 
Fever
Pain
General Malaise
Lymphadenopathy (Swollen Lymph Nodes)
Anorexia
Lethargy
Anemia
157
Q

Necrosis

A

Tissue death

158
Q

Example of Chronic Inflammation

A

Rheumatoid Arthitis

159
Q

What is unique about Mycobacteria tuberculosis inflammation?

A

Produces a film so during acute inflammation it is unable to be phagocytize leading to chronic inflammation

160
Q

Consequences of Chronic Inflammation

A

Tissue damage caused by persistent swelling
Hypersensitivity Reactions
Systemic Pathology linked diseases

161
Q

Systemic Diseases linked to Chronic Inflammation

A

Obesity - inflammation of adipose tissue
Atherosclerosis- inflammation leading to coronary artery calcification
Shock- increased inflammation activity can lead to fibrinolysis which can lead to organ dysfunctions and death

162
Q

Risk Factor for Inflammation

A

EVERYONE
Very young or old
Non-immunized
Chronic illnesses

163
Q

What does the liver do?

A

Synthesize: Bile, Albumin, Cholesterol, Thrombopoetin, Insulin, Angiotensinogen, Coagulation factors
Conjugation of bilirubin
Gluconegenesis
Filters antigens out of the blood
Detoxification
Store Vitamins A, D & B12, Iron and Copper

164
Q

Gluconegenesis

A

Production of glucose from non-carb substances (increase insulin levels)

165
Q

Cirrhosis

A

Inflammation of the Liver

166
Q

True/False: Cirrhosis is reversible

A

False

167
Q

What are 2 main functional problems of Cirrhosis?

A

Worsens portal hypertension

Leads to toxin accumulation & metabolic alterations

168
Q

What are 3 main structural problems of Cirrhosis?

A

Infiltration of Leukocytes
Release of inflammatory mediators (Cytokine > Histamine)
Scarring

169
Q

How is Cirrhosis and Jaundice related?

A

The obstruction of biliary channel and blood flow leads to jaundice and portal hypertension

170
Q

Clinical Manifestation of Cirrhosis

A 
Ascites (Fluid in the abdomen)
Jaundice
Dark bloody stool
Spider-like veins
Confusion
171
Q

Treatment for Cirrhosis

A

No cure
Lifestyle changes (Low sodium diet)
Paracentesis (Remove fluid from abdomen)
Immunizations for Hepatitis viruses

172
Q

Risk Factors for Cirrhosis

A

Hepatitis
Drug/Toxin intake
Excessive alcohol intake
Portal hypertension

173
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Autoimmune disease that cause chronic joint inflammation and deterioration of joint surfaces

174
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Pathology:

A

T cells interact with synovial fibroblasts converting synovium into a thick, abnormal layer of granulation tissue (Pannus)

175
Q

Joint involvement in Rheumatoid Arthritis is ____ or ____

A

Bilateral or Symmetrical

176
Q

Manifestation of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A 
Gradual onset
Swelling
Pain
Worse in the morning time
Nodules
177
Q

Treatment for Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Anti-rheumatic drugs
No cure
Treat symptoms

178
Q

Innate Immunity

A

“What your momma gave you”
Present at birth
Skin, mucus membranes, Normal flora
Inflammation

179
Q

Adaptive Immunity

A

Attained after birth

Active vs. Passive

180
Q

Active Adaptive Immunity

A

Ex. Vaccines (Hepatitis A vaccine)

Exposure to an antigen to generate an adaptive immune response

181
Q

Passive Adaptive Immunity

A

Ex. Mother to baby through breast milk OR Tetanus toxoid

Occurs after performed antibodies are introduced

182
Q

Immune System Components

A 
Bone Marrow
Lymph Nodes
Thymus
Spleen
Tonsils
183
Q

Where are B & T cells produced?

A

Bone marrow

184
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone Marrow

185
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

Thymus

186
Q

What does the Spleen do for the immune system?

A

Store macrophages and clears cellular debris

187
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Attack ALREADY INFECTED cells

188
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Defend against invading cells (Line backers of immune system)

189
Q

Killer T cells

A

Destroyers or detectives

190
Q

Helper T cells

A

Activate B cells to produce antibodies

191
Q

Suppressor T cells

A

“Bouncers” Keep the immune system from overreacting

192
Q

Memory T cells

A

On 2nd exposure they transform into Killer T cells to destroy antigens

193
Q

Humoral Immunity

A

Goal: prevent bacteria/viruses from entering host cells
B cells are part of the humoral immunity
Involves immunoglobulins

194
Q

5 immunoglobulin classes

A 
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
195
Q

IgG

A

Most numerous
The major antibacterial and antiviral antibody
Found in all body fluids
Passes through the placenta to the baby during pregnancy (Protects infant for first 6 months)

196
Q

IgM

A

First immunoglobulin produced during immune response
Kills Bacteria
Only present in vascular system (too large to pass through membranes)

197
Q

IgA

A

Found in body secretions

Defend body entrances (especially repiratory and GI tract)

198
Q

IgD

A

Present in Plasma

On surface of B cells as a antigen receptor (Bind to antigens)

199
Q

IgE

A

Involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions (Type I)
Defends against parasitic infections
Stimulates Mast cells to release Histamine & Heparin

200
Q

Complement System

A

Part of Humoral immunity

Major mediator of the inflammatory response

201
Q

4 Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Type I-IV

202
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction

A

IgE mediated
Immediate response
Ex. Peanut allergy (Anaphalatic reaction)

203
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity Reaction

A

Tissue specific
Immediate response
Ex. Blood transfusion

204
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Reaction

A

Immune complex reactions
Immediate response
Ex. Lupus

205
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Reaction

A

Cell-Mediated response
Delayed response
No antibody involved
Ex. Jewelry sensitivity or poison ivy

206
Q

Allergic Reaction Clinical Manifestations

A

Hives
Edema
Itching

207
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Exaggerated response of the immune system

208
Q

Allergic reactions usually do not occur on ___ ____

A

First exposure

209
Q

Type I reaction sequence

A

Exposure
B cells stimulated
Cells mature into IgE
IgE bond to antigen receptors

210
Q

What medication do you give for Allergic Reactions?

A

Benadryl (Anti- histamine)

Zantac (Anti-heparin)

Pathophysiology (12 decks)

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