exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

USED TO DECREASE INTRAVASCULAR VOLUME IN HEART FAILURE?

A

diuretics

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2
Q

A PATIENT HAS 40 MG OF ORAL FUROSEMIDE PRESCRIBED TWICE A DAY. WHAT TIME WILL YOU INSTRUCT THE PATIENT TO TAKE THE MEDICATION?`

A

8 am and 2 pm-So they aren’t up at night having to pee, prevent nocturia

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3
Q

with ___ you want to treat the disease like valve replacement or controling HTN

A

HF

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4
Q

with ___ you want to treat the disease like cardiac ablation and pacemker insertion

A

HF

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5
Q

you will do teaching and med ands diet/exercise to prevent ___

A

HF

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6
Q

weigh daily, cardiac rehab, and food logs are care for ____

A

HF

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7
Q

do nutritional and drug therapy for ___

A

HF

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8
Q

DASH diet, 2.5g Na a day, and restrict fluid if you have ___

A

HF

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9
Q

weight yourself daily and R 3 lb over 1-2 days and 3-5 lb over a week for ___

A

HF

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10
Q

you want to decrease symptoms and improve cardiac function with _

A

HF

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11
Q

reverse ventricular remodeling and improve QOL with __

A

HF

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12
Q

increase exercise tolerance and decrease edema with ___

A

HF

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13
Q

decrease morbitity and mortality with __

A

HF

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14
Q

give BB(-olol) and ACEI and K supp for ___

A

HF

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15
Q

give vasodilators and digoxin/digitalis for ___

A

HF

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16
Q

put a pt in high fowlers and give O2 for ___

A

HF

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17
Q

DO CONTINUOUS ECG MONITORING AND USE DIURESIS TO DECREASE IVF FOR ___

A

HF

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18
Q

hypoventilation and low chest expansion cause ____ acidosis

A

resp

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19
Q

pneumonia and PE cause ___ acidosis

A

resp

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20
Q

OD and pulm edema cause ___ acidosis

A

resp

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21
Q

chest trauma and NM disease cause ____ acidosis

A

resp

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22
Q

COPD and airway obstruction cause ____acidosis

A

resp

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23
Q

DKA and salicylate OD cause ___ acidosis

A

met

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24
Q

shock and diarrhea(loose bicarb) cause ___ acidosis

A

met

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25
renal failure and impaired liver(little bicarb made)cause___ acidosis
met
26
lactic acidosis and ketoacidosis cause ___ acidosis
met
27
ETOH and ASA (both acids)in excess cause __ acidosis
met
28
HEADACHE AND HYPERKALEMIA ARE S/S OF ___ acidosis
MET
29
disorientation and muscle twitching are s/s of ___acidosis
met
30
LOC changes and kussmals are ___ of met acidosis
s/s
31
CO2 retention is resp acidosis. t or f?
true
32
HCO3 loss or H+ rentention is met acidosis. t or f?
true
33
CO2 loss is resp alkalosis. t or f?
true
34
seizures and deep/rapid breathing are ___of resp alkalosis
s/s
35
hyperventilation and confusion are __ of resp. alkalosis
s/s
36
hypokalemia and light headed are __ of resp alkalosis
s/s
37
tingling extremities are __ of resp alkalosis
s/s
38
anxiety and altitude are causes of resp alkalosis. t or f?
true
39
pregnancy and fever are causes of resp alkalosis. t or f?
true
40
hypoxia, shock and PE are causes of resp alkalosis. t or f
tru
41
HOC3 excess or H+ loss is met alkalosis. t or f
true
42
low gastric juices and antacid overuse cause met alkalosis. t or f?
tru
43
K wasting diuretics cause met alkalosis. t or f
true
44
diarrhea and hypokalemia are __ of met alkalosis.
s/s
45
slow respirations and nausea are __ of met alkalosis
s/s
46
confusion that is linked to LOC thats low is a __ of met alkalosis
s/s
47
restless then lethargic is a __ of met alkalosis
s/s
48
hypoventilation and dysrhythmias are __ of met alkalosis
s/s
49
alkalosis is caused by loss of too much acid or retention of too much base. t or f
true
50
acidosis is caused by retention of too much acid or loss of too much base. t or f
true
51
resp probs are where CO2 are opp direction of pH. t or f
tru
52
met probs are where HCO3 is equal and the same direction as pH. t or f
tru
53
• A nurse is caring for a HF pt and R shortness of breath. what do you do?
Assist into high fowlers position first
54
• Nurse got lab values of K at 5.2. when calling provider, expect what action to do?
o Cardiac monitoring continuous
55
increases the digoxin toxicity . what K level? 3.4 or 4.8?
3.4
56
• Address bp of __/__ and pulse of 110 in a pt who just came out of surgery
80/56
57
with __ you see compression socks used and a high protein diet
VLU
58
with VLU, use moist environment dressings and elevation. t or f
true
59
with VLU, use hyperbaric support like angiogenesis and you see edema. t or f
true
60
with VLU, you see veins and valves fail to move due to ___ valves and calf muscle pump.
imcompetant
61
with VLU, you see venous hypertension, VTE, and variscosities t or f
true
62
with VLU, medial and painful ulcers & hemosiderin staining. t of f
true
63
with VLU, you see friable skin and think/hard/leather skin. t or f?
true
64
with digoxin, R BC or TC?
BC
65
• A nurse is giving furosemide for edema, do…assess for tinnitus, eat a banana, elevate head before ambulating, mon K levels. t or f?
true
66
with VLU, you see weeping wounds and medial mallolus location. t or f?
tru
67
with VLU, you see dependent pain and yellow or ruddy granulation. t or f?
tru
68
with VLU, you see irregular shapes and lots of drainage. torf
true
69
• Teaching on hydrochlorothiazide is to take it with food due to the GI upset. t or f
true
70
• Pt has PAD, you expect pallor on elevation of limbs, and rubor when limbs are dependent. torf
true
71
• Pt has chronic ____ insufficiency, apply compression stockings in morning and bf out of bed
venous
72
with VLU, pain is worse when dependent and actue leads to chronic if ___ treated
NOT
73
with VLU, it is __ for wounds to reappear in the same location
common
74
with VLU, amputation is rare, there is less change of necrosis and bc the fluid doesn't get back to the heart. but the blood can get to the extremities. t or f?
true
75
edu a pt to empty the bladder and void every 3-4 hours with a uti. t or f
true
76
edu a pt with a UTI to pop regular and tell that 20% of liquid comes from food. t or f
true
77
with a UTI mon for urine color and clarity. t or f
true
78
with UTI, get a HH and a physical. and ask abt meds they take. t or f
true
79
with a UTI, ask abt foley in last 30 days and hygeine habits. t or f
true
80
do a urinalysis for e. coli(for diagnosis, you need a count of 100,000). t or f
true
81
do a UA C&S for microbes, RBC, WBC. t or f
true
82
UTI diagnoses are impaired urine elimination. t or f?
true
83
UTI diagnoses are acute pain and confusion. t or f
true
84
UTI diagnoses are altered sensory perception and bad management of self. t or f
true
85
for UTI give antibiotics like nitrofurantoin(turns urine brown and is a ____(weakens the bacteria)
bacteriostatic
86
for UTI give antibiotics like trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. t or f
true
87
for an uncomplicated UTI, give short term antibiotics for 1 to __ days
3
88
for a complicated UTI, give drugs for 7-14 days and give prophylactic for recurrant UTIs. t or f
t
89
when your pee burns, give phenzopyridine which turns your urine ___
orange
90
for a UTI and pain give acetylomenophine. t or f
true
91
avoid catheters when you can and incontinent episodes. t or f
true
92
slow progressive noninflammatory disease of joints and NOT normal to aging
OA
93
put OA off by maintaining weight. t or f
true
94
OA common in ages 50-60 and can __ at 20-30
begin
95
OA results from ___ damage that makes a metabolic response
cartilage
96
with ____, cartilage becomes dull, yellow and granular.
OA
97
with ____, cartilage becomes soft and less elastic, less resistant to wear with heavy use
OA
98
stiff joints that resolve in 30 min with ___
OA
99
overactive can cause joint effusion and ___ stiffness with OA
increase
100
early stages in OA, rest relieves pain but in late stages, pain is when you ___
rest
101
OA is __ symetrical and has H and B nodes with fingers still straght
not
102
prevent OA, thru diet, exercise and joint protection. t or f
true
103
with ___, joint space narrowing/sclerosis/subchondral cysts/osteophytes
OA
104
with ___, you see osteoporosis and ANA pos
RA
105
with __, there is pos anti-CCP and elevated ESR/CRP and RF pos
RA
106
you cannot prevent ___, it is a chronic systemic autoimmune disease and genetic
RA
107
CT in joints are inflammed in RA, and there are remission and ___ periods
exacerbation
108
RA effects more __ than men
women
109
infection or stress can cause RA and has a insidious onset. t or f
true
110
RA is symetrical and stiffness can last more than 60 min and has ___ destruction
bone
111
with RA, __ become tender, painful and warm
joints
112
with RA, joint pain __ with motion
increases
113
with __ there are flexion contractures and hand deformities
RA
114
RA can cause diminished grasp ___
strength
115
with RA, you want to reduce inflammation and manage pain. t or f
true
116
with RA, you want to prevent/minimize joint deformity and maintain joint function. t or f
true
117
DMARDS like methotrexate can ___ the permanent effects of RA
lessen
118
can give NSAIDS and corticosteroids for __
RA
119
for OA and RA, do rest and joint ___
protection
120
for OA and RA, rest in a ___ up
flare
121
for OA and RA, ____ flexion and promote extension
avoid
122
for OA and RA, ___ activities to put less stress on joints
modify
123
for OA and RA, use a ___ and immobilze in inflammation
splint
124
for OA and RA, ice is for___ inflammation and heat for stiffness
acute
125
balance nutrition and __ for OA and RA & avoid processed food and chemicals and red meat and diary and sugar.
exercise
126
for OA and RA, in a flare up walk and water aerobic and reduce ____ if you can
weight
127
for OA and RA, reduce stress and stop ___ and give meds
smoking
128
red and swelling =
inflammation
129
pain and warmth are
inflammation
130
vasodilation and function lost are
inflammation
131
maintain hygiene to prevent
inflammation
132
RestIceCompressionElevation for inflmmation. t or f
true
133
RICE helps to ___ swelling
minimize
134
RICE is the most beneficial for the which time period?
first 24-48 hours
135
for ____ check for edema, cap refill and pulse
inflammation
136
with ice, use 20 __ and 20 off
on
137
elevate how high?
above your heart level
138
give which drug for inflammation?
NSAIDS
139
with VLU, give anti____
coags
140
with DKA, you see ___ of insulin
deficient
141
with DKA, you see hyperglycemia and ketosis. t or f
true
142
with DKA, you see acidosis and dehydration. t or f
true
143
type 1 DM is ass with DKA and ass with ___/infection
illness
144
with DKA, the precipitating factors are ____ insulin dosage, neglect, and poor management
insufficient
145
with DKA, glucose isnt energy so fat is broken down. ketones then are involved. t or f
true
146
byproduct of fat metabolism
ketone
147
___ cause met acidosis
ketones
148
DKA ___ are kussmal respirations with fruity breath and reverses met acidosis
s/s
149
DKA ___ are ab pain, OH, and TC
s/s
150
DKA ___are lethargy and weakness and dehydration
s/s
151
DKA ___are to give O2
interventions
152
DKA ___ are to give 0.45 or 0.9% NaCl to restore urine output, raise BP and correct imbalance
interventions
153
DKA treatment needs 5% dextrose added when BG is 250 to prevent ___glycemia
hypo
154
DKA ___ K and NaHCO3 back in
needs
155
in insulin therapy, insulin drip follows a __
bolus
156
life threatening and less common than DKA
HHS
157
ass with type 2 DM and has neurologic symptoms
HHS
158
UTI, pneumonia, and sepsis cause
HHS
159
__ is ass with a history of low fluid intake, depression and polyuria
HHS
160
BG is GT400 and absent ketones is ass with ___
HHS
161
high mortality rate and needs greater fluid replacement than DKA
HHS
162
with ___ give IV fluids, insulin therpay and electrolytes like potassium
HHS
163
with HHS, ____ renal status and cardiopulmonary status
assess
164
with HHS, __ LOC and signs of K imbalance
assess
165
with HHS, ___ cardiac monitoring and VS
assess
166
treat ___ probs then chronic ones
acute
167
treat unstable then stable. t or f?
true
168
ABCS stand for
airway, breathing, circulation
169
if you have DKA, you will have ___ monitoring to ID dysrhythmias bc of hypokalemia
cardiac
170
____ prevention is skin hygiene and adequate nutrition and hydration for tissue integrity
primary
171
primary ___ is avoidance of sun exposure and activity restriction for tissue integrity
prevention
172
to prevent ___ ulcers, inspect skin daily and minimize pressure
pressure
173
to prevent pressure ___, reposition Q2 hours and do incontinence care
ulcers
174
to prevent pressure ____, bath with soap and warm water
ulcers
175
to prevent ____ ulcers, lotion and massage
ulcers
176
when cleaning pressure ulcers, use ___
NS
177
to treat ulcers, give antibiotics and steroids. t or f
true
178
to treat ___ ulcers, use emollients and chemotherapy
pressure
179
use phototherapy for ___ ulcers
pressure
180
give proteins, vit A/C for pressure ____
ulcers
181
atrophy of skin and muscles & delayed skin are ass with ___
PAD
182
wound infection & non healing and gangrene are ass with
PAD
183
tissue necrosis and amputation are ass with __
PAD
184
do diet modification and stop smoking for ___ and VLU
PAD
185
hygiene and weight management for PAD and ___
VLU
186
do BP control and BG regulation for PAD and ___
VLU
187
do coagulation and cardio/pulm care for ___ and VLU
PAD
188
debride, do bypass, and angioplasty are ____ for PAD and VLU
intervention
189
mon labs and US are ____ for PAD and VLU
intervention
190
cultures and ABI are ___ PAD and VLU
interventions
191
involves progressive narrowing and degeneration of arteries of extremities
PAD
192
atherosclerosis is the leading cause of the cases of ___
PAD
193
you see paresthesia and thin, shiny, & taut skin with ____
PAD
194
loss of hair on lower legs and no pulses with ___
PAD
195
intermittent claudication and foot pallor with elevation with ___
PAD
196
reactive hyperemia of foot with dependent position and rest pain with ___
PAD
197
ulcers on toe, foot, and lateral malleolus are ass with ___
PAD
198
rounded, smooth punched out look and minimal discharge ass with ___
PAD
199
black eschar or pale pink granulation ass with __
PAD
200
___ of resp acidosis are headache and decreased LOC
s/s
201
___ of resp acidosis are hypoventilation and cardiac dysrhythmias
s/s
202
___ of resp acidosis are hypotension
s/s
203
for ___ conditions, do resp support
resp
204
for ____ conditions, do fluid and electrolyte support
metabolic
205
WITH ___ care, assess anxiety/fear and culture needs
periop
206
with __ care, assess treatment fears, learning needs, and readiness for surgery
post op
207
teach the middle amt of needs, not too much and not __ little
too
208
___ abt what to do bf surgery and what to expect after surgery
teach
209
a ___ will reinforce surgeon teaching
nurse
210
polish off, no metal and pee bf ___
surgery
211
dentures out, hearing aids and glasses, ID/allergy/blood cross and type the day of _____
surgery
212
____ is IV opiods and epidural caths for pericare
implementation
213
______is PCA and NSAIDs for pericare
implementation
214
_____ is regional anesthetic blockade for pericare
implemention
215
____ surgical complications are obstruction, hypoxemia, and hypoventilation
resp
216
_____ surgical complications are hypo/hypertension and dysrhythmias
cardiac
217
NPO status is to ___ choking
prevent
218
if a ___ problem, lay lateral if unconsious and supine/head elevated and reposition Q1-2 hours
resp
219
if a ___ prob, give O2, deep breathing, and coughing
resp
220
if a ___ prob, do ventilation with analgesics and ambulation
resp
221
if a ___ prob, you see SBP <90 and >160 & BC or >120
cardiac
222
if a ___ prob, watch for change in ___ rhythm
cardiac
223
if a __ prob like hypotension give O2 and inspect surgical incision
cardiac
224
if a __ prob like hypotension do a fluid bolus and drug intervention
cardiac
225
if a __ prob do I and O & run labs like electrolytes, Hb, Hct
cardiac
226
if a __ prob do early ambulation
cardiac
227
if a __ prob you will do slow position changes
cardiac
228
if a __thrombosis prob, do activity and nutrition and circulation aids
venous
229
if a __thrombosis prob, do anticoag and thrombolytic therapy(heparin is the most common)
venous
230
intact skin and nonblanchable erythma with no blisters
stage 1
231
with ___ skin, it lightens with pressure then goes back to red
blanchable
232
non____ skin doesnt lighten with touch
blanchable
233
partial thickness loss with exposed dermis is stage __
2
234
with stage_, adipose and deeper tissue not available
2
235
with stage 2, there is ___ tissue but NO slough/eschar present
granulation
236
with stage 2, this is due to: ___over pelvis or heal
shear
237
stage __ can go to the dermis and epidermis but is shallow and can appear red
2
238
stage 3 is __ thickness with fat visible and granulation present
full
239
stage 3 has undermining(wound can be larger and away from edges under skin)and tunneling(can __ healing)
delay
240
stage 4 is__ thickness and tissue loss
full
241
in stage _, you fascia and muscle
4
242
in stage __. tendon and ligament is seen
4
243
in stage __, cartilage and bone is seen
4
244
in stage 4, slough and eschar is __. u also see epibole, undermining and tunneling
visible
245
unstageable is __ full thickness skin and tissue loss
obscured
246
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see them on toe joints and metatarsal __
head
247
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see them on the foot plantar and under __
heel
248
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see ___ foot sensation and warm/dry skin
decreased
249
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see callus and skin__
cracks
250
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see fissures and __ toe nail growth
abnormal
251
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see plantar foot atrophy and ___ toe
hammer
252
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see claw toe and ___ foot
charcot
253
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see partial __ to full with bone involved and regular wound margins
thicknesss
254
with a diabetic foot ulcer, you see inflammed and infected and osteo___
myelitis
255
with a diabetic foot ulcer, the RF are visual ___ or retinopathy and PAD
impairment
256
with a diabetic foot ulcer, the RF are neuropathy and foot deformity and ___ ankle ROM
limited
257
with a diabetic foot ulcer, the RF are high ___ foot pressures and minor trauma think plantar or dorsal
plantar
258
with a diabetic foot ulcer, the RF are ___ trauma and ulcer/amputation
minor
259
with a diabetic foot ulcer, the causes are LEND/peripheral neuropathy and ___ with poor circulation
PVD
260
with a diabetic foot ulcer, the causes are mechanical stress/pressure and ___ glucose levels
poor
261
with cirrhosis, a nurse will teach to abstain from ETOH and ID hepatitis ___
early
262
with cirrhosis, ID biliary disease and teach on ___ nutrition
good
263
with cirrhosis,___ should look like high carb and low fat
nutrition
264
with cirrhosis ___ should be soft diet and small meals
nutrition
265
with cirrhosis ___ is 3000 cal a day
nutrition
266
with cirrhosis do low Na, rest and ___ hygeine
oral
267
with cirrhosis M for F and EI & ___ disorders
bleeding
268
with cirrhosis get I/O and __ weight
daily
269
with cirrhosis get ab girth and ___ extremities
measure
270
with cirrhosis give semi-high fowlers position and turn Q ___hours
2
271
with hepatic encephalopathy you assess LOC and sensory/motor ____
abnormalities
272
hepatic encephalopathy is ass with ___
cirrhosis
273
with cirrhosis rest and abstain from ___
ETOH
274
with cirrhosis have a good diet and ___ intake is met
evaluate
275
with cirrhosis ____ skin integrity and look for albumin levels
evaluate
276
with cirrhosis labs are ammonia and PT and ___
bilirubin
277
with cirrhosis relieve discomfort and have a __ Na diet(for ascites and edema)
low
278
with cirrhosis ask about ETOHism and hepatitis in past __
HH
279
with cirrhosis assess jaundice and weight __
loss
280
with cirrhosis ___ ab distention and nausea
assess
281
with cirrhosis ____ altered mental status and RUG pain
assess
282
chronic progressive disease
cirrhosis
283
destruction of liver cells and has scar tissue due to liver trying to heal after inflammation
cirrhosis
284
this has a insideous course and more common in men
cirrhosis
285
biliary ___ has biliary inflammation and obstruction
cirrhosis
286
cardiac ___ comes from RSHF
cirrhosis
287
enlarged liver/spleen and lethargic are ___ signs of cirrhosis
early
288
fever and BM changed are __ signs of cirrhosis
early
289
N/V and ab pain are ___ and late signs of cirrhosis
early
290
anorexia and dyspepsia are early and ___ signs of cirrhosis
late
291
liver breath and hematemsis are ____ signs of cirrhosis
late
292
varices are ___ signs of cirrhosis
late
293
jaundice and spider___ are signs of cirrhosis
angioma
294
red palms and blotchy red dots are sign of __
cirrhosis
295
anemia and low PLTs(thrombocytopenia) are signs of ____
cirrhosis
296
leukopenia(low WBC) and coag disorders are ___ of cirrhosis
signs
297
hypo(albumin and K) and Na imbalances are signs of ___
cirrhosis
298
portal hypertension and fluid retention are __ of cirrhosis
signs
299
peripheral edema and ascites are ___ of cirrhosis
signs
300
amenorrhea and testicle atrophy are s/s of ___
cirrhosis
301
man boobs and impotence are ___ of cirrhosis
s/s
302
asterixis(hand flapping) is ass with
cirrhosis
303
fever and fatigue are systemic __
infection
304
apetite loss and gross feeling are ___ infection
systemic
305
incision and red are local ____
infection
306
pus, swollen and warm are __ infection
local
307
invasion of microbe into body
infection
308
E. coli and women cause __
UTI
309
weak stream and enuresis is due to __
UTI
310
nocturia and incontinent due to __
UTI
311
urgency and frequent pee
UTI s/s
312
hematuria and hesitancy due to __
UTI
313
intermittency and dribly pee due to ___
UTI
314
dysuria and pain on peeing due to
UTI
315
confusion and less likely to have a fever with a UTI if young or old?
old
316
use a ___ to decrease the IVF in HF
diuretic
317
with furosemide, give at 8am and 2pm to prevent ___
nocturia
318
impaired cardiac pumping/filling(not enough CO)is what disease
HF
319
4-8L/min is a __ CO
normal
320
low QOL and short life is ass with __
HF
321
ventricular dysfunction and low exercise tolerance are ass with __
HF
322
__ sided HF is due to blood backing up
Left
323
LSHF has ___ probs
lung
324
you get RSHF from __ sided HF
left
325
JVD and portal HTN are __ of RSHF
s/s
326
hepato/splenomegaly and GI tract congestion are due to right___ HF
side
327
peripheral edema are due to right __ HF
side
328
fatigue and dyspnea are s/s of HF. t or f?
true
329
discoloration but intact skin from damage to underlying tissue.
suspected deep tissue injury, unknown depth
330
No determination of stage because eschar or slough obscures the wound. The actual depth of injury is unknown.
Unstageable/unclassified, full‑thickness skin or tissue loss, depth unknown
331
Wound margins are well approximated; examples include laceration and surgical incision. This process has the most rapid healing.
primary intention
332
Wound margins are not well approximated; larger wound area requires the formation of granulation tissue to fill in the gap. A longer period of time is needed to heal.
Secondary intention
333
Wound healing is delayed and occurs when the wound that was previously open is now closed. This process is usually associated with large infected and contaminated wounds.
Tertiary intention