Exam 1-4 Questions Flashcards

1
Q
Glycogen is a polysaccharide consisting of branching chains of the monomer \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Ribose
B. Fructose
C. Galactose
D. Glucose
A

D. Glucose

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2
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ serosa surround organs and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ serosa line body cavities.
A. Posterior/anterior
B. Anterior/posterior
C. Parietal/visceral
D. Visceral/parietal
A

D. Visceral/parietal

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3
Q
Compounds that stabilize the pH of a solution by removing or replacing hydrogen ions are called \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Buffers
B. Salts
C. Anions
D. Monomers
A

A. Buffers

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4
Q
Thymine is replaced by which nitrogen base in RNA?
A. Guanine
B. Uracil
C. Cytosine
D. Thymine is not replaced in RNA
A

B. Uracil

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5
Q
Diffusion is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process and osmosis is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process.
A. Active; passive
B. Passive; active
C. Active; active
D. Passive; passive
A

D. Passive; passive

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6
Q
Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules compose the cell's framework which is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Molecular motor
B. Cell body
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Scaffolding
A

C. Cytoskeleton

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7
Q
The voltage that exists across the cell membrane of a non-stimulated cell is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Depolarization
B. Resting membrane potential
C. Zero potential
D. Graded potential
A

B. Resting membrane potential

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8
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a phospholipid bilayer that has hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties.
A. Cytoskeleton 
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi complex
D. Plasma membrane
A

D. Plasma membrane

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9
Q
What occurs if you place a red blood cell in an isotonic solution?
A. It will lyse
B. It will remain unchanged
C. It will crenate
D. It will be transported to a lysosome
A

B. It will remain unchanged

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10
Q
Intercalated discs are characteristic of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Smooth muscle
B. Nerve
C. All types of muscle
D. Cardiac muscle
A

D. Cardiac muscle

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11
Q

Chemical reactions that break down molecules are known as _________ and chemical reactions that build new molecules are known as _________.
A. Exchange reactions; kinetic reactions
B. Anabolic reactions; exchange reactions
C. Catabolic reactions; anabolic reactions
D. Kinetic reactions; catabolic reactions

A

C. Catabolic reactions; anabolic reactions

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12
Q
What kind of bond holds atoms in a water molecule together?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Ionic bonds
C. Covalent bonds
D. Van der Waals forces
A

C. Covalent bonds

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13
Q
DNA strands wind around histones to form a complex called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, so that a great deal of DNA can be packaged into a small space.
A. Nucleolus
B. Golgi
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleosome
A

D. Nucleosome

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14
Q
Which subatomic particles are found in an atom's nucleus?
A. Electrons and protons
B. Cations and anions
C. Neutrons and introns
D. Protons and neutrons
A

D. Protons and neutrons

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15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a fiber found in connective tissue proper?
A. Elastic fibers
B. Collagen fibers
C. Reticular fibers
D. Adipose fibers
A

D. Adipose fibers

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16
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ reactions use water to break apart a disaccharide into two monosaccharides.
A. Dehydration
B. Hydrolysis
C. Synthesis
D. Anabolic
A

B. Hydrolysis

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17
Q
What body section is described when a body is cut directly down the middle, resulting in right and left halves?
A. Coronal
B. Frontal
C. Sagittal
D. Equatorial
A

C. Sagittal

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18
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ produce most of the energy that is required for cellular function.
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Ribosomes
D. Microtubules
A

B. Mitochondria

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19
Q
The internal framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of \_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Adipose
B. Regular dense connective
C. Irregular dense connective
D. Reticular tissue
A

D. Reticular tissue

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20
Q

A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, it
A. Can repair itself readily
B. Cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months
C. Will be a long-lived cell
D. Can only divide once more

A

B. Cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months

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21
Q
The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as...
A. Matrix
B. Collagen
C. Chondroitin
D. Cartilage
A

A. Matrix

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22
Q
The enzyme \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is required for the synthesis of mRNA.
A. Ribase
B. RNA synthetase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Phosphatase
A

C. RNA polymerase

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23
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is referred to as "cell eating" and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is referred as "cell drinking"
A. Pinocytosis; phagocytosis
B. Phagocytosis; pinocytosis
C. Active transport; passive transport
D. Passive transport; active transport
A

B. Phagocytosis; pinocytosis

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive exposure of nicotine and carbon monoxide from cigarette smoke on cilia in the respiratory tract?
A. Cilia lose their ability to phagocytize
B. Cilia movement can become inefficient or cease
C. Cilia are damaged or destroyed
D. Respiratory infection and disease becomes more likely

A

B. Cilia movement can become inefficient or cease

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25
Q
Which of the following is NOT a type of formed element in the blood?
A. Platelets
B. White blood cells
C. Red blood cells
D. Chondrocytes
A

D. Chondrocytes

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26
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is tissue destruction that takes place after cells have been damaged or killed.
A. Necrosis
B. Fibrosis
C. Inflammation
D. Abscess
A

A. Necrosis

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27
Q

During lab, you notice that the kidneys are not directly associated with the other organs in the abdominal cavity. Upon closer inspection, you observe that they are located outside of the peritoneal lining. Which response best describes the position of the kidneys?
A. The kidneys are infraperitoneal with respect to the abdominal cavity
B. The kidneys are retroperitoneal to the abdominal cavity
C. The kidneys lie within the parietal peritoneum
D. The kidneys lie within the visceral peritoneum

A

B. The kidneys are retroperitoneal to the abdominal cavity

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28
Q

A homeostatic regulatory mechanism consists of a(an) ___________, a(an) ___________, and a(an) __________.
A. Receptor, control center, effector
B. Cell, tissue, organ
C. Negative loop, positive loop, homeostatic cascade
D. Protons, neutrons, electron

A

A. Receptor, control center, effector

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29
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level of organization is the simplest and the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level of organization is the most complex.
A. Chemical; organism
B. Tissue; organ
C. Cellular; organ system
D. Organism; cellular
A

A. Chemical; organism

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30
Q
mRNA carries the information needed to synthesize \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. A protein
B. A nucleotide
C. An anticodon
D. An intron
A

A. A protein

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31
Q
Alveoli are lung structures where gas exchange occurs. What type of epithelium would likely comprise alveoli?
A. Pseudostratified columnar
B. Simple squamous
C. Simple columnar
D. Simple cuboidal
A

B. Simple squamous

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32
Q
What type of macromolecule can exhibit four types of structures when being synthesized that are described as primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures? 
A. Lipids
B. Nucleic acids
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrates
A

C. Proteins

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33
Q
During protein synthesis, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA has a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that binds to the next codon in the mRNA?
A. Anticodon
B. Enzyme
C. Promotor
D. Nucleotide
A

A. Anticodon

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34
Q
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Diaphragm
B. Mediastinum
C. Periosteum
D. Medial sulcus
A

A. Diaphragm

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35
Q
Compound microscopes are used to observe microorganisms. The microscope has two types of lenses called ocular and objective lenses. What body part is referred to by the anatomical term ocular?
A. Finger
B. Eye
C. Hand
D. Ear
A

B. Eye

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36
Q
The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, phosphate ion, and...
A. Adenosine
B. AMP
C. Energy
D. H2O
A

C. Energy

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37
Q
Which of the following is NOT a basic component of connective tissue?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Ground substance
C. Extracellular protein fibers
D. Specialized cells
A

A. Prostaglandins

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38
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process where damaged tissues are repaired or replaced, so that normal function is restored.
A. Inflammation
B. Regeneration
C. Necrosis
D. Fibrosis
A

B. Regeneration

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39
Q
An atom's second and third electron shells can hold up to \_\_\_\_\_\_ electrons, and the innermost electron shell can hold up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ electrons.
A. 6; 2
B. 6; 4
C. 8; 4
D. 8; 2
A

D. 8; 2

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40
Q
In homeostatic regulation, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tends to minimize change that occurred in the body while \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tends to enhance the change that triggered it.
A. Static feedback; negative feedback
B. Extrinsic feedback; static feedback
C. Positive feedback; extrinsic feedback
D. Negative feedback; positive feedback
A

D. Negative feedback; positive feedback

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41
Q
Inorganic compounds lack carbon while organic compounds contain carbon, but there are exceptions to these rules. Which of the following carbon-containing molecules is inorganic?
A. Glucose
B. Peptides
C. Triglycerides
D. Carbon dioxide
A

D. Carbon dioxide

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42
Q
Disease is an indicator of...
A. Homeostatic failure
B. Positive feedback
C. Signs and symptoms
D. Negative feedback
A

A. Homeostatic failure

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43
Q
The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of...
A. Cutaneous membranes
B. Serous membranes
C. The lamina propria
D. Synovial membranes
A

B. Serous membranes

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44
Q

You are a pathology intern at a prestigious medical school. Your instructor presents you with a box of leg bones and asks you to place them on the table in the correct anatomical position. You recall that anatomical position is determined ___________.
A. In reference to the sagittal plane
B. In reference to the subject’s right and left
C. In reference to the superior and inferior ends
D. In reference to your left and right

A

B. In reference to the subject’s right and left

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45
Q

Which of the following is a TRUE statement?
A. The wrist is proximal to the shoulder
B. The thigh bone is superficial to the skin on the thigh
C. The nose is superior to the forehead
D. The heart is medial to the shoulder

A

D. The heart is medial to the shoulder

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46
Q
What type of exocrine glandular secretion releases its product using secretory vesicles via exocytosis?
A. Endocrine
B. Apocrine
C. Holocrine
D. Merocrine
A

D. Merocrine

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47
Q
What type of chemical reaction does this equation depict?
AB + CD --> AD + CB 
A. Exchange reaction
B. Decomposition reaction
C. Synthesis reaction
D. Dehydration reaction
A

A. Exchange reaction

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48
Q
A person standing erect, looking forward, arms by their sides with palms facing forward is said to be in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ position.
A. Terminal 
B. Axillary
C. Prone
D. Anatomical
A

D. Anatomical

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49
Q
An accumulation of pus in an enclosed tissue space is called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Metastasis
B, Fibrosis
C. Keloid
D. Abscess
A

D. Abscess

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50
Q
According to the rules of complementary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair with the base...
A. Cytosine
B. Guanine
C. Uracil
D. Thymine
A

B. Guanine

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51
Q

Which of the following bone markings is INCORRECTLY described?
A. Neck - narrow connection between the epiphysis and diaphysis
B. Sinus - chamber within a bone
C. Condyle - shallow depression
D. Facet - small, flat articular surface

A

C. Condyle - shallow depression

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52
Q

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the sternum?
A. The xiphoid process can be broken when administering CPR
B. Made of the sternal body, manubrium, and xiphoid process
C. The sternal body has a jugular notch
D. Commonly known as the breastbone

A

C. The sternal body has a jugular notch

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53
Q
Sometimes when we hit our elbow against a hard object, numbing and tingling occurs. Some call this hitting your "funny bone". What nerve is being struck to cause these sensations?
A. Radial nerve
B. Antibrachial
C. Brachial nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
A

D. Ulnar nerve

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54
Q

Which of the following factors determine skin color?
A. Dermal blood supply
B. All listed responses contribute to skin color
C. Melanin
D. Carotene

A

B. All listed responses contribute to skin color

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55
Q
The proximal and distal phalanges of the thumb are known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the proximal and distal phalanges big toe are known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Talus; calcaneus
B. Trapezium; scaphoid
C. Pollux; hallux
D. Hamate; pisiform
A

C. Pollux; hallux

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56
Q

The function of yellow bone marrow is _________, and the function of red bone marrow is _________.
A. An energy reserve; an energy reserve
B. Blood cell formation; an energy reserve
C. Blood cell formation; blood cell formation
D. An energy reserve; blood cell formation

A

D. An energy reserve; blood cell formation

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57
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a peptide that has widespread effects on epithelia found throughout the body.
A. Keratinocyte mediating hormone
B. Dermal plasticity hormone
C. Collagen stimulating hormone
D. Epidermal growth factor
A

D. Epidermal growth factor

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58
Q
In the lower extremities, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a sesamoid bone that forms within a tendon of a group of muscles called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Capitate; malleolal muscles 
B. Hamate; interosseous muscles
C. Calcaneus; Achille's rectus
D. Patella; quadriceps femoris
A

D. Patella; quadriceps femoris

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59
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
A. Hyoid
B. Vomer
C. Atlas
D. Lacrimal
A

A. Hyoid

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60
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones have tympanic cavities that house the auditory ossicles.
A. Temporal
B. Ethmoid
C. Occipital
D. Sphenoid
A

A. Temporal

61
Q
Which of the following is NOT a step of bone fracture repair?
A. Nervous tissue regeneration
B. Callus formation
C. Spongy bone formation
D. Compact bone formation
A

A. Nervous tissue regeneration

62
Q
To detect melanoma at an early stage, the mnemonic "ABCDE" is used to remember this cancer's key characteristics. What does the "D" stand for in the mnemonic?
A. Dermal
B. Distance
C. Diameter
D. Density
A

C. Diameter

63
Q
The superficial layer that covers the outside of bones is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Periosteum
B. Epiosteum
C. Exosteum
D. Endosteum
A

A. Periosteum

64
Q
Which of the following does NOT describe cervical vertebrae?
A. Small
B. Has facets for rib articulations
C. Large vertebral foramen
D. Oval body
A

B. Has facets for rib articulations

65
Q
TMJ syndrome is associates with the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sphenoid bone; vomer
B. Ethmoid bone; maxilla
C. Temporal bones; the mandible
D. Occipital bone; frontal bone
A

C. Temporal bones; the mandible

66
Q
Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor required for bone growth and maintenance?
A. Vitamin D3 
B. Calcium
C. Triglycerides
D. Minerals
A

C. Triglycerides

67
Q
Metacarpal bones and metatarsal bones are identified by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ instead of specific names.
A. Their muscle groups
B. Letters A-E
C. Their shape
D. Roman numbers I-V
A

D. Roman numerals I-V

68
Q

The condyle of the humerus is divided into two articular regions called the _________ and _________. The ulna articulates with the __________.
A. Medial malleolus and lateral malleolus; lateral malleolus
B. Medial malleolus and lateral malleolus; medial malleolus
C. Trochlea and capitulum; capitulum
D. Trochlea and capitulum; trochlea

A

D. Trochlea and capitulum; trochlea

69
Q
One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the...
A. Distal epiphysis of the femur
B. Coxal bones
C. Patellar surface of the femur
D. Neck of the femur
A

D. Neck of the femur

70
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe the stratum basal?
A. This layer is not found in the soles of the feet
B. This layer is the deepest layer of the epidermis
C. This layer contains Merkle cells
D. This layer contains melanocytes

A

A. This layer is not found in the soles of the feet

71
Q

The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders?
A. Anterior, posterior, and superior borders
B. Superior, medial, and lateral borders
C. Scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders
D. Pectoral borders

A

B. Superior, medial, and lateral borders

72
Q
Sebaceous glands produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and ceruminous glands produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Earwax; tears
B. Tears; saliva
C. Saliva; sebum
D. Sebum; earwax
A

D. Sebum; earwax

73
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ joint articulates the scapula to the humerus at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Glenohumeral; glenoid cavity
B. Sacroiliac; ischium
C. Acromioclavicular; head
D. Sternoclavicular; acetabulum
A

A. Glenohumeral; glenoid cavity

74
Q
Non-ossified areas between cranial bones that allow for brain growth in infants and small children are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sutures
B. Sinuses
C. Fragmentations
D. Fontanelles
A

D. Fontanelles

75
Q
During development, most bones originate as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cartilage model, which are replaced with bone in a process called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Elastic; endochondral ossification
B. Hyaline; intramembranous ossification
C. Hyaline; endochondral ossification
D. Elastic; intramembranous ossification
A

C. Hyaline; endochondral ossification

76
Q
Rib pairs 11-12 are also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ribs.
A. Vertebrochondral
B. Vertebrosternal
C. Floating
D. True
A

C. Floating

77
Q

List the five vertebral regions from superior to inferior.
A. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
B. Occipital, cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccygeal, sacral
D. Thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, sacral

A

A. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

78
Q
The overproduction of growth hormone before puberty can cause a condition called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Gigantism
B. Hashimoto's
C. Marfan's
D. Acromegaly
A

A. Gigantism

79
Q
What term is used to describe the thickened stratum corneum underlying the free nail edge?
A. Hyponychium
B. Nail root
C. Proximal nail fold
D. Eponychium
A

A. Hyponychium

80
Q
Which of the following is NOT a layer in a strand of hair?
A. Cuticle
B. Shaft
C. Medulla
D. Cortex
A

B. Shaft

81
Q
The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Fibrocytic
B. Granulation
C. Germinative
D. Abscess
A

B. Granulation

82
Q
The shaft of a long bone is also called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Metaphysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Medullary cavity
A

C. Diaphysis

83
Q

Which of the following bone cells is INCORRECTLY described?
A. Osteocyte - produce chondrocytes
B. Osteoblasts - build bone matrix
C. Osteogenic cells - produce osteoblasts
D. Osteoclasts - dissolves bone matrix

A

A. Osteocyte - produce chondrocytes

84
Q
Cervical vertebra C1 is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and C2 is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Axis; cervical foramen
B. Vertebral prominens; atlas
C. Atlas; axis
D. Cervical foramen; vertebral prominens
A

C. Atlas; axis

85
Q
Decubitus ulcers are also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Ingrown hairs
B. Carbuncles
C. Bedsores
D. Necrotic tissue
A

C. Bedsores

86
Q
A male has a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
A. Deeper
B. Wider
C. Longer
D. Narrower
A

D. Narrower

87
Q
The medial part of the clavicle is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ end and the lateral part is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ end.
A. Sternal; acromial
B. Coracoid; acromial
C. Manubrial; sternal
D. Acromial; manubrial
A

A. Sternal; acromial

88
Q
The constant recycling of organic and mineral components of the bone matrix is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Bone remodeling
B. Osteo-recirculation
C. Phosphorylation
D. Calcification
A

A. Bone remodeling

89
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.
A. Elastic cartilage
B. A synovial membrane
C. Articular cartilage
D. Serous fluid
A

C. Articular cartilage

90
Q
An abnormal humped back in the thoracic region of the spin is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Myosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Lordosis
A

B. Kyphosis

91
Q
You are viewing a skin tissue section with a microscope and notice a clear layer called the stratum lucidum. What part of the body is the likely source of this specimen?
A. Knees or palms of hands
B. Palms of hands or soles of feet
C. Soles of feet or elbows
D. Elbows or knees
A

B. Palms of hands or soles of feet

92
Q
Basal cells of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ divide, producing daughter cells that are gradually pushed toward the surface.
A. Hair vellus
B. Hair matrix
C. Hair shaft
D. Hair terminal
A

B. Hair matrix

93
Q
Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of...
A. Transverse processes
B. Facets for the articulation of ribs
C. Notched spinous processes
D. Transverse foramina
A

B. Facets for the articulations of ribs

94
Q
Stressing bones during exercise and weightlifting make bones \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. Thin; stronger
B. Brittle; thicker
C. Stronger; brittle
D. Thicker; stronger
A

D. Thicker; stronger

95
Q
The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ burn.
A. Second-degree
B. First-degree
C. Partial thickness
D. Third-degree
A

D. Third-degree

96
Q
A disorder known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs in an individual who has melanocytes that lack the ability to produce melanin.
A. Albinism
B. Addison's disease
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. Renaud's syndrome
A

A. Albinism

97
Q
During development a cleft palate forms when which bones fail to meet along the midline of the hard palate?
A. Zygomatic
B. Sphenoid
C. Ethmoid
D. Maxillae
A

D. Maxillae

98
Q
Small bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones.
A. Sagittal
B. Sutural
C. Sesamoid
D, Tendon
A

B. Sutural

99
Q
Which bone is comprised of the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
A. Sacrum
B. Shoulder girdle
C. Cranium
D. Coxal bones
A

D. Coxal bones

100
Q
If you were using your masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid muscles, what would you likely be doing?
A. Walking
B. Chewing
C. Throwing a ball
D. Sleeping
A

B. Chewing

101
Q
Cross-bridge detachment occurs when...
A. Voltage gated potassium channels open
B. Neurotransmitter is released
C. Another ATP binds to the myosin head
D. Calcium returns to the SR
A

C. Another ATP binds to the myosin head

102
Q
Where would you find the annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus?
A. Intervertebral discs
B. Menisci
C. Bursae
D. Articular cartilage
A

A. Intervertebral discs

103
Q
Nutrients are delivered, and wastes are absorbed by the process of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ across capillary walls as synovial fluid flows through the areolar tissue of the synovial membrane.
A. Active transport
B. Diffusion
C. Co-export
D. Symport
A

B. Diffusion

104
Q
The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the...
A. Fat pads
B. Medial menisci
C. Cruciate ligaments
D. Popliteal ligaments
A

A. Fat pads

105
Q
The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the...
A. Clavicle
B. Sternum
C. Occipital bone
D. Mastoid process of the temporal bone
A

D. Mastoid process of the temporal bone

106
Q
What type of contraction occurs when the muscle as a whole does not change length, and the tension produced never exceeds the load.
A. Accentric
B. Isometric
C. Concentric
D. Eccentric
A

B. Isometric

107
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the amount of oxygen required to restore muscle to normal, pre-exertion conditions.
A. Carbon dioxide load
B. Oxygen debt
C. Recovery
D. Regeneration
A

B. Oxygen debt

108
Q

Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur.

  1. Cross-bridge detachment
  2. Cross-bridge formation
  3. Active site exposure
  4. Myosin reactivation
  5. Calcium ions bind troponin
  6. Myosin head pivoting

A. 5,3,2,6,4,1
B. 3,5,2,6,1,4
C. 5,3,2,6,1,4
D. 5,3,6,2,1,4

A

C. 5,3,2,6,1,4

109
Q
Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include...
A. Strong muscular padding
B. All of the answers are correct
C. Almost complete bony socket
D. Supporting ligaments
A

B. All of the answers are correct

110
Q
When you sprain your ankle, what structure is damaged?
A. Aponeuroses 
B. Ligaments
C. The talus bone
D. Bursae
A

B. Ligaments

111
Q
The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called...
A. Treppe
B. Recruitment
C. Incomplete tetanus
D. Wave summation
A

B. Recruitment

112
Q
The trochlea of the humerus articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ joint.
A. Radiocarpal
B. Radio-ulnar
C. Humero-ulnar
D. Ulnocarpal
A

C. Humero-ulnar

113
Q
Synovial joint accessory structures called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are small, thin, fluid-filled pockets that reduce friction and act as shock absorbers.
A. Bursae
B. Fat pads
C. Menisci
D. Lacteals
A

A. Bursae

114
Q
An \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a muscle whose action opposes that of a particular prime mover.
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Fixator
D. Synergist
A

B. Antagonist

115
Q

The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except…
A. The collagen content of the muscle
B. The angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body
C. The action of the muscle
D. Structural characteristics of the muscle

A

A. The collagen content of the muscle

116
Q
Fatigued muscles signify \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Oxygen recovery
B. Lowered body temperature
C. Accumulation of pyruvic acid
D. Decreased pH
A

D. Decreased pH

117
Q
What is the function of the levator labii superioris?
A. Elevates the upper lip
B. Flexes the hallux
C. Extends the knee
D. Closes the eye
A

A. Elevates the upper lip

118
Q
The National Stroke Association alerts the public about stroke by means of the catchy phrase "Act FAST'. What does the "S" in "FAST" stand for?
A. Salivating
B. Shock
C. Senescence
D. Speech
A

D. Speech

119
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lever is most common in the body.
A. Third-class
B. First-class
C. Fourth-class
D. Second-class
A

A. Third-class

120
Q
What type of muscle requires calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase for contraction?
A. Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. Skeletal
D. Reticular
A

A. Smooth

121
Q
Which of the following is NOT a ligament associated with the shoulder joint?
A. Ligamenta flava
B. Glenohumeral
C. Coraco-acromial
D. Acromioclavicular
A

A. Ligamenta flava

122
Q
Superficial muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  Muscles located entirely within an organ are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Rectus; tarsus
B. Tranversus; oblique
C. Profundus; superficilis
D. Extrinsic; intrinsic
A

D. Extrinsic; intrinsic

123
Q
The facial muscle named the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ comes from a Latin word that means "one who laughs."
A. Risorius
B. Sartorius
C. Buccinator
D. Orbicularis
A

A. Risorius

124
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hernia forms when an organ such as the stomach protrudes through the passageway used by the esophagus.
A. Intestinal
B. Hiatal
C. Inguinal
D. Pelvic
A

B. Hiatal

125
Q
The greater the range of motion at a joint, the weaker it becomes.Using this information, which of the following joints would be the most likely to dislocate?
A. Shoulder joint
B. Elbow joint
C. Knee joint
D. Vertebral joint
A

A. Shoulder joint

126
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position.
A. Sprain
B. Bursitis
C. Dislocation
D. Fracture
A

C. Dislocation

127
Q
After the active site on G-actin is exposed, the myosin head binds to it forming a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sarcomere
B. Z-line
C. Cross-bridge
D. Wave
A

C. Cross-bridge

128
Q
Which of the following is FALSE concerning the extensor pollicis longus?
A. It moves the toe
B. It is associate with the hand/thumb
C. It is a long muscle
D. It functions in extension
A

A. It moves the toe

129
Q
An extension past the anatomical position is known as...
A. Rotation
B. Extension
C. Hyperextension
D. Double-jointed
A

C. Hyperextension

130
Q
Energy stored in creatine phosphate regenerates ADP to ATP using an enzyme called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Myosin light chain kinase
B. Phosphodiesterase
C. Creatine kinase
D. ATP synthase
A

C. Creatine kinase

131
Q
A person is standing upright with their hand by their sides. They raise their arms up at a 90 degree angle to their body, so they are in a T-shaped position. What type of movement is this?
A. Abduction
B. Supination
C. Adduction
D. Pronation
A

A. Abduction

132
Q
What type of muscle tissue functions to coordinate the movement of substances through internal passageways?
A. Skeletal
B. Smooth
C. Reticular
D. Cardiac
A

B. Smooth

133
Q

Which of the following synovial joints is incorrectly matched with an example joint located in the body?
A. An example of a hinge joint is the radiocarpal joint
B. An example of a pivot joint is the atlanto-axial joint
C. An example of a plane joint is the intercarpal joints
D. An example of a ball-and-socket joint is the hip joint

A

A. An example of a hinge joint is the radiocarpal joint

134
Q
A histologist microscopically views muscle tissue and observes muscle cells that are branched, possess a single, centrally placed nucleus, and contain intercalated discs. What type of muscle are they observing?
A. Reticular
B. Smooth
C. Skeletal
D. Cardiac
A

C. Skeletal

135
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle fibers fatigue quickly due to relatively few mitochondria, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle fibers don't fatigue as quickly because they contain numerous mitochondria. 
A. Fast; slow
B. Treppe; twitch
C. Slow; fast
D. Twitch; treppe
A

A. Fast; slow

136
Q
Which of the following special movements is associated with movement of the foot?
A. Protraction and retraction
B. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
C. Pronation and supination
D. Opposition and reposition
A

B. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

137
Q
The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the...
A. Origin 
B. Insertion
C. Lever
D. Aponeurosis
A

B. Insertion

138
Q
An autoimmune disease called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when the immune response mistakenly attacks the joint tissues.
A. Degenerative joint disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Gouty arthritis
A

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

139
Q
Stem cells in the endomysium called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells function in repair of damaged muscle tissue.
A. Osteoclast
B. Myosatellite
C. Chrondroblast
D. Basal
A

B. Myosatellite

140
Q
Which of the following muscles is not a hamstring muscle?
A. Semitendinosus
B. Teres major
C. Semimembranosus
D. Biceps femoris
A

B. Teres major

141
Q
What type of fascicle arrangement is found in the pectoralis muscle of the chest?
A. Convergent muscle
B. Pennate muscle
C. Parallel muscle
D. Circular muscle
A

A. Convergent muscle

142
Q
When you hear of a sports player ripping their ACL, where in the body is their injury?
A. Hip joint
B. Elbow joint
C. Knee joint
D. Vertebral
A

C. Knee joint

143
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ consists of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls.
A. Synapse
B. Summation
C. Motor unit
D. Junction
A

C. Motor unit

144
Q

Which of the following lists joints from the greatest range of motion to the least range of motion?
A. Synarthrosis, diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis
B. Diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, synarthrosis
C. Amphiarthrosis, synarthrosis, diarthrosis
D. Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

A

B. Diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, synarthrosis

145
Q
Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue?
A. Sternohyoid
B. Geniohyoid
C. Hypoglossus
D. Thyrohyoid
A

C. Hypoglossus

146
Q
The muscle action potential penetrates deep into a fiber along the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Transverse tubules
C. Sarcolemma
D. Neuromuscular junction
A

B. Transverse tubules

147
Q
If the stimulation continues and the muscle fiber is never allowed to relax completely, tension will increase until it reaches its maximum potential tension. This is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Tetanus
B. Power stroke
C. Twitch
D. Treppe
A

A. Tetanus

148
Q
The link between the generation of an action potential in the sarcolemma and the start of a muscle contraction is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Power stroking
B. Cross-bridging
C. Excitation-contraction coupling
D. Activation
A

C. Excitation-contraction coupling

149
Q
What action would you likely not be able to perform if you tore your supraspinatus and subscapularis muscles?
A. Throw a ball
B. Move your thumb
C. Bend over
D. Kick a ball
A

A. Throw a ball