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Anatomy and Physiology Lecture > Chapter 5-8 Mastering Practice Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 5-8 Mastering Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called...
A. Scars
B. Keloids
C. Scabs
D. Blisters
E. Pus
A

D. Blisters

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2
Q 
Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ perspiration.
A. Insensible
B. Non-sense
C. Imprudent
D. Impractical
E. Vacuous
A

A. Insensible

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3
Q 
The protein that reduces water loss at the skin surface is...
A. Collagen
B. Mucin
C. Eleidin
D. Melanin
E. Keratin
A

E. Keratin

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4
Q 
While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
A

E. 5

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5
Q

Ultraviolet light causes production of vitamin D3 in the cells of the _________.
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. All of the listed responses are correct

A

A. Epidermis

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6
Q

Epidermal growth factor stimulates ___________.
A. Mitosis
B. Repair
C. Glandular secretion
D. All of the listed responses are correct

A

D. All of the listed responses are correct

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7
Q 
Which plexus supplies blood to the capillary loops that follow the epidermis-dermis boundary?
A. Mucosal plexus
B. Cutaneous plexus
C. Submucosal plexus
D. Subpapillary plexus
E. Epidermal plexus
A

D. Subpapillary plexus

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8
Q 
The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ layer.
A. Hypodermal
B. Epidermal
C. Subcutaneous
D. Reticular
E. Papillary
A

D. Reticular

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9
Q 
While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. This is a sign of...
A. Malfunctioning elastin
B. Hydration intoxication
C. Water intoxication
D. Dehydration
E. Advanced skin cancer
A

D. Dehydration

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10
Q 
What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure?
A. Meissner's corpuscles
B. Lamellar corpuscle
C. Tactile disc
D. Merkel cells
E. Tactile corpuscles
A

B. Lamellar corpuscle

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11
Q

Two women are comparable in age, body conformation, and are pregnant at the same time, but one experiences stretch marks, while the other does not. What would be a possible hypothesis for why there was an observed difference?
A. The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio
B. The woman may have different gender babies
C. The woman with less stretch marks has larger skin cells
D. The woman without stretch marks has more cholesterol in her diet, which affects her cell membranes

A

A. The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio

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12
Q 
Which layer of the dermis contains the capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory nerve fibers that supply the epidermis?
A. Reticular layer
B. Stratum basale
C. Subcutaneous layer
D. Papillary layer
A

D. Papillary layer

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13
Q 
The skin can move easily over the underlying muscles because of the loose connective tissue within the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Dermis
B. Cutaneous membrane
C. Epidermis
D. Hypodermis
A

D. Hypodermis

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14
Q 
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce...
A. Melanin
B. Eleidin
C. Carotene
D. Keratin
E. Perspiration
A

A. Melanin

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15
Q 
Cyanosis signifies that a patient has...
A. Been exposed to cyanide
B. An allergic reaction
C. Oxygen-starved skin
D. Been kept out of the sun
E. Had too much sun
A

C. Oxygen-starved skin

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16
Q 
The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called...
A. Cadmium
B. Melanin
C. Carotene
D. Keratin
E. Hemoglobin
A

C. Carotene

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17
Q

Sheila is an American Indian, Jordan is an African American, and Melissa is Asian American. List these individuals in the order of who has the most melanocytes to who has the least.
A. Sheila, Jordan, Melissa
B. Jordan, Melissa, Sheila
C. Jordan, Sheila, Melissa
D. The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes

A

D. The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes

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18
Q 
A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is...
A. Beriberi
B. Osteoporosis
C. Decubitus ulcers
D. Rickets
E. Seborrheic dermatitis
A

D. Rickets

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19
Q 
The most dangerous type of skin cancer is called...
A. Psoriasis
B. Keratosis
C. Melanoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Basal cell carcinoma
A

C. Melanoma

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20
Q 
Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called...
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Psoriasis
C. Keratosis
D. Melanoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

A. Basal cell carcinoma

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21
Q 
Which pigment is responsible for blushing?
A. Carotene
B. Pheomelanin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
E. Eumelanin
A

C. Hemoglobin

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22
Q

During the winter months, populations living in cold climates show greater frequency of broken bones than populations living in warm, sunny climates. What might be a possible solution to this problem?
A. A dietary supplement of cholecalciferol
B. Staying warmer
C. Taking vitamin B3
D. Exercising more frequently

A

A. A dietary supplement of cholecalciferol

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23
Q 
Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs?
A. Never found on the feet
B. Also known as "peach fuzz"
C. Persists throughout the entire life
D. Deeply pigmented and somewhat coarse
E. Exists primarily in fetuses
A

E. Exists primarily in fetuses

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24
Q 
Fine hairs (like "velvet") that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hairs.
A. Vellus
B. Veneer
C. Terminal
D. Lanugo
E. Gossamer
A

A. Vellus

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25
Q 
Coarse pigmented hairs are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hairs.
A. Gossamer
B. Terminal
C. Veneer
D. Lanugo
E. Vellus
A

B. Terminal

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26
Q 
The network of sensory nerves that surrounds the base of each hair follicle is the...
A. Hair papilla
B. Hair matrix
C. Subpapillary plexus
D. Cutaneous plexus
E. Root hair plexus
A

E. Root hair plexus

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27
Q 
Hair growth is due to the continual division of the basal cells of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Hair shaft
B. Hair papilla
C. Hair root
D. Hair matrix
A

D. Hair matrix

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28
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.
A. Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine
B. Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine
C. Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous
D. Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous
E. Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine
A

E. Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine

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29
Q 
Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal?
A. Sweat gland activity decreases
B. Evaporative cooling stops
C. The activity of melanocytes increases
D. Blood flow to the skin increases
E. Circulation in the skin decreases
A

D. Blood flow to the skin increases

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30
Q 
Nail production occurs at the nail...
A. Body
B. Bed
C. Root
D. Hyponychium
E. Cuticle
A

C. Root

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31
Q 
A child who skins his knee in a fall has a(n)...
A. Abrasion
B. Contusion
C. Incision
D. Puncture
E. Laceration
A

A. Abrasion

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32
Q 
The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ burn.
A. Epidermal
B. Partial-thickness
C. First-degree
D. Second-degree
E. Third-degree
A

E. Third-degree

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33
Q 
The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Fibrocytic
B. Abscess
C. Germinative
D. Spinous
E. Granulation
A

E. Granulation

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34
Q 
A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called...
A. Necrosis
B. Sepsis
C. Toxis
D. Noxious
E. Pernicious
A

B. Sepsis

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35
Q

The effects of aging on the skin include…
A. Thickening of the epidermis
B. Increased production of vitamin D
C. An increased blood supply to the dermis
D. A decreased number of sweat glands
E. A decline in the activity of sebaceous glands

A

E. A decline in the activity of sebaceous glands

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36
Q 
The shaft of long bones is called the...
A. Paraphysis
B. Metaphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Endophysis
E. Epiphysis
A

C. Diaphysis

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37
Q 
The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the...
A. Periphyses
B. Diaphyses
C. Epiphyseal plates
D. Epiphyses
E. Metaphyses
A

D. Epiphyses

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38
Q 
Small bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones.
A. Irregular
B. Tendon
C. Sagittal
D. Sesamoid
E. Sutural
A

E. Sutural

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39
Q 
A rounded passage or hole through a bone is called a...
A. Tubercle
B. Foramen
C. Ramus
D. Linea
E. Facet
A

B. Foramen

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40
Q 
Bones that have thin parallel surfaces are...
A. Long bones
B. Flat bones
C. Sesamoid bones
D. Short bones
E. Irregular bones
A

B. Flat bones

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41
Q 
Based on shape, a vertebra is an example of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bone.
A. Irregular
B. Short
C. Flat
D. Sutural
A

A. Irregular

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42
Q 
Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called...
A. Osteoid cells
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteoblasts
D. Osteoprogenitor cells
E. Osteoclasts
A

C. Osteoblasts

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43
Q 
The lacunae of osseous tissue contain...
A. Chondroblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Bone marrow
D. Capillaries
E. Blood cells
A

B. Osteocytes

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44
Q 
In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of...
A. Proteolytic enzymes
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Osteoid matrix
D. Hydroxyapatite
E. Calcitriol
A

D. Hydroxyapatite

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45
Q 
Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells.
A. Osteotrophic
B. Osteogenic
C. Osteoforming
D. Osteocreator
E. Osteopropagator
A

B. Osteogenic

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46
Q 
Cells that free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels are called...
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteolytics
D. Osteoclasts
E. Osteogenics
A

D. Osteoclasts

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47
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact. within movable joints.
A. A synovial membrane
B. Serous fluid
C. Articular cartilage
D. Elastic cartilage
E. A serous membrane
A

C. Articular cartilage

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48
Q

Roger has been lifting weights seriously for years. His twin brother Steven does not exercise regularly. Which of the following statements would be a reasonable hypothesis to make regarding differences between their skeletons?
A. Roger’s skeleton undergoes less osteolysis than Steven’s
B. Steven’s hydroxyapatite-collagen combination is less than Roger’s
C. Roger’s osteoblasts are more active than Steven’s
D. All of the listed responses are correct

A

D. All of the listed responses are correct

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49
Q 
The central canal of an osteon contains...
A. Lacunae
B. Bone marrow
C. Concentric lamellae
D. Osteocytes
E. Blood vessels
A

E. Blood vessels

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50
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone.
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Gray
D. Red
E. White
A

D. Red

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51
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fibers are stronger than steel when stretched.
A. Elastic
B. Collagen
C. Calcium
D. Mineral
E. Carbon
A

B. Collagen

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52
Q 
Spongy bone contains an open meshwork of osseous spicules called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Trabeculae
B. Lacunae
C. Osteons
D. Concentric lamellae
A

A. Trabeculae

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53
Q 
The process by which osteoblasts add layers to circumferential lamellae is...
A. Endochondral ossification
B. Appositional growth
C. Epiphyseal ossification
D. Interstitial growth
E. Intramembranous growth
A

B. Appositional growth

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54
Q 
During the process of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, an existing tissue is replaced by bone.
A. Resorption
B. Remodeling
C. Osteopropagation
D. Ossification
E. Phosphorylation
A

D. Ossification

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55
Q 
The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?
A. Fibrocartilage
B. Osseous cartilage
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Synovial cartilage
E. Hyaline cartilage
A

E. Hyaline cartilage

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56
Q

Suppose that epiphyseal lines appear in a 10-year-old’s long bones. Which of the following statements is, therefore, true?
A. More growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate rebuilding of growth plates.
B. Administration of growth hormone will stimulate future bone growth in length.
C. Intramembranous ossification will enable further growth in length.
D. The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible.
E. Osteoclasts will dissolve the metaphysis so length growth can continue until adulthood.

A

D. The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible.

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57
Q 
When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones...
A. Grow wider
B. Become more porous and weaker
C. Become shorter
D. Become thicker
E. Grow longer
A

E. Grow longer

58
Q 
During endochondral bone formation, the primary ossification center is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Diaphysis
B. Proximal epiphysis
C. Distal epiphysis
D. Metaphysis
A

A. Diaphysis

59
Q 
The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called...
A. Resorption
B. Remodeling
C. Ossification
D. Restoration
E. Osteolysis
A

B. Remodeling

60
Q

How do sex hormones affect bone growth?
A. They stimulate the cleavage of hydroxyapatite
B. They cause ossification to be faster than cartilage replacement
C. They cause osteoporosis
D. Testosterone stimulates osteoclast activity
E. Estrogen causes slower epiphyseal closure

A

B. They cause ossification to be faster than cartilage replacement

61
Q 
Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the intestines?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Estrogen
C. Thyroxine
D. Calcitriol
E. Calcitonin
A

D. Calcitriol

62
Q

One of the reasons that men can grow taller than women is because __________.
A. Estrogens stimulate epiphyseal closure earlier than androgens
B. Estrogens stimulate the synthesis of bone matrix
C. Androgens stimulate osteoblast activity
D. Androgens stimulate increased osteoclast activity

A

A. Estrogens stimulate epiphyseal closure earlier than androgens

63
Q 
A child with rickets often has...
A. Frequent bruises
B. Long fingers
C. Oversized facial bones
D. Inadequate muscle development
E. Bowed legs
A

E. Bowed legs

64
Q

Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-related disease be prevented?
A. Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C
B. Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair
C. Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat
D. Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair
E. Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy

A

A. Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C

65
Q 
The disease osteomalacia causes calcium loss from the skeleton, which would result in bones that are...
A. Stronger and heavier
B. Weaker and more brittle
C. Weaker and more flexible
D. More resistant to compression
E. Stronger and contain more spongy bone
A

C. Weaker and more flexible

66
Q 
An open or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fracture projects through the skin.
A. Exposed
B. External
C. Complicated
D. Compound
E. Complex
A

D. Compound

67
Q 
In a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fracture one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent.
A. Comminuted
B. Greenstick
C. Compression
D. Transverse
E. Spiral
A

B. Greenstick

68
Q 
After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the...
A. Epiphyseal plate
B. Condyle
C. External callus
D. Fracture facet
E. Dense tuberosity
A

C. External callus

69
Q 
A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and compromises normal function is called...
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteopenia
D. Osteitis
E. Osteomyelitis
A

B. Osteoporosis

70
Q 
Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she prescribe for Mary?
A. Growth hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Estrogen
E. Thyroid hormone
A

D. Estrogen

71
Q 
A thickening of the frontal bone that helps protect the eye is the...
A. Frontal suture
B. Superior orbital fissure
C. Optic canal
D. Frontal sinuses
E. Supra-orbital margin
A

E. Supra-orbital margin

72
Q 
Which portion of the temporal bone houses the structures of the internal ear?
A. Zygomatic
B. Styloid
C. Petrous
D. Mastoid
E. Squamous
A

C. Petrous

73
Q 
Air-filled chambers found in several bones of the skull are called...
A. Conchae
B. Fossae
C. Fontanelles
D. Sutures
E. Sinuses
A

E. Sinuses

74
Q 
The occipital \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra.
A. Fossae
B. Condyles
C. Foramina
D. Tubercles
E. Processes
A

B. Condyles

75
Q 
The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ suture. 
A. Lambdoid
B. Central
C. Coronal
D. Posterior
E. Sagittal
A

A. Lambdoid

76
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain.
A. Skull
B. Cephalum
C. Centrum
D. Cortex
E. Cranium
A

E. Cranium

77
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
A. Atlas
B. Hyoid
C. Vomer
D. Ethmoid
E. Lacrimal
A

B. Hyoid

78
Q 
Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the...
A. Internal acoustic meatus
B. Sella turcica
C. Mastoid cells
D. Petrous portion
E. Mandibular fossa
A

B. Sella turcica

79
Q 
A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the...
A. Crista galli
B. Temporal
C. Maxilla
D. Ethmoid
E. Sphenoid
A

E. Sphenoid

80
Q 
While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have?
A. A sore jaw
B. A sore chest
C. A headache
D. A black eye
E. A sore back
A

C. A headache

81
Q 
Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the...
A. Medial and lateral nuchal lines
B. Anterior and superior nuchal lines
C. Anterior and posterior nuchal lines
D. Cranial and caudal nuchal lines
E. Inferior and superior nuchal lines
A

E. Inferior and superior nuchal lines

82
Q 
During development a cleft palate forms when which bones fail to meet along the midline of the hard palate?
A. Zygomatic
B. Temporal
C. Sphenoid
D. Ethmoid
E. Maxillae
A

E. Maxillae

83
Q 
Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured?
A. Mandible
B. Temporal bone
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Parietal bone
E. Zygomatic bone
A

C. Ethmoid bone

84
Q 
Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken
A. Temporal bone
B. External auditory meatus
C. Zygomatic bone
D. Clavicle
E. Mandible
A

E. Mandible

85
Q

Harold, a former boxer, complains of tingling and numbness in the external, anterior portion of his left lower jaw. Before confirming with further tests, the most obvious diagnosis is that __________.
A. Harold has potential blockage of the mental foramen that impinges on the chin nerves
B. Harold suffers from osteoporosis
C. Harold has loose teeth and strained gums resulting in loss of dental integrity
D. Harold’s jaw is unaligned at the temporomandibular joint

A

A. Harold has potential blockage of the mental foramen that impinges on the chin nerves

86
Q 
Sinus inflammation is called...
A. Sinusitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Asthma
D. Postnasal drip
E. Congestion
A

A. Sinusitis

87
Q 
A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ septum.
A. Crooked
B. Deviated
C. Restrictive
D. Deviant
E. Obstructive
A

B. Deviated

88
Q 
In the condition known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, premature closure of all of the cranial sutures results in restricted brain growth and an undersized head.
A. Anencephaly
B. Microcephaly
C. Epicranial block
D. Craniostenosis
E. Membranitis
A

B. Microcephaly

89
Q 
The fibrous connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are...
A. Sutures
B. Fibrocartilaginous discs
C. Foramina
D. Wormian bones
E. Fontanelles
A

E. Fontanelles

90
Q 
While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is...
A. Sphenoidal fontanelle
B. Anterior fontanelle
C. Cushion spot
D. Mastoid fontanelle
E. Occipital fontanelle
A

B. Anterior fontanelle

91
Q 
The two spinal curves present at birth are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ curves.
A. Fetal
B. Congenital
C. Primary
D. Compensation
A

C. Primary

92
Q 
Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the inferior articular processes of the superior vertebra and facets on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae.
A. Lamellae
B. Dens
C. Superior articular processes
D. Pedicles
E. Transverse processes
A

C. Superior articular processes

93
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ allow for a wide range of head movements.
A. Cervical vertebrae
B. Temporomandibular joints
C. Intervertebral discs
D. Hyoid bones
E. Occipital condyles
A

A. Cervical vertebrae

94
Q 
The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the...
A. Vertebral body
B. Articular processes
C. Transverse processes
D. Vertebral arch
E. Intervertebral space
A

A. Vertebral body

95
Q 
The term \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement of the cervical vertebrae during a sudden change in body position.
A. Rearrangement
B. Fracture
C. Adjustment
D. Remodel
E. Whiplash
A

E. Whiplash

96
Q 
The widest intervertebral discs are found in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ region.
A. Sacral
B. Coccygeal
C. Cervical
D. Lumbar
E. Thoracic
A

D. Lumbar

97
Q 
The ability to nod "yes" is due to the articulation of which two bones?
A. Atlas and axis
B. Axis and occipital
C. Atlas and C3
D. Axis and C3
E. Atlas and occipital
A

E. Atlas and occipital

98
Q

Gesturing “no” with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae?
A. Axis
B. Atlas
C. Vertebra prominens
D. Both the atlas and the axis
E. Both the atlas and the vertebra prominens

A

D. Both the atlas and the axis

99
Q 
Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of...
A. Notched spinous processes
B. Costal cartilages
C. Transverse foramina
D. Facets for the articulation of ribs
E. Transverse processes
A

D. Facets for the articulation of ribs

100
Q 
The spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae fuse to form the...
A. Sacral tuberosity
B. Median sacral crest
C. Sacral canal
D. Sacral hiatus
E. Lateral sacral crest
A

B. Median sacral crest

101
Q 
Spinal nerves run to and from the spinal cord within what structure?
A. Vertebral foramen
B. Intervertebral foramina
C. Vertebral arch
D. Foramen magnum
A

B. Intervertebral foramina

102
Q 
Ribs 8 to 12 are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
A. Floating
B. False
C. Fibrous
D. Free
E. Filamentous
A

B. False

103
Q 
The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the...
A. Manubrium
B. Body
C. Angle
D. Xiphoid process
E. Tuberculum
A

A. Manubrium

104
Q 
When administering CPR, one structure that serves as both a landmark and a cause for concern is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Manubrium
B. Jugular notch
C. Xiphoid process
D. False ribs
A

C. Xiphoid process

105
Q

What feature (or features) allows the bony thoracic cage to increase or decrease its volume during breathing?
A. Attachments of the intercostal muscles
B. Articulation of ribs with sternum
C. Articulation of ribs with vertebrae
D. All of the listed responses are correct

A

D. All of the listed responses are correct

106
Q 
Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum?
A. Acromioclavicular joint
B. Sternoacromial joint
C. Sternoclavicular joint
D. Acromiosternal joint
E. Costalclavicular joint
A

C. Sternoclavicular joint

107
Q

The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders?
A. Scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders
B. Superior, medial, and lateral borders
C. Pectoral borders
D. Anterior, posterior, and superior borders
E. Dorsal and costal borders

A

B. Superior, medial, and lateral borders

108
Q

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the…
A. Clavicle articulates with the humerus
B. Clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process
C. Coxal bones articulate with the femur
D. Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum
E. Vertebral column articulates with the sacrum

A

D. Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum

109
Q 
Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall?
A. Glenoid cavity
B. Sternum
C. Clavicle
D. Scapula
E. Radius
A

C. Clavicle

110
Q 
The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called...
A. Ball and socket
B. Rotator cuffs
C. Girdles
D.  Sutures
E. Joints
A

C. Girdles

111
Q 
Which of these is NOT a function of the pectoral girdle?
A. Assist movements of the upper limb
B. Position the shoulder joint
C. Protect the thorax
D. Anchor muscles
A

C. Protect the thorax

112
Q 
The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the...
A. Olecranon fossa
B. Radial groove
C. Radial fossa
D. Intertubercular groove
E. Coronoid fossa
A

A. Olecranon fossa

113
Q 
The ulnar nerve is exposed when it crosses the posterior surface of what process?
A. Lesser tubercle
B. Medial epicondyle
C. Trochlea
D. Deltoid tuberosity
E. Greater tubercle
A

B. Medial epicondyle

114
Q 
The attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle to the radius is at the...
A. Styloid process of the radius
B. Radial tuberosity
C. Greater tubercle
D. Brachial tuberosity
E. Deltoid tuberosity
A

B. Radial tuberosity

115
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones?
A. Scaphoid
B. Pisiform
C. Triquetrum
D. Hamate
E. Lunate
A

D. Hamate

116
Q 
The trochlea is located on the...
A. Tibia
B. Ulna
C. Radius
D. Scapula
E. Humerus
A

E. Humerus

117
Q 
The bones of the forearm, or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, consist of the radius and ulna.
A. Olecranon region
B. Brachium
C. Antecubital region
D. Antebrachium
E. Cubital region
A

D. Antebrachium

118
Q 
The bones that form the fingers are the...
A. Metacarpals
B. Tarsals
C. Phalanges
D. Carpals
E. Metatarsals
A

C. Phalanges

119
Q 
Which of the following is not an upper limb bone?
A. Radius
B. Metatarsals
C. Humerus
D. Ulna
E. Carpals
A

B. Metatarsals

120
Q 
Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?
A. Forearm
B. Wrist
C. Ankle
D. Foot
E. Hand
A

B. Wrist

121
Q 
Which of these bones does NOT articulate with the humerus?
A. Clavicle
B. Radius
C. Scapula
D. Ulna
A

A. Clavicle

122
Q 
When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the...
A. Ischial tuberosities
B. Iliac crests
C. Posterior inferior iliac spines
D. Inferior rami of the pubis
E. Obturator foramina
A

A. Ischial tuberosities

123
Q 
The two pubic bones join medially at the...
A. Pubic symphysis
B. Pubic tubercle
C. Superior ramus
D. Inferior ramus
E. Pubic tuberosity
A

A. Pubic symphysis

124
Q 
A male has a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
A. Wider
B. Larger
C. Longer
D. Deeper
E. Narrower
A

E. Narrower

125
Q 
The sacrum articulates with the...
A. Pubis
B. Ilium
C. Ischium
D. Ilium and ischium
E. Ischium and pubis
A

B. Ilium

126
Q 
The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the...
A. Pelvic girdle
B. Patella
C. Coccyx
D. Pectoral girdle
E. Coxal bone
A

E. Coxal bone

127
Q 
Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles?
A. Pubic symphysis
B. Lunate surface
C. Gluteal lines
D. Lesser sciatic notch
E. Greater sciatic notch
A

C. Gluteal lines

128
Q 
The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the...
A. Ischium
B. Ilium
C. Femur
D. Patella
E. Pubis
A

B. Ilium

129
Q 
One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the...
A. Coxal bones
B. Patellar surface of the femur 
C. Neck of the femur
D. Pubic ramus
E. Distal epiphysis of the femur
A

C. Neck of the femur

130
Q 
Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight?
A. Fibula
B. Navicular
C. Talus
D. Tibia
E. Calcaneus
A

A. Fibula

131
Q 
The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals is the...
A. Transverse arch
B. Posterior arch
C. Distal arch
D. Longitudinal arch
E. Superior arch
A

D. Longitudinal arch

132
Q 
The medial malleolus is located on the...
A. Patella
B. Femur
C. Ischium
D. Tibia
E. Fibula
A

D. Tibia

133
Q 
The patella slides in a groove on the femur called the...
A. Medial condyle
B. Interpatellar groove
C. Femoral head
D. Patellar surface
E. Patellar canal
A

D. Patellar surface

134
Q

The condition known as “flat feet” is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?
A. Poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals
B. Weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals
C. Weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia
D. A loose calcaneal tendon
E. Weak tarsometatarsal joints

A

B. Weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals

135
Q 
The Achilles tendon attaches to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Talus
B. Cuboid
C. Calcaneus
D. Navicular
A

C. Calcaneus

136
Q 
The tibia is bound to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by the interosseous membrane.
A. Patella
B. Talus
C. Fibula
D. Femur
A

C. Fibula

137
Q 
The lateral bulge at the ankle is from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Femoral head
B. Condylar process of the calcaneus
C. Malleolus of the fibula
D. Malleolus of the tibia
A

C. Malleolus of the fibula

138
Q 
Study of human skeletons can reveal all of the following information except the person's...
A. Health
B. Age and nutritional status
C. Intelligence
D. Size and handedness
E. Sex
A

C. Intelligence

139
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an age-related change in the skeleton?
A. Increased risk of osteoporosis
B. Loss of teeth
C. Thickening of bone
D. Development of major curves in the vertebral column

A

C. Thickening of bone

140
Q 
Which bone gives a crime scene investigator the best information on the gender of skeletal remains?
A. Coccyx
B. Cranium
C. Teeth
D. Coxal bone
A

D. Coxal bone

Anatomy and Physiology Lecture (12 decks)

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