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Anatomy and Physiology Lecture > Chapter 1-4 Mastering Practice Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 1-4 Mastering Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?
A. cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism
B. molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
C. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
D. organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system
E. tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism

A

C. Organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

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2
Q

A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that
A. Blood has magical properties
B. All levels of organization within an organism are interdependent
C. Chemical molecules make up cells
D. Congenital defects can be life-threatening
E. All organisms are composed of cells

A

B. All levels of organization within an organism are interdependent

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3
Q 
A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ position.
A. Frontal
B. Prone
C. Sagittal
D. Supine
E. Anatomical
A

E. Anatomical

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4
Q 
An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is...
A. Anterior
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior
E. Abdominal
A

A. Anterior

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5
Q 
When standing, moving toward the cranium is moving in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ direction.
A. An inferior
B. A medial
C. A lateral
D. A superior
A

D. A superior

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6
Q

Which plane separates the body into superior and inferior portions? Which plane separates the body into anterior and posterior portions?
A. Sagittal; transverse/horizontal
B. Frontal/coronal; sagittal
C. Transverse/horizontal; sagittal
D. Transverse/horizontal; frontal/coronal
E. Frontal/coronal; transverse/horizontal

A

D. Transverse/horizontal; frontal/coronal

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7
Q 
The heart is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the lungs.
A. Proximal
B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Medial
E. Distal
A

D. Medial

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8
Q 
The wrist is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the elbow.
A. Distal
B. Proximal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
E. Horizontal
A

A. Distal

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9
Q 
The chin is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the nose.
A. Medial
B. Posterior
C. Inferior
D. Anterior
E. Superior
A

C. Inferior

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10
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to the foot?
A. Cervical
B. Brachial
C. Femoral
D. Pedal
E. Antebrachial
A

D. Pedal

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11
Q 
Which plane divides the body into right and left parts?
A. Transverse
B. Frontal
C. Proximal
D. Orthogonal
E. Sagittal
A

E. Sagittal

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12
Q 
Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe...
A. One body part in relation to another
B. The nervous system
C. A supine position
D. Living matter
E. Surgical procedures
A

A. One body part in relation to another

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13
Q 
A person lying face down is in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ position.
A. Ventral
B. Anatomical
C. Prone
D. Supine
E. Prostrate
A

C. Prone

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14
Q 
A person lying on the bed and gazing at the ceiling is in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ position.
A. Prone
B. Supine
C. Anatomical
D. Caudal
E. Dorsal
A

B. Supine

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15
Q 
The common term for the buccal region is the...
A. Waist
B. Cheeks
C. Buttocks
D. Back
E. Breast
A

B. Cheeks

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16
Q 
The common term for the carpal region is the...
A. Shin
B. Wrist
C. Fingers
D. Ankle
E. Chest
A

B. Wrist

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17
Q

You are a pathology intern at a prestigious medical school. Your instructor presents you with a box of leg bones and asks you to place them on the table in the correct anatomical position. You recall that anatomical position is determined __________.
A. In reference to your left and right
B. In reference to the subject’s right and left
C. In reference to the superior and inferior ends
D. In reference to the sagittal plane

A

B. In reference to the subject’s right and left

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18
Q 
The lungs are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the heart.
A. Proximal
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
A

D. Lateral

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19
Q

The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the _______.
A. Pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
B. Thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
C. Pleural cavity; mediastinum
D. Pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
E. Abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity

A

B. Thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity

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20
Q 
The thoracic cavity contains the...
A. Pericardial and pleural cavities
B. Pelvic cavity
C. Pleural cavities
D. Coelom
E. Pericardial cavity
A

A. Pericardial and pleural cavities

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21
Q 
The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the...
A. Abdomen
B. Mediastinum
C. Pleura
D. Pericardium
E. Peritoneum
A

E. Peritoneum

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22
Q

The mediastinum…
A. Separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity
B. Contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity
C. Separates the pleural cavities
D. Contains the pleural cavities
E. Contains the pericardial cavity

A

A. Separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity

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23
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the membrane that covers the internal organs.
A. Parietal serosa
B. Serous membrane
C. Mucous membrane
D. Visceral serosa
E. Cutaneous membrane
A

D. Visceral serosa

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24
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the membrane that covers the inner surface of cavity walls.
A. Parietal serosa
B. Cutaneous membrane
C. Visceral serosa
D. Mucous membrane
E. Serous membrane
A

A. Parietal serosa

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25
Q 
The imaging technique that builds an image by using sound waves reflected by internal structures is called a...
A. PET scan
B. Digital subtraction angiography
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound
E. CT scan
A

D. Ultrasound

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26
Q

During lab, you notice that the kidneys are not directly associated with the other organs in the abdominal cavity. Upon closer inspection, you observe that they are located outside of the peritoneal lining. Which response best describes the position of the kidneys?
A. The kidneys lie within the parietal peritoneum
B. The kidneys lie within the visceral peritoneum
C. The kidneys are retroperitoneal to the abdominal cavity
D. The kidneys are infraperitoneal with respect to the abdominal cavity

A

C. The kidneys are retroperitoneal to the abdominal cavity

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27
Q 
Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus...
A. Receptor; control center; effector
B. Effector; receiver; communicator
C. Receiver; communicator; effector
D. Control center; receiver; effector
E. Control center; effector; receptor
A

A. Receptor; control center; effector

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28
Q 
If a response decreases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feedback system.
A. Neutral
B. Deficit
C. Polarized
D. Positive
E. Negative
A

E. Negative

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29
Q 
If a response increases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feedback system.
A. Polarized
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Neutral
E. Deficit
A

B. Positive

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30
Q 
Disease is an indicator of...
A. Homeostatic failure
B. Signs and symptoms
C. Negative feedback
D. Positive feedback
E. All of the answers are correct
A

A. Homeostatic failure

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31
Q 
The nucleus of an atom consists of...
A. Protons + neutrons
B. Electrons
C. Protons
D. Neutrons
E. Protons + electrons
A

A. Protons + neutrons

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32
Q 
The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ electrons.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 2
D. 1
E. 4
A

C. 2

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33
Q 
How many electrons can the second energy level hold when it is completely filled?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 10
E. 2
A

A. 8

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34
Q 
The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the...
A. Mass of the nucleus
B. Size of the atom
C. Outermost electron shell
D. Number of protons
E. Number of neutrons
A

C. Outermost electron shell

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35
Q 
When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form...
A. Covalent bonds
B. Anions
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Cations
E. Ionic bonds
A

A. Covalent bonds

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36
Q 
Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons...
A. Will form many compounds
B. Frequently form hydrogen bonds
C. Will normally form anions
D. Are inert gases
E. Will normally form cations
A

D. Are inert gases

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37
Q 
In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with...
A. Water, causing decomposition
B. Hydrogen, causing decomposition
C. Glucose, causing decomposition
D. Water, causing synthesis
E. Carbon, causing decomposition
A

A. Water, causing decomposition

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38
Q 
Stored energy that has the ability to do work is called...
A. Kinetic energy
B. Dark energy
C. Potential energy
D. Light energy
E. Heat energy
A

C. Potential energy

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39
Q 
Collectively, reactions that break down molecules are known as...
A. Anabolism
B. Catabolism
C. Exchange reactions
D. Synthesis reactions
E. Metabolism
A

B. Catabolism

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40
Q 
Collectively, reactions that build new molecules are known as...
A. Synthetic reactions
B. Catabolic
C. Exchange reactions
D. Metabolic
E. Anabolic
A

E. Anabolic

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41
Q 
Which of the following has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?
A. pH 7
B. pH 1
C. pH 2
D. pH 10
E. pH 14
A

E. pH 14

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42
Q

Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4?
A. a pH of 5 is greater
B. a pH of 4 is greater
C. pH 9, if you mixed the solutions
D. They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values
E. There is not enough information to determine the answer

A

B. a pH of 4 is greater

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43
Q 
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ releases hydrogen ions.
A. Compound; element
B. Acid; base
C. Element; compound
D. Molecule; acid
E. Base; acid
A

E. Base; acid

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44
Q 
Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as...
A. Acids
B. Organic molecules
C. Inorganic molecules
D. Bases
E. Salts
A

B. Organic molecules

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45
Q 
To bond two monomers together, a molecule of water must be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to/from monomers. This process is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Added; denaturation
B. Removed; crenation
C. Added; hydrolysis
D. Added; ionization
E. Removed; dehydration synthesis
A

E. Removed; dehydration synthesis

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46
Q 
The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is...
A. Caffeine
B. Sucrose
C. Protein
D. Vitamins
E. Glucose
A

E. Glucose

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47
Q 
A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is...
A. Cellulose
B. Sucrose
C. Glycogen
D. Fructose
E. Lactose
A

C. Glycogen

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48
Q 
Many lipids are composed of fatty acids and...
A. Monosaccharides
B. Amino acids
C. Glycerol
D. Sugars
E. Polypeptides
A

C. Glycerol

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49
Q 
The monomers of protein are...
A. Glucose
B. Nitrogen base
C. Nucleotides
D. Amino acids
E. Fatty acids
A

D. Amino acids

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50
Q 
Interaction between individual polypeptide chains to form a protein complex is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ structure.
A. Primary
B. Quaternary
C. Pentagonal
D. Secondary
E. Tertiary
A

B. Quaternary

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51
Q 
The alpha-helix is an example of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level of protein structure.
A. Tertiary
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Quaternary
A

C. Secondary

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52
Q 
A peptide bond links \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Two amino acids
B. Two monosaccharides
C. Two nucleotides
D. A glycerol and a fatty acid
A

A. Two amino acids

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53
Q 
An amino acid is to a protein as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to a nucleic acid.
A. Neutron
B. Nucleotide
C. Protein
D. Proton
E. Purine
A

B. Nucleotide

54
Q 
According to the rules of complementary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair with the base...
A. Cytosine
B. Thymine
C. Guanine
D. Adenine
E. Uracil
A

C. Guanine

55
Q

The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that…
A. DNA contains purines but not pyrimidines
B. RNA contains purines but not pyrimidines
C. The backbone of RNA contains ribose
D. RNA contains pyrimidines but not purines
E. DNA contains pyrimidines but not purines

A

C. The backbone of RNA contains ribose

56
Q 
The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called...
A. Glucose
B. Ribose
C. Maltose
D. Deoxyribose
E. Fructose
A

D. Deoxyribose

57
Q 
You are looking at a single-stranded polymer that contains a pentose, a phosphate group, and the nitrogenous base uracil. What kind of molecule are you looking at?
A. ATP
B. RNA
C. Amino acid
D. DNA
A

B. RNA

58
Q 
The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, phosphate ions, and...
A. AMP
B. Energy
C. H2O
D. Adenosine
E. Nuclease
A

B. Energy

59
Q 
In the process of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a phosphate group is transferred to a molecule.
A. Ionization
B. Buffering
C. Phosphorylation
D. Dissociation
E. Amination
A

C. Phosphorylation

60
Q 
Enzymes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the activation energy required for a reaction to proceed to completion.
A. Stabilize
B. Equalize
C. Increase
D. Lower
A

D. Lower

61
Q 
The smallest living unit within the human body is...
A. A cell
B. An organ system
C. A tissue
D. A protein
E. An organ
A

A. A cell

62
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes).
A. Primary
B. Corpus
C. Somatic
D. Main
E. Core
A

C. Somatic

63
Q

If a hole is torn in a cell’s plasma membrane, the cell will die because…
A. It will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.
B. Germs are attracted toward cytoplasm leaking from a cell.
C. It will not be able to undergo cell division.
D. Cells can only make more plasma membrane during cell division.
E. Its chromosomes will not be held in place.

A

A. It will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid

64
Q 
What is the first part of the cell that is affected when the pH of extracellular fluid changes?
A. The cytosol
B. The plasma membrane
C. The nucleolus
D. The nucleus
E. The cytoskeleton
A

B. The plasma membrane

65
Q

The tails of a phospholipid molecule in a plasma membrane are…
A. Composed of amino acids
B. Hydrophilic
C. Hydrophobic
D. Facing the cytosol
E. Interlocked to provide membrane strength

A

C. Hydrophobic

66
Q

Proteins of the plasma membrane carry out all of the following functions except…
A. Transporting substances across the membrane
B. Catalyzing chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of the membrane
C. Anchoring the cell to external structures
D. Sending and receiving signals to and from other cells
E. Binding to DNA to turn on genes.

A

E. Binding to DNA to turn on genes

67
Q 
Many proteins in the cytosol are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that accelerate metabolic reactions. 
A. Ions
B. Messengers
C. Enzymes
D. Lipids
E. Carbohydrates
A

C. Enzymes

68
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are compartments within the cell whose contents are isolated from the cytosol.
A. Membranous organelles
B. Microvilli
C. Nonmembranous organelles
D. Ribosomes
E. Cytoskeleton
A

A. Membranous organelles

69
Q

Microvilli are found on cells of the inner surface of the small intestine, where they…
A. Slow the movement of food through the digestive tract
B. Protect the intestinal lining from irritants or toxins in the food
C. Push food along the digestive tract
D. Sense the presence of food in the digestive tract
E. Increase the absorption of nutrients from digested food

A

E. Increase the absorption of nutrients from digested food

70
Q 
If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to...
A. Synthesize proteins
B. Move
C. Produce DNA
D. Divide
E. Metabolize sugars
A

D. Divide

71
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may be scattered in the cytoplasm or bound to endoplasmic reticulum.
A. Mitochondria
B. Vesicles
C. Nuclei
D. Proteosomes
E. Ribosomes
A

E. Ribosomes

72
Q 
Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the...
A. Rough ER
B. Ribosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Smooth ER
E. Mitochondria
A

D. Smooth ER

73
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ typically consists of five or six flattened membranous discs called cisternae.
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Centrioles
E. Mitochondria
A

C. Golgi apparatus

74
Q

A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, it…
A. Can only divide once more
B. Can repair itself readily
C. Will be a long-lived cell
D. Cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months
E. Is malformed

A

D. Cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months

75
Q 
Each triplet of bases in a gene corresponds to...
A. One mRNA
B. One amino acid in a protein
C. One protein
D. One DNA nucleotide
E. One chromosome
A

B. One amino acid in a protein

76
Q 
The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins are...
A. Codons
B. Genes
C. Chromosomes
D. RNA
E. Ribosomes
A

B. Genes

77
Q 
The "m" in mRNA stands for...
A. Metabolic
B. Matching
C. Messenger
D. Modifier
E. Molecular
A

C. Messenger

78
Q 
The enzyme \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is required for the synthesis of mRNA.
A. Phosphatase
B. Deoxyribose
C. RNA synthetase
D. Ribase
E. RNA polymerase
A

E. RNA polymerase

79
Q 
Thymine is replaced by which nitrogen base in RNA?
A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine is not replaced in RNA
D. Ribose
E. Uracil
A

E. Uracil

80
Q 
During protein synthesis, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA has a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that binds to the next codon in the mRNA.
A. Nucleotide
B. Enzyme
C. Anticodon
D. Transporter
E. Promoter
A

C. Anticodon

81
Q

What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis?

  1. mRNA is produced in nucleus.
  2. Ribosome moves along mRNA.
  3. DNA uncoils for transcription.
  4. Polypeptide is produced.
  5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome.
  6. mRNA moves to ribosome.
A. 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
B. 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4
C. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6
D. 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4
E. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6
A

B. 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4

82
Q

The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called ________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________.
A. Interphase; replication; active transport
B. Replication; translation; transcription
C. Replication; transcription; translation
D. Reproduction; duplication; initiation
E. Mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis

A

C. Replication; transcription; translation

83
Q 
Permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more genes are called...
A. Changelings
B. Interferons
C. Mutations
D. Reconstructions
E. Polymorphs
A

C. Mutations

84
Q

Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the following except…
A. Its concentration gradient
B. Its lipid solubility
C. Its charge of the substance
D. The presence of membrane channels for the substance
E. The availability of ATP

A

E. The availability of ATP

85
Q 
A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called...
A. Isotonic
B. Homotonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Merotonic
E. Hypertonic
A

C. Hypotonic

86
Q 
The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called...
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Endocytosis
C. Osmosis
D. Active transport
E. Exocytosis
A

A. Facilitated diffusion

87
Q 
A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called...
A. Osmosis
B. Passive transport
C. Facilitated transport
D. Active transport
E. Diffusion
A

D. Active transport

88
Q 
In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, one abundant type of exchange pump ejects \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ions from the cell and imports \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ions.
A. Potassium; sodium
B. Sodium; potassium
C. Sodium; calcium
D. Calcium; sodium
E. Potassium; calcium
A

B. Sodium; potassium

89
Q 
The intake of materials from the extracellular fluid using vesicles is called...
A. Osmosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Endocytosis
D. An ion exchange pump
E. Facilitated transport
A

C. Endocytosis

90
Q 
The electric potential difference across the cell membrane is known as...
A. The membrane potential
B. The membrane difference
C. The cellular potential
D. The plasmalemma potential
E. The cellular difference
A

A. The membrane potential

91
Q 
The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the unequal distribution of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ across the membrane.
A. Water molecules
B. Phospholipids and proteins
C. Cations and anions
D. Carbohydrate molecules
E. Acids and bases
A

C. Cations and anions

92
Q 
The genetically programmed death of cells is called...
A. Apoptosis
B. Metastasis
C. Differentiation
D. Replication
E. Mitosis
A

A. Apoptosis

93
Q

If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not…
A. Form a new nuclear membrane during telophase
B. Link segments of DNA together
C. Form complementary strands of DNA during replication
D. Maintain the integrity of the nuclear envelope
E. Form spindle fibers

A

C. Form complementary strands of DNA during replication

94
Q

The correct order of phases in the cell cycle is…
A. Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
B. Prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase
C. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase, and prophase
D. Interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase
E. Metaphase, anaphase, interphase, prophase, and telophase

A

A. Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

95
Q

If an animal cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have?
A. 18
B. 23
C. 36
D. 9
E. It varies, but the total number in the two daughter cells will always add up to 18

A

A. 18

96
Q 
The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Basal
B. Epithelial
C. Connective
D. Apical
E. Muscle
A

B. Epithelial

97
Q 
Epithelial cells that line the small intestine transport nutrients into the body. Directional transport is associated with the epithelial tissue property of...
A. Attachment
B. Avascularity
C. Polarity
D. Regeneration
E. Cellularity
A

C. Polarity

98
Q 
The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the...
A. Tight junction
B. Gap junction
C. Zonula adherens
D. Desmosome
E. Hemidesmosome
A

B. Gap junction

99
Q 
A type of intercellular junction that stops materials from crossing an epithelium between cells is called a(n)...
A. Desmosome
B. Hemidesmosome
C. Tight junction
D. Intermediate junction
E. Gap junction
A

C. Tight junction

100
Q 
Dead skin cells are shed in thin sheets because they are held together by "spots" of proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments. Such strong intercellular connections are called...
A. Intermediate junctions
B. Gap junctions
C. Desmosomes
D. Tight junctions
E. Junctional complexes
A

C. Desmosomes

101
Q 
You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the...
A. Stomach
B. Trachea
C. Urinary bladder
D. Surface of the skin
E. Secretory portions of the pancreas
A

B. Trachea

102
Q 
The Pap test for cervical cancer utilizes...
A. Embryology
B. Histology
C. Anatomy
D. Exfoliative cytology
E. Physiology
A

D. Exfoliative cytology

103
Q 
The pancreas produces \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ secretions that include digestive enzymes and hormones, respectively...
A. Secretory and absorptive
B. Serous and sebaceous
C. Mucous and acid
D. Merocrine and holocrine
E. Exocrine and endocrine
A

E. Exocrine and endocrine

104
Q 
Glands that secrete their product by the bursting of cells are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ glands.
A. Apocrine
B. Merocrine
C. Endocrine
D. Sudoriferous
E. Holocrine
A

E. Holocrine

105
Q 
The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as...
A. Matrix
B. Cartilage
C. Chondroitin
D. Collagen
E. Scaffold
A

A. Matrix

106
Q

It has been shown that as a person ages, the amount of collagen in the skin decreases and becomes more disorganized. Of the choices below, which is the best explanation for why this happens?
A. Fibroblasts become less active as we age
B. Reticular fibers become more abundant as we age
C. The ground substance becomes less dense as we age
D. Elastic fibers become more brittle and break easily

A

A. Fibroblasts become less active as we age

107
Q 
You are observing a type of connective tissue that contains a variety of cells in a watery matrix. Based on these observations, what category of connective tissue are you looking at?
A. Fluid connective tissue
B. Supporting connective tissue
C. Connective tissue proper
D. Bone
A

A. Fluid connective tissue

108
Q 
Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen?
A. Adipocytes
B. Mast cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Fibroblasts
E. Macrophages
A

D. Fibroblasts

109
Q 
Cells that respond to injury by dividing to assist in connective tissue repair are...
A. Fibroblasts
B. Plasmocytes
C. Mesenchymal cells
D. Lymphocytes
E. Mast cells
A

C. Mesenchymal cells

110
Q

If an obese person loses weight, a factor that increases the risk of regaining the weight is…
A. Weight loss causes the metabolic rate to slow
B. The adipose cells do not die but merely shrink, so they can easily store lipid again
C. Brown fat can become white fat if dietary intake increases again
D. During weight loss, calories are only temporarily displaced from fat to other tissues
E. The body feels unfamiliar after weight loss

A

B. The adipose cells do not die but merely shrink, so they can easily store lipid again

111
Q 
The internal framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Adipose
B. Loose connective
C. Reticular tissue
D. Irregular dense connective
E. Regular dense connective
A

C. Reticular tissue

112
Q 
The framework of connective tissue between the skin and underlying muscles is called the...
A. Subserous fascia
B. Dermis
C. Superficial fascia
D. Deep fascia
E. Cutaneous layer
A

C. Superficial fascia

113
Q 
Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells are termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, while these proteins are called antibodies.
A. Immunocytes
B. Phagocytes
C. T cells
D. B cells
E. Plasma cells
A

E. Plasma cells

114
Q

How can cartilage maintain its function even though it is avascular?
A. Cartilage has extensive blood vessels
B. The perichondrium prevents any exchange of nutrients and waste products
C. Nutrients and waste products diffuse through the cartilage’s matrix
D. Cartilage does not contain living cells
E. Cartilage is only the thickness of a few cell layers

A

C. Nutrients and waste products diffuse through the cartilage’s matrix

115
Q 
A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?
A. Articular
B. Elastic
C. Fibrous
D. Mesenchymal
E. Hyaline
A

C. Fibrous

116
Q 
Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded in existing matrix is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ growth.
A. Intrasitional
B. Interstitial
C. Transformational
D. Transitional
E. Appositional
A

B. Interstitial

117
Q

To celebrate her 50th birthday, Anna got her ear pierced in the elastic cartilage portion (pinna). The piercing specialist informed her that it will take at least 6 weeks to heal. This is because __________.
A. Cartilage is avascular, so healing takes longer
B. Chondrocytes take longer to migrate to the site of injury
C. Only interstitial cartilage growth occurs and it is much slower than appositional growth
D. Osseous tissue replaces the cartilage matrix

A

A. Cartilage is avascular, so healing takes longer

118
Q 
In \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter.
A. Transitional
B. Intrasitional
C. Appositional
D. Interstitial
E. Transformational
A

C. Appositional

119
Q 
The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of...
A. The lamina propria
B. Serous membranes
C. Cutaneous membranes
D. Mucous membranes
E. Synovial membranes
A

B. Serous membranes

120
Q 
The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the...
A. Periosteum
B. Pericardium
C. Perichondrium
D. Peritoneum
E. Pleura
A

D. Peritoneum

121
Q 
The serous membrane covering the lungs is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Periosteum
B. Peritoneum
C. Pleura
D. Pericardium
A

C. Pleura

122
Q

What is the cause of the striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle?
A. The connections of neurons to muscle cells
B. The nuclei of the muscle cells
C. The repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin
D. The stacking of muscle cells
E. The arrangement of intercalated discs

A

C. The repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin

123
Q 
Intercalated discs and pacemaker cells are characteristic of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. All types of muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Nerve
D. Skeletal muscle
E. Cardiac muscle
A

E. Cardiac muscle

124
Q 
Which type of muscle tissue is under your conscious control?
A. Cardiac
B. Elastic
C. Smooth
D. Skeletal
A

D. Skeletal

125
Q 
The muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs of the body is...
A. Involuntary striated muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Skeletal muscle
E. Voluntary striated muscle
A

B. Smooth muscle

126
Q 
Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Osseous
D. Areolar
E. Neural
A

E. Neural

127
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells.
A. Nutrient cells
B. Neurons
C. Nurse cells
D. Neuroglia
E. Nurturons
A

D. Neuroglia

128
Q 
During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region of the injury?
A. Cold, pale skin
B. Increase in histamine
C. Swelling
D. Increase in basophils
E. Increase in blood flow
A

A. Cold, pale skin

129
Q 
When Rachel was 10, she had a mini-bike accident resulting in severe road rash on her right calf. This injury eventually healed, but resulted in permanent \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Inflammation
B. Necrosis
C. Abscess
D. Fibrosis
A

D. Fibrosis

130
Q

As a person ages, exercise contributes to…
A. Cumulative damage of tissues throughout the body
B. An increased incidence of cancer
C. Inflammation of the muscles
D. Maintaining bone strength
E. Faster aging due to exhaustion

A

D. Maintaining bone strength

Anatomy and Physiology Lecture (12 decks)

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