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Anatomy and Physiology Lecture > Chapter 9-11 Mastering Practice Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 9-11 Mastering Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Joints can be classified structurally as...
A. Bony
B. Fibrous
C. Synovial
D. Cartilaginous
E. All of the answers are correct
A

E. All of the answers are correct

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2
Q 
A suture is an example of a(n)...
A. Synarthrosis
B. Symphysis
C. Diarthrosis
D. Syndesmosis
E. Amphiarthrosis
A

A. Synarthrosis

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3
Q 
Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to...
A. Dense regular connective tissue
B. Fibrous cartilage
C. Rigid cartilaginous bridge
D. Completely fused
E. Periodontal ligament
A

B. Fibrous cartilage

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4
Q

Identify the incorrect pair…
A. Synarthrosis; immovable joint
B. Chondrosis; freely moving joint
C. Gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone
D. Amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint
E. They are all correct; there is no incorrect pair.

A

B. Chondrosis; freely moving joint

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5
Q 
Based on a functional classification, the hip joint is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Syndesmosis
B. Synarthrosis
C. Amphiarthrosis
D. Diarthrosis
A

D. Diarthrosis

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6
Q

Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?
A. Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue
B. The matrix begins to break down
C. The exposed surface appears rough
D. Friction in the joint increases
E. All of the answers are correct

A

E. All of the answers are correct

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of synovial fluid?
A. Increases osmotic pressure within joint
B. Shock absorption
C. Lubrication
D. Protects articular cartilages
E. Provides nutrients

A

A. Increases osmotic pressure within joint

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8
Q 
The surface of articular cartilage is...
A. Smooth
B. Rough
C. Flat
D. Slick
E. Both slick and smooth
A

E. Both slick and smooth

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9
Q

Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following most likely occurs with this type of accident?
A. Dislocation of the ankle occurs.
B. The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast.
C. A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid.
D. A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged.
E. Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn.

A

D. A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged

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10
Q 
Usually found outside the capsule, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ protect the articular cartilages and act as packing material for the joint.
A. Tendons
B. Fat pads
C. Ligaments
D. Bursae
E. Menisci
A

B. Fat pads

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11
Q 
Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called
A. Fasciae
B. Menisci
C. Bursae
D. Fat pads
E. Lacunae
A

C. Bursae

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12
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position.
A. Bunion
B. Bursitis
C. Dislocation
D. Fracture
E. Sprain
A

C. Dislocation

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13
Q 
A collagenous type of connective tissue that reinforces the synovial joint and is found outside the joint capsule is called the
A. Intracapsular ligament
B. Intracapsular tendon
C. Extracapsular ligament
D. Meniscus
E. Extracapsular tendon
A

C. Extracapsular ligament

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14
Q 
A movement away from the midline of the body is called...
A. Extension
B. Flexion
C. Abduction
D. Inversion
E. Adduction
A

C. Abduction

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15
Q 
To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called...
A. Opposition
B. Retraction
C. Circumduction
D. Rotation
E. Eversion
A

A. Opposition

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16
Q 
Monaxial joints are known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ joints.
A. Ball-and-socket
B. Condylar
C. Saddle
D. Gliding
E. Hinge
A

E. Hinge

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17
Q 
In a triaxial articulation...
A. Movement can occur in all three axes
B. Movement can occur in only two axes
C. No movement is possible
D. Only circumduction is possible
E. Movement can occur in only one axis
A

A. Movement can occur in all three axes

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18
Q 
An extension past the anatomical position is known as...
A. Double-jointed
B. Rotation
C. Flexion
D. Hyperextension
E. Extension
A

D. Hyperextension

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19
Q 
Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?
A. Spreading the fingers
B. Turning the hand palm upward
C. Opening the mouth
D. Extreme bending of the head backwards
E. Moving the hand toward the shoulder
A

B. Turning the hand palm upward

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20
Q 
Which of the following movements is a good example of depression?
A. Spreading the fingers
B. Turning the hand palm upward
C. Moving the hand toward the shoulder
D. Extreme bending of the head backwards
E. Opening the mouth
A

E. Opening the mouth

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21
Q 
Nodding your head "yes" is an example of...
A. Pronation and supination.
B. Lateral and medial rotation.
C. Circumduction.
D. Flexion and extension.
E. Protraction and retraction.
A

D. Flexion and extension

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22
Q 
The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ joint.
A. Pivot
B. Gliding
C. Condyloid
D. Saddle
E. Ball and socket
A

A. Pivot

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23
Q 
Excessive turning of the sole of the foot outward is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A, Protraction
B. Inversion
C. Eversion
D. Dorsiflexion
A

C. Eversion

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24
Q 
Which of the following synovial joints would allow angular, monaxial movement?
A. First carpometacarpal joint (thumb)
B. Hip joint
C. Atlanto-axial joint (C1-C2 vertebrae)
D. Knee joint
A

D. Knee joint

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25
Q

The flava ligament is…
A. A paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B. A fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C. A band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D. A longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum.
E. A wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.

A

A. A paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae

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26
Q

A chiropractor manipulates joints, specifically the vertebral joints, to correct dislocations. What is another way to state this?
A. A dislocation can only be corrected by a chiropractor.
B. A chiropractor corrects major dislocations that occur at amphiarthroses.
C. Synarthroses are major weak points for subluxations.
D. A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations.

A

D. A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations

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27
Q 
Structurally, the joint found between adjacent vertebral bodies is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Synovial
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synarthrosis
D. Symphysis
A

D. Symphysis

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28
Q

The elbow joint is extremely stable because
A. The joint lacks bursae
B. The articular capsule is thin
C. The ulna and humerus interlock
D. Several muscles support the joint capsule
E. The capsule lacks ligaments

A

C. The ulna and humerus interlock

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29
Q 
The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ligaments.
A. Cruciate
B. Fibular collateral
C. Patellar
D. Tibial collateral
E. Popliteal
A

A. Cruciate

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30
Q 
The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the
A. Cruciate ligaments
B. Lateral menisci
C. Fat pads
D. Medial menisci
E. Popliteal ligaments
A

C. Fat pads

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31
Q 
The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves...
A. Extension
B. Abduction
C. Flexion
D. Adduction
E. Both flexion and extension
A

E. Both flexion and extension

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32
Q

Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because…
A. The femur articulates with the tibia at the knee.
B. The knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks.
C. The knee contains seven major ligaments.
D. The knee is extremely resilient.
E. The knee is protected by the patella.

A

C. The knee contains seven major ligaments

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33
Q

The “rotator cuff” of the shoulder functions to…
A. Reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements.
B. Reinforce the joint capsule.
C. Allow biaxial movement.
D. Allow monaxial movement.
E. Limit the range of movements.

A

A. Reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements

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34
Q 
Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include...
A. Strong muscular padding.
B. Almost complete bony socket.
C. Supporting ligaments.
D. Tough capsule.
E. All of the answers are correct.
A

E. All of the answers are correct

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35
Q 
The most common type of joint inflammation is called...
A. Rheumatism
B. Degenerative joint disease
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteoporosis
E. Gouty arthritis
A

B. Degenerative joint disease

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36
Q 
Smooth muscle contracts when calcium binds to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and activates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Calmodulin; actin
B. Troponin; tropomyosin
C. Troponin; myosin light chain kinase
D. Calmodulin; myosin light chain kinase
A

D. Calmodulin; myosin light chain kinase

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37
Q

Which of these is NOT a function of smooth muscle?
A. Adjusting airway diameter
B. Elevating skin hairs
C. Pushing blood into the great vessels of the heart
D. Churning the stomach contents

A

C. Pushing blood into the great vessels of the heart

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38
Q

Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?
A. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.
B. Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells.
C. Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells.
D. Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules.
E. Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres.

A

A. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not

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39
Q 
The soleus muscle is very red in color. Which of these statements about soleus muscle fibers is FALSE?
A. They are rich in myoglobin
B. They are large in diameter
C. They have a slow twitch speed
D. They are slow to fatigue
A

B. They are large in diameter

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40
Q

Increased muscle fiber endurance can be produced by __________.
A. The amount of excitation-contraction coupling
B. A muscle fiber with a smaller diameter
C. The type of activity performed
D. The length of the muscle fiber

A

C. The type of activity performed

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41
Q 
Muscle fatigue occurs because of a buildup of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in pH.
A. Lactic acid; increase
B. Creatine phosphate; decrease
C. Creatine phosphate; increase
D. Lactic acid; decrease
A

D. Lactic acid; decrease

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42
Q 
Fatigued muscles signify \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Accumulation of pyruvic acid
B. Decreased pH
C. Lowered body temperature
D. Oxygen recovery
A

B. Decreased pH

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43
Q 
Heat energy gained from muscle contraction is released by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ system.
A. Respiratory
B. Endocrine
C. Integumentary
D. Cardiovascular
E. Urinary
A

C. Integumentary

44
Q

What can the nervous system do to increase muscle tension?
A. Recruit larger motor units
B. Increase the number of active motor units
C. Increase stimulation frequency
D. All of the listed responses can increase muscle tension

A

D. All of the listed responses can increase muscle tension

45
Q

In an isotonic contraction…
A. Tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant.
B. Many twitches always fuse into one.
C. The peak tension is less than the load.
D. Muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load.
E. Postural muscles stabilize the vertebrae.

A

D. Muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load

46
Q 
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called...
A. Isometric
B. Treppe
C. Concentric
D. Isotonic
E. Tetany
A

A. Isometric

47
Q 
The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called...
A. Wave summation
B. Incomplete tetanus
C. Recruitment
D. Treppe
E. Complete tetanus
A

C. Recruitment

48
Q 
A muscle producing its maximum tension for a prolonged period is in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Rigor mortis
B. Complete tetanus
C. Incomplete tetanus
D. Treppe
A

B. Complete tetanus

49
Q 
If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This addition of one twitch to another is called...
A. Complete tetanus
B. Wave summation
C. Recruitment
D. Incomplete tetanus
E. Treppe
A

B. Wave summation

50
Q

What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased?
A. Sarcomere length stays the same
B. Sarcomere length decreases
C. Sarcomere length increases

A

C. Sarcomere length increases

51
Q 
The muscle action potential penetrates deep into a fiber along the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Sarcolemma
C. Transverse tubules
D. Neuromuscular junction
A

C. Transverse tubules

52
Q

Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur.

  1. Cross-bridge detachment
  2. Cross-bridge formation
  3. Active site exposure
  4. Myosin reactivation
  5. Calcium ions bind troponin
  6. Myosin head pivoting
A

5,3,2,6,1,4

53
Q

Put the following events of the neuromuscular junction in the order in which they occur.

  1. Action potential is propagated in the sarcolemma.
  2. Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated sodium channels.
  3. Action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction.
  4. Vesicles full of acetylcholine are stored at the axon terminal.
  5. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft.
A

4,3,5,2,1

54
Q

Which of the following is not true of acetylcholine?
A. It binds to receptor membrane channels.
B. It is digested by acetylcholinesterase.
C. It diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
D. It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E. t is stored in the neuron in vesicles.

A

D. It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum

55
Q 
Cross bridge detachment is caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ binding to the myosin head.
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Calcium
C. ATP
D. Magnesium
E. Acetylcholine
A

C. ATP

56
Q

A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug’s effect on skeletal muscle contraction?
A. Produces a strong, continuous state of contraction
B. Reduces the muscle’s ability for contraction
C. Increases the muscle’s excitability
D. Causes a strong contraction similar to a “charlie horse” cramp
E. Increases tone in the muscle

A

B. Reduces the muscle’s ability for contraction

57
Q

At what point during excitation contraction coupling does exocytosis play a role?
A. When the action potential surges through the T-tubules
B. When sodium channels open up on the motor end plate
C. When ATP splits into ADP and P on the free myosin head
D. During calcium ion reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. During acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal

A

E. During acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal

58
Q

How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
A. It would cause muscles to stay contracted.
B. It would produce muscle weakness.
C. It would have little effect on skeletal muscles.
D. It would make the muscles less excitable.
E. It would cause muscles to stay relaxed.

A

A. It would cause muscles to stay contracted

59
Q 
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as...
A. Rigor mortis
B. Oxygen debt
C. Depolarization
D. Tetany
E. Treppe
A

A. Rigor mortis

60
Q 
Titin is a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Thin-filament protein
B. Elastic protein
C. Tropomyosin-binding protein
D. Calcium-binding protein
A

B. Elastic protein

61
Q 
The protein that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the availability of active sites on actin is called...
A. Actin
B. Titin
C. Myosin
D. Tropomyosin
E. Nebulin
A

D. Tropomyosin

62
Q

The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is…
A. Diffusion of calcium out of the cell.
B. Active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma.
C. Diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D. Active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft.
E. Active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

E. Active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

63
Q 
The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the...
A. M line
B. H band
C. I band
D. A band
E. Z line
A

C. I band

64
Q 
The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the...
A. H band
B. M line
C. Z line
D. I band
E. Zone of overlap
A

A. H band

65
Q 
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers...
A. Lack a plasma membrane.
B. Lack mitochondria.
C. Are very small.
D. Have large gaps in the cell membrane.
E. Have many nuclei.
A

E. Have many nuclei

66
Q

The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to…
A. Produce more ATP with little oxygen.
B. Produce large amounts of muscle proteins.
C. Produce nutrients for muscle contraction.
D. Store extra DNA for metabolism.
E. Contract much more forcefully.

A

B. Produce large amounts of muscle proteins

67
Q 
The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)...
A. Myofibril
B. Epimysium
C. Tendon
D. Ligament
E. Fascicle
A

C. Tendon

68
Q

Which type of muscle tissue has the greatest effect on the body’s heat production?
A. Skeletal
B. Smooth
C. Cardiac
D. All of these muscle types have about the same effect on the body’s heat production

A

A. Skeletal

69
Q 
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ can be described as a broad tendinous sheet.
A. Fasciae
B. Retinaculum
C. Tympanum
D. Interstitium
E. Aponeurosis
A

E. Aponeurosis

70
Q 
The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the...
A. Tendon
B. Fascicle
C. Epimysium
D. Endomysium
E. Perimysium
A

C. Epimysium

71
Q 
Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscles.
A. Parallel
B. Bipennate
C. Pennate
D. Circular
E. Convergent
A

D. Circular

72
Q 
In a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle, the muscle fibers and fascicles lie in a slanted or oblique position to the tendon.
A. Circular
B. Parallel
C. Pennate
D. Convergent
E. Divergent
A

C. Pennate

73
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation.
A. Convergent
B. Parallel
C. Pennate
D. Straight
E. Circular
A

A. Convergent

74
Q 
Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscles.
A. Circular
B. Straight
C. Parallel
D. Convergent
E. Pennate
A

C. Parallel

75
Q 
The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ levers.
A. First-class
B. Second-class
C. Third-class
D. Fourth-class
E. Fifth-class
A

C. Third-class

76
Q 
Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lever.
A. First-class
B. Second-class
C. Third-class
D. Fourth-class
E. Fifth-class
A

B. Second-class

77
Q 
The fulcrum of a level system is the...
A. Load
B. Muscle
C. Joint
D. Bone
E. Resistance
A

C. Joint

78
Q 
A rigid structure that can change the effective strength of a muscle is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Lever
B. Fulcrum
C. Load
D. Tendon
A

A. Lever

79
Q 
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement.
A. Opposition
B. Antagonist
C. Motor-unit
D. Prime mover
E. Synergist
A

D. Prime mover

80
Q 
A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)...
A. Originator
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Levator
E. Agonist
A

C. Synergist

81
Q 
The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the...
A. Insertion
B. Tendon
C. Aponeurosis
D. Lever
E. Origin
A

A. Insertion

82
Q 
The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the...
A. Aponeurosis
B. Origin
C. Tendon
D. Insertion
E. Lever
A

B. Origin

83
Q 
A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n)...
A. Agonist
B. Prime mover
C. Synergist
D. Fixator
E. Antagonist
A

E. Antagonist

84
Q

The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except…
A. The location of the muscle.
B. The collagen content of the muscle.
C. The angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.
D. Structural characteristics of the muscle.
E. The action of the muscle.

A

B. The collagen content of the muscle

85
Q 
A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the...
A. Tongue
B. Jaw
C. Lips
D. Chin
E. Cheek
A

A. Tongue

86
Q 
Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the...
A. Neck
B. Thorax
C. Head
D. Abdomen
E. Groin
A

C. Head

87
Q 
Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called...
A. Lateralis
B. Obliquus
C. Medialis
D. Transversus
E. Rectus
A

E. Rectus

88
Q 
Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except...
A. Extensor
B. Sartorius
C. Levator
D. Pronator
E. Adductor
A

B. Sartorius

89
Q 
Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called...
A. Distalis
B. Medialis
C. Rectus
D. Lateralis
E. Proximal
A

B. Medialis

90
Q 
Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called...
A. Medialis
B. Transversus
C. Oblique
D. Lateralis
E. Rectus
A

B. Transversus

91
Q 
Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called...
A. Lateralis
B. Rectus
C. Oblique
D. Medialis
E. Transversus
A

C. Oblique

92
Q 
Muscles visible at the body surface are often called...
A. Internus
B. Extrinsic
C. Intrinsic
D. Superficialis
E. Profundus
A

D. Superficialis

93
Q 
Given its name, what does the levator anguli oris do? 
A. Tense the mouth
B. Raise the eyelids
C. Raise the mouth
D. Raise the eyebrows
E. Close the eyelids
A

C. Raise the mouth

94
Q 
The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the...
A. Procerus
B. Buccinator
C. Levator labii
D. Zygomaticus
E. Orbicularis oris
A

E. Orbicularis oris

95
Q

Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle?
A. Depresses the larynx
B. Elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible
C. Elevates the larynx
D. Depresses and retracts the tongue
E. Elevates the mandible

A

B. Elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible

96
Q 
Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle?
A. Medial rectus
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Inferior rectus
D. Lateral rectus
E. Superior oblique
A

B. Rectus abdominis

97
Q 
Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue?
A. Hypoglossus
B. Geniohyoid
C. Sternohyoid 
D. Thyrohyoid 
E. Lateral pterygoideus
A

A. Hypoglossus

98
Q 
The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the...
A. Clavicle
B. Sternum
C. Mandible
D. Occipital bone
E. Mastoid process of the temporal bone
A

E. Mastoid process of the temporal bone

99
Q 
A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in...
A. Blowing
B. Spitting
C. Frowning
D. Chewing
E. Kissing
A

D. Chewing

100
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle.
A. Pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Digastric
D. Masseter
E. Lateral pterygoid
A

D. Masseter

101
Q 
What is the insertion of the biceps brachii?
A. Infraglenoid tubercle
B. Olecranon process of the ulna
C. Radial tuberosity
D. Medial epicondyle of the humerus
A

C. Radial tuberosity

102
Q 
Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Vastus intermedius
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Vastus medialis
E. All of the answers are correct
A

E. All of the answers are correct

103
Q

Which of the following are members of the hamstring group?
A. Adductor longus and adductor magnus
B. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus
C. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius
D. Gluteus maximus and rectus femoris
E. Biceps femoris and rectus femoris

A

B. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus

104
Q 
Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the...
A. Rhomboid
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Supraspinatus
E. Subscapularis
A

A. Rhomboid

105
Q 
Which organ system functions to rid the body of the waste products generated by exercising muscles?
A. Respiratory
B. Integumentary
C. Cardiovascular
D. All the listed responses are correct
A

D. All the listed responses are correct

Anatomy and Physiology Lecture (12 decks)

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