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Large Animal > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Male horses almost always have these teeth in the interdental space:

A

Canine Teeth

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2
Q

What sign is NOT indicative of impending parturition?

A

Dysphagia

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3
Q

The fetlock lies distal to the:

A

Cannon bone

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4
Q

What is trephining?

A

The process of making a hole into the sinus by removal of a small, circular piece of bone

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5
Q

A chain twitch or “humane” twitch should be applied to the

A

Muzzle

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6
Q

What type of restraint is most often used for reproductive procedures in mares?

A

Stocks

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7
Q

A “machinery murmur” in newborn foals is:

A

auscultated over the left heart base
considered a normal finding in foals < 4 days of age
indicates a patent ductus arteriosus

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8
Q

Which is not a site for palpating a peripheral pulse on a horse?

A

Lacrimal artery

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9
Q

Blood samples from a horse are usually obtained from:

A

The jugular vein

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10
Q

Which of these can be clinical signs of a blood transfusion reaction?

A

Diarrhea
Weakness
Piloerection
Hypotension

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11
Q

Due to the fact that horses are ____________ __________ breathers, their airway patency at all times is important.

A

Obligate nasal

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12
Q

Which of the following is the correct term for a foal’s first bowel movement?

A

Meconium

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13
Q

What can occur if there is an inadvertent arterial injection in horses?

A

the horse can have a seizure

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14
Q

When are enemas typically used in horses?

A

when assistance is needed for foals to pass their meconium

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15
Q

When is TIVA used?

A

Procedures that will be <45 min

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16
Q

When performing a skin turgor test on a horse, how many seconds indicates > 8% dehydration?

A

8 seconds

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17
Q

What equine blood type is the universal donor?

A

There is no universal donor

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18
Q

“Failure of Passive Transfer” in foals is treated with what substance?

A

Plasma

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19
Q

If hemorrhaging is ___________ the animal can ‘auto-transfuse’, however, this process is slow and can take too long.

A

Internal

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20
Q

When correctly placing a stomach tube in a horse, the tube will NOT travel through, or into,

A

the mouth

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21
Q

Clinical procedures related to the horse’s respiratory tract include all of the following except:

A

abdominocentesis

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22
Q

In performing an abdominocentesis, the EDTA is shaken out of the tube because it falsely elevates the

A

Total protein

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23
Q

The location to perform an abdominocentesis is at the most dependent part of the abdomen and slightly ______________ of midline.

A

Right

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24
Q

Horses are said to ‘be able to sleep standing’, this is made possible due to:

A

The stay apparatus

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25
Q

During part of the physical examination of a horse, you listen for borborygmi - which is known as ______?

A

gut sounds

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26
Q

Which of the following is the most common endocrine disorder in horses and other equine species?

A

Equine Cushing’s Disease (PPID)

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27
Q

Which general anesthetic complication(s) in horses can be ameliorated by proper positioning and padding?

A

Myopathy and neuropathy

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28
Q

The horse’s pastern is located between the fetlock and the hock.

A

False

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29
Q

What is the first step when restraining a foal?

A

Catch the mare first

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30
Q

What is the causative agent of Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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31
Q

Why is the use of acepromazine as a premedication contraindicated in stallions?

A

Priapism

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32
Q

What skin disease usually occurs in GREY horses?

A

Melanoma

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33
Q

During an equine blood transfusion, all of the following are prospective blood donors EXCEPT:

A

Stallions

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34
Q

Regarding blood transfusions in horses:

A

Donor horses can give 15-20% of their blood volume at one collection

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35
Q

Horses that need a Caslick surgery include all of the following except:

A

geldings that are western performance horses

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36
Q

After tubing a horse, the nostril begins to bleed; where is it most likely coming from?

A

The ethmoid turbinates

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37
Q

Which of the following is not used to restrain a horse?

A

Nose tongs

38
Q

What is the most common cardiac arrhythmia of clinical significance in the horse?

A

Atrial fibrillation

39
Q

Four areas where horses can ‘lose’ fluids are:

A

Respiratory tract, GI tract, skin via sweat, urinary tract

40
Q

Which of the following is considered the most important aspect of external coaptation in horses?

A

Padding

41
Q

Which is not a clinical sign of colic in a horse?

A

vomiting

42
Q

Sites for palpating peripheral pulses in the horse are:

A

Facial artery, Transverse facial artery, Metatarsal artery, Coccygeal Artery

43
Q

Which species can suffer guttural pouch empyema?

A

Horses

44
Q

Horses are measured in hands. 1 hand =

A

4 inches

45
Q

When microchipping a horse, it is placed _________________________.

A

in the nuchal ligament on the left side

46
Q

What should the MAP be maintained at in horses under general anesthesia?

A

> 70 mmHg

47
Q

All of the following are types of Pork production systems except:

A

farrow to slaughter

48
Q

Which of the following are products from the fiber industry?

A

wool
mohair
fiber from camelids

49
Q

In which phase of lactation is it common for cows to experience metabolic and infectious diseases?

A

Phase 1

50
Q

Which is Not a type of milking parlor?

A

Stanchion parlor

51
Q

Mohair is:

A

Goat fiber

52
Q

Which of the following housing styles of sows and gilts is banned in some states?

A

Gestation crates

53
Q

Regarding air quality in swine farm housing, which of the following should be monitored?

A

Ammonia
Hydrogen sulfide
Carbon monoxide
Methane

54
Q

When is it most common for dairy cows to experience metabolic disease?

A

Phase I of lactation

55
Q

What does “culled” mean?

A

Selected slaughtering

56
Q

The process of promptly heating and cooling milk to remove bacteria without influencing the flavor or nutritional value of the milk is_______________________.

A

Pasteurization

57
Q

What is FAMACHA used for in small ruminants?

A

evaluate the level of anemia due to Haemonchus contortus

58
Q

Although polled goats are desired because they are less likely to hurt each other, they commonly suffer from this other problem:

A

infertility and the intersex condition

59
Q

The use of elastrator bands to castrate sheep has been associated with this complication:

A

tetanus

60
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding Contagious Ecthyma (ORF) in sheep and goats?

A

It is not zoonotic

61
Q

Sheep are susceptible to toxicity of which of the following mineral?

A

Copper

62
Q

Passing a urinary catheter in a male goat is an easy procedure, quite like passing a urinary catheter in a male dog.

A

False

63
Q

Which of the following goat breeds lack an external pinna?

A

LaMancha

64
Q

Regarding Disbudding in Kids, which is correct?

A

Overheating/excessive burning can cause heat meningitis

65
Q

A castrated male sheep is called a:

A

Wether

66
Q

What is the average gestation period for small ruminants?

A

148-151 days

67
Q

You should not restrain a goat by:

A

its horns

68
Q

What are the issues seen with polled goats?

A

they have 35% infertility

69
Q

In the FAMACHA system, which of the following would indicate that treatment (deworming) is required?

A

3

70
Q

A descenting surgical procedure is commonly performed on which species?

A

Goat

71
Q

Which disease causes abortion, weak or stillborn lambs, pneumonia, or keratoconjunctivitis?

A

Chlamydophilosis

72
Q

Which of the following is False about lidocaine in goats?

A

Lidocaine at a 10 mg/kg dose is commonly used

73
Q

You should always remember that small ruminants are very sensitive to:

A

lidocaine, it may be toxic at 10 mg/kg dose

74
Q

Regarding Clostridium Perfringens, which type most commonly affects goats?

A

Type C

75
Q

What is the normal heart rate for a goat?

A

70-90 bpm

76
Q

What is a sheep’s main means of defense?

A

speed and flocking instinct

77
Q

Sun-cured hay is high in which of the following?

A

Vitamin D

78
Q

Which of the following species does not have a gallbladder?

A

Horse

79
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

water absorption

mucus production

80
Q

All of the following are considered trace minerals except;

A

Calcium

81
Q

Forages or grains contaminated with Ergot (fungus) are known to cause which of the following problems?

A

Reproductive problems

82
Q

The calcium-to-phosphorous ration in horses should be approximately:

A

2:1

83
Q

When is it most common for dairy cows to experience metabolic disease?

A

Phase I of lactation

84
Q

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are:

A

Fat-soluble vitamins

85
Q

Which of the following is false regarding Potassium supplementation?

A

It can be given as quickly as necessary to replace the deficit

86
Q

Deficiencies in what vitamin can cause hemorrhage, enlarged joints, delayed wound healing, and gum ulcerations

A

Vitamin C

87
Q

All of the following are types of grass hay except:

A

Alfalfa

88
Q

Which type of hay would be expected to have the highest protein content

A

Alfalfa

89
Q

Iron deficiency can result in

A

anemia, pica, poor hair coat, and diarrhea

90
Q

Which of the following livestock feed is fermented and has a high moisture content?

A

Silage

91
Q

Corn, oats, barley, and wheat primarily provide

A

Energy

Large Animal (40 decks)

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