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Large Animal > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Male horses almost always have these teeth in the interdental space:

A

Canine Teeth

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2
Q

What sign is NOT indicative of impending parturition?

A

Dysphagia

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3
Q

The fetlock lies distal to the:

A

Cannon bone

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4
Q

What is trephining?

A

The process of making a hole into the sinus by removal of a small, circular piece of bone

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5
Q

A chain twitch or “humane” twitch should be applied to the

A

Muzzle

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6
Q

What type of restraint is most often used for reproductive procedures in mares?

A

Stocks

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7
Q

A “machinery murmur” in newborn foals is:

A

auscultated over the left heart base
considered a normal finding in foals < 4 days of age
indicates a patent ductus arteriosus

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8
Q

Which is not a site for palpating a peripheral pulse on a horse?

A

Lacrimal artery

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9
Q

Blood samples from a horse are usually obtained from:

A

The jugular vein

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10
Q

Which of these can be clinical signs of a blood transfusion reaction?

A

Diarrhea
Weakness
Piloerection
Hypotension

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11
Q

Due to the fact that horses are ____________ __________ breathers, their airway patency at all times is important.

A

Obligate nasal

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12
Q

Which of the following is the correct term for a foal’s first bowel movement?

A

Meconium

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13
Q

What can occur if there is an inadvertent arterial injection in horses?

A

the horse can have a seizure

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14
Q

When are enemas typically used in horses?

A

when assistance is needed for foals to pass their meconium

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15
Q

When is TIVA used?

A

Procedures that will be <45 min

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16
Q

When performing a skin turgor test on a horse, how many seconds indicates > 8% dehydration?

A

8 seconds

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17
Q

What equine blood type is the universal donor?

A

There is no universal donor

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18
Q

“Failure of Passive Transfer” in foals is treated with what substance?

A

Plasma

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19
Q

If hemorrhaging is ___________ the animal can ‘auto-transfuse’, however, this process is slow and can take too long.

A

Internal

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20
Q

When correctly placing a stomach tube in a horse, the tube will NOT travel through, or into,

A

the mouth

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21
Q

Clinical procedures related to the horse’s respiratory tract include all of the following except:

A

abdominocentesis

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22
Q

In performing an abdominocentesis, the EDTA is shaken out of the tube because it falsely elevates the

A

Total protein

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23
Q

The location to perform an abdominocentesis is at the most dependent part of the abdomen and slightly ______________ of midline.

A

Right

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24
Q

Horses are said to ‘be able to sleep standing’, this is made possible due to:

A

The stay apparatus

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25
During part of the physical examination of a horse, you listen for borborygmi - which is known as ______?
gut sounds
26
Which of the following is the most common endocrine disorder in horses and other equine species?
Equine Cushing's Disease (PPID)
27
Which general anesthetic complication(s) in horses can be ameliorated by proper positioning and padding?
Myopathy and neuropathy
28
The horse's pastern is located between the fetlock and the hock.
False
29
What is the first step when restraining a foal?
Catch the mare first
30
What is the causative agent of Lyme Disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
31
Why is the use of acepromazine as a premedication contraindicated in stallions?
Priapism
32
What skin disease usually occurs in GREY horses?
Melanoma
33
During an equine blood transfusion, all of the following are prospective blood donors EXCEPT:
Stallions
34
Regarding blood transfusions in horses:
Donor horses can give 15-20% of their blood volume at one collection
35
Horses that need a Caslick surgery include all of the following except:
geldings that are western performance horses
36
After tubing a horse, the nostril begins to bleed; where is it most likely coming from?
The ethmoid turbinates
37
Which of the following is not used to restrain a horse?
Nose tongs
38
What is the most common cardiac arrhythmia of clinical significance in the horse?
Atrial fibrillation
39
Four areas where horses can 'lose' fluids are:
Respiratory tract, GI tract, skin via sweat, urinary tract
40
Which of the following is considered the most important aspect of external coaptation in horses?
Padding
41
Which is not a clinical sign of colic in a horse?
vomiting
42
Sites for palpating peripheral pulses in the horse are:
Facial artery, Transverse facial artery, Metatarsal artery, Coccygeal Artery
43
Which species can suffer guttural pouch empyema?
Horses
44
Horses are measured in hands. 1 hand =
4 inches
45
When microchipping a horse, it is placed _________________________.
in the nuchal ligament on the left side
46
What should the MAP be maintained at in horses under general anesthesia?
> 70 mmHg
47
All of the following are types of Pork production systems except:
farrow to slaughter
48
Which of the following are products from the fiber industry?
wool mohair fiber from camelids
49
In which phase of lactation is it common for cows to experience metabolic and infectious diseases?
Phase 1
50
Which is Not a type of milking parlor?
Stanchion parlor
51
Mohair is:
Goat fiber
52
Which of the following housing styles of sows and gilts is banned in some states?
Gestation crates
53
Regarding air quality in swine farm housing, which of the following should be monitored?
Ammonia Hydrogen sulfide Carbon monoxide Methane
54
When is it most common for dairy cows to experience metabolic disease?
Phase I of lactation
55
What does "culled" mean?
Selected slaughtering
56
The process of promptly heating and cooling milk to remove bacteria without influencing the flavor or nutritional value of the milk is_______________________.
Pasteurization
57
What is FAMACHA used for in small ruminants?
evaluate the level of anemia due to Haemonchus contortus
58
Although polled goats are desired because they are less likely to hurt each other, they commonly suffer from this other problem:
infertility and the intersex condition
59
The use of elastrator bands to castrate sheep has been associated with this complication:
tetanus
60
Which of the following is not true regarding Contagious Ecthyma (ORF) in sheep and goats?
It is not zoonotic
61
Sheep are susceptible to toxicity of which of the following mineral?
Copper
62
Passing a urinary catheter in a male goat is an easy procedure, quite like passing a urinary catheter in a male dog.
False
63
Which of the following goat breeds lack an external pinna?
LaMancha
64
Regarding Disbudding in Kids, which is correct?
Overheating/excessive burning can cause heat meningitis
65
A castrated male sheep is called a:
Wether
66
What is the average gestation period for small ruminants?
148-151 days
67
You should not restrain a goat by:
its horns
68
What are the issues seen with polled goats?
they have 35% infertility
69
In the FAMACHA system, which of the following would indicate that treatment (deworming) is required?
3
70
A descenting surgical procedure is commonly performed on which species?
Goat
71
Which disease causes abortion, weak or stillborn lambs, pneumonia, or keratoconjunctivitis?
Chlamydophilosis
72
Which of the following is False about lidocaine in goats?
Lidocaine at a 10 mg/kg dose is commonly used
73
You should always remember that small ruminants are very sensitive to:
lidocaine, it may be toxic at 10 mg/kg dose
74
Regarding Clostridium Perfringens, which type most commonly affects goats?
Type C
75
What is the normal heart rate for a goat?
70-90 bpm
76
What is a sheep's main means of defense?
speed and flocking instinct
77
Sun-cured hay is high in which of the following?
Vitamin D
78
Which of the following species does not have a gallbladder?
Horse
79
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
water absorption | mucus production
80
All of the following are considered trace minerals except;
Calcium
81
Forages or grains contaminated with Ergot (fungus) are known to cause which of the following problems?
Reproductive problems
82
The calcium-to-phosphorous ration in horses should be approximately:
2:1
83
When is it most common for dairy cows to experience metabolic disease?
Phase I of lactation
84
Vitamins A, D, E, and K are:
Fat-soluble vitamins
85
Which of the following is false regarding Potassium supplementation?
It can be given as quickly as necessary to replace the deficit
86
Deficiencies in what vitamin can cause hemorrhage, enlarged joints, delayed wound healing, and gum ulcerations
Vitamin C
87
All of the following are types of grass hay except:
Alfalfa
88
Which type of hay would be expected to have the highest protein content
Alfalfa
89
Iron deficiency can result in
anemia, pica, poor hair coat, and diarrhea
90
Which of the following livestock feed is fermented and has a high moisture content?
Silage
91
Corn, oats, barley, and wheat primarily provide
Energy

Large Animal (40 decks)

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