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T-6 CSO > EPQ7 11-217v1 Chp11-12 > Flashcards

EPQ7 11-217v1 Chp11-12 Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: In low altitude approaches, it is fair to expect vectors to final from ATC.

A

True, it is the norm

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2
Q

What are the two main categories of low altitude approaches?

A

Course reversals and procedure tracks

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3
Q

When cleared for an approach, you must remain on the last assigned altitude until:

A

established on a segment of the published approach.

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4
Q

What are the two types of course reversals?

A

The procedure turn (PT) and the holding in lieu of procedure turn (HILO PT)

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5
Q

How is a procedure turn identified on an approach plate?

A

A barb symbol with a direction and outbound course given.

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6
Q

When executing a procedure turn, the FAA recommends a speed of no more than:

A

200 KIAS

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7
Q

What are the two methods for executing a procedure turn approach?

A

45/180 and 80/260

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8
Q

If doing the 45/180 method for a procedure turn, how long should you track the outbound course?

A

1 minute

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9
Q

When you should begin timing for tracking the outbound course in a PT?

A

As soon as the turn has been initiated.

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10
Q

With respect to a RNAV or GPS approach, the Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) has how many sectors?

A

3, one for a straight in, left base, and right base to final.

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11
Q

Do precision approaches have visual descent points?

A

No, so don’t calculate one…

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12
Q

What is the definition of a VDP

A

A point on the final approach course where a normal descent (3 degrees) can be commenced from the MDA to the runway touchdown point.

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13
Q

What does VASI stand for and what is its use?

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator. A lighting system used to give a visual indication of an aircraft’s glide path.

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14
Q

If an IAP does not have a published VDP, how can the pilot find out why?

A

Trick question, there is currently no way for the pilot to know the exact reason.

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15
Q

What is the technique used for calculating VDP?

A

the heigth above touchdown (HAT) divided by the desired glideslope X100 (in our case 3 degrees or 300)

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16
Q

True or False: All precision approaches have missed approach points.

A

False, in fact none of them do.

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17
Q

When can a pilot descend to the minimum descent altitude (MDA)?

A

Once past the final approach fix.

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18
Q

True or False: If timing is not specifically depicted on an approach, it may still be used to identify the MAP.

A

False, not authorized, don’t do it, ever.

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19
Q

What is the typical range of a localizer signal?

A

18 miles within 10 degrees of course centerline.

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20
Q

If on a LOC/ILS approach, and the CDI becomes fully deflected, can the approach be continued?

A

Nope, better luck next time.

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21
Q

When within what distance of FAWP the GPS will automatically initiate a RAIM check and go active

A

2m

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22
Q

For RADAR approach repeat what to the controller until advised otherwise

A

all headings, altitudes and altimeter settings

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23
Q

While being vectored to final attempt contact with controller if no transmissions are received for approximately how long

A

1 minute

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24
Q

While on final for an ASR approach attempt contact with controller if no transmissions are received for approximately how long

A

15 seconds

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25
Q

While on final for a PAR attempt contact with controller if no transmissions are received for approximately how long

A

5 seconds

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26
Q

The pilot must have what in sight in order to fly a visual approach

A

either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight

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27
Q

What is the MAP for a precision approach if the RWY enviroment is not in sight

A

At DA/DH, execute the appropriate missed approach procedure

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28
Q

What ceiling and visibility is necessary to fly a contact approach?

A

Clear of clouds and 1 SM visibility

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29
Q

Do you need to Cx IFR clearance when cleared for a visual approach?

A

NO

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30
Q

When on a No-gyro, what type of turn is used when on final?

A

1/2 standard rate

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31
Q

the ceilling and visibility requirements for a visual approach are:

A

1,000/3

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32
Q

If RAIM failure occurs during a GPS approach AFTER the FAF, what do you do?

A

Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to MAP and execute Missed Approach

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33
Q

If the MM is the only way to identify the MAP, is the approach authorized?

A

No

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34
Q

T or F

If cleared for the visual approach, you are cleared to do a VFR overhead or traffic pattern

A

False, straight in approach only

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35
Q

When flying an ASR approach that ends in circling, you must give ATC what?

A

your category of Aircraft

36
Q

T or F

VDP is published for the non-precision approach with the highest MDA.

A

False, VDP is published for the non-precision approach with the lowest MDA

37
Q

T or F

You adjust your outbound leg length for wind to remain inside the remain within distance

A

True

38
Q

When flying a localizer back-course, what course do you put in?

A

The front course

39
Q

When do you go missed approach on a precision approach?

A

the decision altitude

40
Q

What is an ILS comprised of?

A

Glide slope, Localizer, and Outer Marker

41
Q

If RAIM failure occurs PRIOR to the FAF or the approach does not go active, can you commence the approach?

A

No, you must discontinue the approach and coordinate for a different approach

42
Q

T or F

Plan on reaching your MDA prior to VDP

A

True

43
Q

If timing is required to identify the MAP, when do you begin timing?

A

Passing over the FAF

44
Q

If you want to fly a procedure turn on a NoPT IAP, are you required to request clearance with ATC?

A

Yes

45
Q

T or F

When on final, you must always have at least 1 navigation receiver must be tuned in to receive course guidance

A

True

46
Q

In what situations do you not execute a Procedure Turn (PT or HILO)?

A 
SNERT.
Straight-In
No-PT on the Approach Plate
Established in Holding
Radar Vectors
Timed Approach
47
Q

What are the two basic types of radar approaches?

A

PAR & ASR

48
Q

How often does the controller talk on radar approaches when being vectored to final?

A

1 minute

49
Q

What must the pilot accomplish prior to reaching the initial approach fix

A

Slow the Aircraft to maneuvering speed

50
Q

When will the controller advise that the aircraft is approaching the glide path on an ASR approach

A

They will not advise approaching the glide path

51
Q

When is the missed approach point given a 5-character name on an RNAV approach?

A

When the MAP is not located at the runway threshold

52
Q

What are the two common types of course reversals?

A

Procedure turn

Holding in lieu of

53
Q

Which is not a common method for flying a procedure turn?

  • 45/180
  • 90/270
  • 80/260
  • holding technique
A

90/270

54
Q

How many additional turns in holding are you required to make when cleared for the approach on a HILO?

A

ZERO

55
Q

What is the usable range for the glideslope?

A

10 NM

56
Q

Plan the outbound leg to allow enough time for _______, ________, & _________

A

configuration
Any descent required prior to the FAF
Communication with the tower

57
Q

T or F: Your IFR clearance is cancelled once cleared for the visual Approach?

A

FALSE

58
Q

What type of Approaches are TAAs found?

A

RNAV

59
Q

When may you descend from the procedure turn completion altitude?

A

When established on the inbound course

60
Q

Whose method has the USAF adopted as procedural that requires pilots to wait until you are on a parallel or intercept heading to begin descent from the procedure turn fix altitude?

A

ICAO

61
Q

When are you required to complete a procedure turn?

A

When completing the full approach procedure

62
Q

When does the GPS switch to approach arm and what does the CDI sensitivity become?

A

30 NM and +/- 1

63
Q

HAT = 600, what is the VDP in time?

A

60 sec

64
Q

How is Glideslope intercept depicted?

A

Lightning Bolt

65
Q

What is the Air Force recommended Airspeed while preforming procedure turn course reversals?

A

200 KIAS

66
Q

How often does the controller talk on radar approaches when on final for a PAR?

A

5 Seconds

67
Q

How is a holding in lieu of (HILO) depicted on an approach plate?

A

Solid BOLD black line

68
Q

What are you required to repeat on radar approaches after the controller advises “do not acknowledge further instruction”

  • HEADINGS
  • ALTIMETER SETTINGS
  • ALTITUDES
A

ALL THREE

69
Q

T or F In regards to HILO if a descent is depicted on the inbound leg on the approach plate, you may begin the descent after passage of the holding fix?

A

FALSE.

You must when established on the inbound segment of the approach before beginning the descent.

70
Q

When flying procedure tracks, when may you descend to the next altitude?

A

Once a lead point is reached and a turn to the next segment is begun

71
Q

A defined point from which a normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may commence?

A

VDP

Visual descent point

72
Q 
TAA structure consists of all the following EXCEPT:
1-3 IAFs
Intermediate Fix 
VDP
MAP
A

VDP

73
Q

What requires a procedure turn?

A

When not established in holding

74
Q

The minimum MSL altitude that are charted on each of the TAA areas provide___ ft of obstacle clearance

A

1000

75
Q

How long do you time for after make the 45 degree turn on a procedure turn for cat B A/C

A

1 minute

76
Q

T or F the icon for each TAA area will be located and oriented with respect to the direction of arrival to the approach procedure

A

True

77
Q

The optimal final approach course is 5 miles, but may be as long as

A

10 nm

78
Q

T or F VDPs are not a mandatory part of the procedure

A

True

79
Q

When do you begin timing for a procedure turn?

A

outbound abeam the procedure turn

80
Q

One broad category of low altitude approaches is course reversals. what is the other broad category?

A

Procedure Track

81
Q

The height above Touchdown is 600, what is the VDP in distance?

A

2 miles

82
Q

How are procedure turns depicted on the approach plate?

A

Barb symbol

83
Q

How many hours can an erroneous satellite transmission be delayed before it is detected and fixed?

A

2 hours

84
Q

T or F there is a MAP on precision approach?

A

FALSE

85
Q

When is timing required on the final approach?

A

The final approach does not end at the published fix

86
Q

Descent below MDA/DA is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with _____ has been established and the Aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing

A

Runway environment

87
Q

If no FAF is depicted on an Approach plate, what is considered the FAF?

A

The point when you begin your descent from the procedure turn altitude

T-6 CSO (16 decks)

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