EPQ7 11-217v1 Chp11-12 Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: In low altitude approaches, it is fair to expect vectors to final from ATC.

A

True, it is the norm

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2
Q

What are the two main categories of low altitude approaches?

A

Course reversals and procedure tracks

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3
Q

When cleared for an approach, you must remain on the last assigned altitude until:

A

established on a segment of the published approach.

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4
Q

What are the two types of course reversals?

A

The procedure turn (PT) and the holding in lieu of procedure turn (HILO PT)

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5
Q

How is a procedure turn identified on an approach plate?

A

A barb symbol with a direction and outbound course given.

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6
Q

When executing a procedure turn, the FAA recommends a speed of no more than:

A

200 KIAS

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7
Q

What are the two methods for executing a procedure turn approach?

A

45/180 and 80/260

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8
Q

If doing the 45/180 method for a procedure turn, how long should you track the outbound course?

A

1 minute

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9
Q

When you should begin timing for tracking the outbound course in a PT?

A

As soon as the turn has been initiated.

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10
Q

With respect to a RNAV or GPS approach, the Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) has how many sectors?

A

3, one for a straight in, left base, and right base to final.

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11
Q

Do precision approaches have visual descent points?

A

No, so don’t calculate one…

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12
Q

What is the definition of a VDP

A

A point on the final approach course where a normal descent (3 degrees) can be commenced from the MDA to the runway touchdown point.

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13
Q

What does VASI stand for and what is its use?

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator. A lighting system used to give a visual indication of an aircraft’s glide path.

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14
Q

If an IAP does not have a published VDP, how can the pilot find out why?

A

Trick question, there is currently no way for the pilot to know the exact reason.

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15
Q

What is the technique used for calculating VDP?

A

the heigth above touchdown (HAT) divided by the desired glideslope X100 (in our case 3 degrees or 300)

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16
Q

True or False: All precision approaches have missed approach points.

A

False, in fact none of them do.

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17
Q

When can a pilot descend to the minimum descent altitude (MDA)?

A

Once past the final approach fix.

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18
Q

True or False: If timing is not specifically depicted on an approach, it may still be used to identify the MAP.

A

False, not authorized, don’t do it, ever.

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19
Q

What is the typical range of a localizer signal?

A

18 miles within 10 degrees of course centerline.

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20
Q

If on a LOC/ILS approach, and the CDI becomes fully deflected, can the approach be continued?

A

Nope, better luck next time.

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21
Q

When within what distance of FAWP the GPS will automatically initiate a RAIM check and go active

A

2m

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22
Q

For RADAR approach repeat what to the controller until advised otherwise

A

all headings, altitudes and altimeter settings

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23
Q

While being vectored to final attempt contact with controller if no transmissions are received for approximately how long

A

1 minute

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24
Q

While on final for an ASR approach attempt contact with controller if no transmissions are received for approximately how long

A

15 seconds

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25
While on final for a PAR attempt contact with controller if no transmissions are received for approximately how long
5 seconds
26
The pilot must have what in sight in order to fly a visual approach
either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight
27
What is the MAP for a precision approach if the RWY enviroment is not in sight
At DA/DH, execute the appropriate missed approach procedure
28
What ceiling and visibility is necessary to fly a contact approach?
Clear of clouds and 1 SM visibility
29
Do you need to Cx IFR clearance when cleared for a visual approach?
NO
30
When on a No-gyro, what type of turn is used when on final?
1/2 standard rate
31
the ceilling and visibility requirements for a visual approach are:
1,000/3
32
If RAIM failure occurs during a GPS approach AFTER the FAF, what do you do?
Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to MAP and execute Missed Approach
33
If the MM is the only way to identify the MAP, is the approach authorized?
No
34
T or F | If cleared for the visual approach, you are cleared to do a VFR overhead or traffic pattern
False, straight in approach only
35
When flying an ASR approach that ends in circling, you must give ATC what?
your category of Aircraft
36
T or F | VDP is published for the non-precision approach with the highest MDA.
False, VDP is published for the non-precision approach with the lowest MDA
37
T or F | You adjust your outbound leg length for wind to remain inside the remain within distance
True
38
When flying a localizer back-course, what course do you put in?
The front course
39
When do you go missed approach on a precision approach?
the decision altitude
40
What is an ILS comprised of?
Glide slope, Localizer, and Outer Marker
41
If RAIM failure occurs PRIOR to the FAF or the approach does not go active, can you commence the approach?
No, you must discontinue the approach and coordinate for a different approach
42
T or F | Plan on reaching your MDA prior to VDP
True
43
If timing is required to identify the MAP, when do you begin timing?
Passing over the FAF
44
If you want to fly a procedure turn on a NoPT IAP, are you required to request clearance with ATC?
Yes
45
T or F | When on final, you must always have at least 1 navigation receiver must be tuned in to receive course guidance
True
46
In what situations do you not execute a Procedure Turn (PT or HILO)?
``` SNERT. Straight-In No-PT on the Approach Plate Established in Holding Radar Vectors Timed Approach ```
47
What are the two basic types of radar approaches?
PAR & ASR
48
How often does the controller talk on radar approaches when being vectored to final?
1 minute
49
What must the pilot accomplish prior to reaching the initial approach fix
Slow the Aircraft to maneuvering speed
50
When will the controller advise that the aircraft is approaching the glide path on an ASR approach
They will not advise approaching the glide path
51
When is the missed approach point given a 5-character name on an RNAV approach?
When the MAP is not located at the runway threshold
52
What are the two common types of course reversals?
Procedure turn | Holding in lieu of
53
Which is not a common method for flying a procedure turn? - 45/180 - 90/270 - 80/260 - holding technique
90/270
54
How many additional turns in holding are you required to make when cleared for the approach on a HILO?
ZERO
55
What is the usable range for the glideslope?
10 NM
56
Plan the outbound leg to allow enough time for _______, ________, & _________
configuration Any descent required prior to the FAF Communication with the tower
57
T or F: Your IFR clearance is cancelled once cleared for the visual Approach?
FALSE
58
What type of Approaches are TAAs found?
RNAV
59
When may you descend from the procedure turn completion altitude?
When established on the inbound course
60
Whose method has the USAF adopted as procedural that requires pilots to wait until you are on a parallel or intercept heading to begin descent from the procedure turn fix altitude?
ICAO
61
When are you required to complete a procedure turn?
When completing the full approach procedure
62
When does the GPS switch to approach arm and what does the CDI sensitivity become?
30 NM and +/- 1
63
HAT = 600, what is the VDP in time?
60 sec
64
How is Glideslope intercept depicted?
Lightning Bolt
65
What is the Air Force recommended Airspeed while preforming procedure turn course reversals?
200 KIAS
66
How often does the controller talk on radar approaches when on final for a PAR?
5 Seconds
67
How is a holding in lieu of (HILO) depicted on an approach plate?
Solid BOLD black line
68
What are you required to repeat on radar approaches after the controller advises "do not acknowledge further instruction" - HEADINGS - ALTIMETER SETTINGS - ALTITUDES
ALL THREE
69
T or F In regards to HILO if a descent is depicted on the inbound leg on the approach plate, you may begin the descent after passage of the holding fix?
FALSE. | You must when established on the inbound segment of the approach before beginning the descent.
70
When flying procedure tracks, when may you descend to the next altitude?
Once a lead point is reached and a turn to the next segment is begun
71
A defined point from which a normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may commence?
VDP | Visual descent point
72
``` TAA structure consists of all the following EXCEPT: 1-3 IAFs Intermediate Fix VDP MAP ```
VDP
73
What requires a procedure turn?
When not established in holding
74
The minimum MSL altitude that are charted on each of the TAA areas provide___ ft of obstacle clearance
1000
75
How long do you time for after make the 45 degree turn on a procedure turn for cat B A/C
1 minute
76
T or F the icon for each TAA area will be located and oriented with respect to the direction of arrival to the approach procedure
True
77
The optimal final approach course is 5 miles, but may be as long as
10 nm
78
T or F VDPs are not a mandatory part of the procedure
True
79
When do you begin timing for a procedure turn?
outbound abeam the procedure turn
80
One broad category of low altitude approaches is course reversals. what is the other broad category?
Procedure Track
81
The height above Touchdown is 600, what is the VDP in distance?
2 miles
82
How are procedure turns depicted on the approach plate?
Barb symbol
83
How many hours can an erroneous satellite transmission be delayed before it is detected and fixed?
2 hours
84
T or F there is a MAP on precision approach?
FALSE
85
When is timing required on the final approach?
The final approach does not end at the published fix
86
Descent below MDA/DA is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with _____ has been established and the Aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing
Runway environment
87
If no FAF is depicted on an Approach plate, what is considered the FAF?
The point when you begin your descent from the procedure turn altitude