EPQ6 Flashcards
T/F USAF pilots may depart VFR without regard to the IFR climb gradient.
T. “If the mission justifies the increased risk, and when specifically authorized by MAJCOM/A3 USAF aircraft may depart any location, in VMC, without regard to the IFR climb gradient” (11-217v1; 7.2.1)
When flying IFR, delay all turns until ___ ft above Departure End of the Runway
400
Diverse departure is authorized if no obstacle penetrates the Obstacle Clearance Surface, which is a __:__ slope
40:1
T/F If low close-in obstacles penetrates the 40:1 slope Obstacle Clearance Surface, a diverse departure may still be flown.
T. BUT the pilot must comply with the low close-in obstacles.
At non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, assume a __ft runway end crossing height.
0
At other than USAF/USN bases, assume a __ ft runway end crossing height.
35
40:1 slope is a ___ ft/nm gradient
152
Definition of low close-in obstacles
Those that would generate an excessive climb gradient (>200 ft/nm) that terminate at or below 200 ft above Departure End of the Runway
The 2 types of departure procedures are
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures (SID)
ODPs can be graphical, textual, or both?
Textual or graphical
SIDs must always be graphical, textual, or both?
graphical
What is VCOA?
Visual Climb Over Airport. Developed when obstacles more than 3 sm from Departure End of Runway require a climb gradient in excess of 200’/nm. Uses the verbiage “climb in visual conditions” with weather minima.
Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) assumes airspeed of ___ and bank angle of __ (__ degrees bank is recommended)
250, 23, 30
If there is no Special Departure Procedure (SDP) and you need to reduce the required climb gradient, the last resort is to
subtract 48’/nm from published climb gradient.
For GPS approaches, the database course and DME must be within _ degrees and _ nm of published
5, 0.1
What is a standard holding pattern?
Right turns, 1 minute for leg at and below 14,000’. 1.5 minutes for leg above 14,000’
ATC should issue a holding instruction within _ minutes before reaching clearance limit.
5
When aircraft is __ mins or less from clearance limit fix, the pilot is expected to slow down so as to cross the fix and holding airspeed.
3
What is the max holding airspeed between MHA - 6000’?
200
What is the max holding airspeed between 6000 - 14000’?
230
What is the max holding airspeed above 14000’?
265
Max holding airspeed for USAF airfields
310
Max holding airspeed for USN airfields
230
For teardrop holding entry, consider yourself conveniently aligned when heading is within __ degrees of teardrop course
45
To find number of minutes to fly a 360 degree turn at 30 degrees of bank, use _____ of TAS.
1/100
What is a technique to find drift correction?
crosswind/ speed in nm/min
If established in holding, when may a pilot descend to minimum holding altitude?
When cleared for the approach
Advise ATC if you cannot descend at least __ fpm
500
The 2 exceptions to advising ATC that you cannot descend at least 500 fpm are:
When leveling off at 10,000 to slow down, and when leveling off at 2500 AGM prior to entering class B, C, or D when needing to slow down
What defines established on course?
1/2 scale deflection on VOR/TACAN/RNAV. Full scale for LOC
Radar vector weather requirements: When ceiling is at least __ ft above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least __, aircraft will be vectored to intercept final at least __ mile from FAF at maximum intercept angle of __ , or at least __ miles from FAF with max intercept angle of __.
500, 3, 1, 20, 3, 30
T/F “Expect” altitudes/speeds are not considered STAR restrictions until verbally issued and should not be used in the event of lost comms.
T
For a STAR, how would you understand “cleared the EAU CLAIRE SIX ARRIVAL”?
Pilot is cleared the EAU CLAIRE SIX ARRIVAL but must maintain altitude
For a STAR, how would you understand “Descend Via the EAU CLAIRE SIX arrival”?
Pilot may navigate vertically and laterally
Using a STAR requires that the pilot have at least the text or the graphic?
Graphic
