EPQ3 AFI11-2T-6V3_12FTWSUP_I Flashcards
Who is allowed to approach an operating engine?
No one
“Be especially careful of the dangers of a ___ ___.”
Spinning Prop
“Due to the nature of the T-6 egress system, each crew member will wear a ___ during all phases of flight.”
Visor
Visors “should be down prior to ___ ___ ___.”
Lowering the Canopy.
When are clear visors to be worn?
At night or when needed for restricted visibility
“On non-local sorties, each aircrew will carry ___ ___ ___ and ___ ___ ___ ___ to cover the proposed route of flight.”
appropriate in-flight publications
a suitable terrain chart
“G-suits are required for all sorties when planning to exceed ___ Gs during any portion of a sortie.”
2
“Life preserver units (LPUs) are required for departures and arrivals over water outside ___ ___ ___ from land.”
Power-off glide distance
T-6 crews will not cruise outside ___ ___ ___ ___ ___.”
Power-off glide distance from land
(TRUE/FALSE)”Aircrews will consider the possibility of air traffic control directions to remain over water longer than planned.”
TRUE
“Maintenance will normally marshal aircraft (how far?) past the aircraft parking spot?”
slightly
When, after completing the engine shutdown checklist, does the pilot release the brakes?
“At the direction of maintenance.”
Why does maintenance push the aircraft backward into parking position?
“To check tire condition”
If there is insufficient ground crew to push the aircraft backward into parking, crews will …
“… crews will leave the parking brake set and maintenance will check the tires at a later time.”
After the aircraft has been pushed back and tire condition has been check, what does the pilot do?
“Set the brakes”
“Aircrews will not take an aircraft for an off-station mission unless the aircraft can …”
“… start without use of a power cart at home station.”
May the aircrew motor the engine with the canopy open?
Yes
“To reduce the risk of FOD during ground operations, personnel will:
- -
- -
- -
- -
- -(12 FTW added)”
“Not approach an operating engine.”
“Avoid using excessive power.”
“Avoid prop or jet blast from other aircraft.”
“Ensure loose items are secure in the cockpit before opening the canopy.”
“Maintenance crews will not remove chocks until a crewmember is seated in the cockpit and has verified that the parking brake is set.”
“Remove the ejection seat safety pin and properly stow at the end of the runway during (which?) checklist according to the flight crew checklist?”
the before takeoff
“Maintain a minimum of (interval distance) when taxiing staggered.”
75 feet
“Maintain a minimum of … (interval distance) when in trail.”
150 feet
“Aircraft will take off with sufficient fuel for the planned sortie, to include …”
“… required reserve and alternate fuel.”
Joker fuel
“Joker fuel is a prebriefed fuel state needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight.”
Bingo fuel
“Bingo fuel is a prebriefed fuel state that allows the aircraft to return to the phase of intended landing or an alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel.”
Normal recovery fuel is defined as…?
“the fuel on initial or at the final approach fix at the base of intended landing or alternate, if required.”
The quantity of normal recovery fuel is… ?
“The higher of what is established locally or 200 pounds.”
Minimum fuel
150 pounds
Emergency fuel
100 pounds or less
“Minimum runway length and width for T-6 operations is …” ?
“4,000 feet long by 75 feet wide”
“An intersection takeoff must provide ___ of usable runway.”
4,000 feet
“T-6 operations require ____ between arresting cables located on or above the runway surface.”
4,000 feet
“Do not begin a takeoff following another departure until the preceding aircraft is ___ or a minimum separation of ___ exists.”
airborne
3,000 feet
“Do not cross the runway threshold to land until preceding aircraft are either ___, ___, or a minimum separation of ___ exists when using alternate sides of the runway for similar aircraft.”
airborne
clear of the runway
3,000 feet
“Do not cross the runway threshold to land until preceding aircraft are either ___, ___, or a minimum separation of ___ exists when not using alternate sides of the runway or for dissimilar aircraft.”
airborne
clear of the runway
6,000 feet
“For tower-controlled flight operations, minimum separation is ___ when conducting a touch-and-go landing behind a full stop.”
6,000 feet
“Do not initiate or accomplish items in the after landing checklist until …” ?
“… clear of the runway and at a safe taxi speed”
“AFTER LANDING checks may be accomplished under crew concept during ___.”
“taxi back to the chocks”
Is it necessary to come to a complete stop after clearing the runway to accomplish the after landing checks?
No
(True/False) You may perform single-ship rolling takeoffs during daylight or extended daylight hours as long as you have a rated pilot on board.
True
Crosswind Limitations: Icy runway
5 knots
Crosswind Limitations: Standing water
5 knots
Crosswind Limitations: “Standing water due to patchy standing water (ponding) (as determined by the [supervisor of flying SOF])”
10 knots
Crosswind Limitations: Wet runway
10 knots
Crosswind Limitations: Touch-and-go landings
20 knots
Crosswind Limitations: Initial takeoffs and full-stop landings on a dry runway
25 knots
“During the course of normal training, aircrew should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when … “?
“… the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds 10 knots.”
“Aircrews may use any flap setting when flying multiple touch-and-go landings provided … “?
they do not use flaps LDG when crosswinds (steady state or gust) exceed 10 knots
“Crosswind permitting, the LDG flap setting should be used for full-stop landings when the landing distance is greater than or equal to ___ of the actual field length.”
80%
“During ___, do not allow the aircraft to touch down.”
low approaches
“When a restricted low approach is directed, do not descend below ___ (AGL or MSL), or below ___.
500 feet AGL
the altitude specified by the controller.
“To avoid entering instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) during OCF recovery training, a minimum of ___ feet of airspace, ___ ___ ___, must exist below ___ ___.”
7,000
clear of clouds
entry altitude
“When conducting OCF recoveries over clouds, plan to complete all OCF recoveries (to include dive recoveries) at least ___ ___ ___ ___ ___.”
3,000 feet above the clouds
“Perform aerobatic flight only in ___ ___ ___.”
special use airspace
“Practice contact recoveries only in day ___ ___ ___.”
visual meteorological conditions (VMC)
“… ELPs in a tower-controlled pattern require ___ below clouds and ___ visibility according to Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)…”
500 feet
3 miles
“Perform all parts of aerobatic maneuvers, unusual attitudes, abnormal flight recoveries, practice lost wingman, extended trail, stalls, and slow flight above ___ (AGL or MSL).”
6,000 feet AGL
“The minimum altitude to begin OCF spin training is ___ (AGL or MSL).”
13,500 feet MSL
“Ensure spinning stops above ___ (AGL or MSL).”
10,000 feet MSL
“The minimum altitude for VFR nonlocal, point-to-point navigation missions dictated by operational or training requirements is ___ (AGL or MSL).”
3,000 feet AGL
“The minimum altitude to complete configured aircraft slips is ___ (AGL or MSL).”
300 AGL
“Extended daylight is defined as the period …”
“… 15 minutes before official sunrise to 15 minutes past official sunset.”
(True/False) All maneuvers normally accomplished during normal daylight hours may be performed within the extended daylight window.
True
PWC = ?
Pilot Weather Categories
“Pilot Weather Categories (PWCs) are designed to …”
“… reduce the exposure of pilots with limited experience to the risks inherent during periods of low ceiling and visibility.”
Takeoff and Approach ceiling/Visibility Minimums for PWC-1:
“Suitable published minimums”
Takeoff and Approach ceiling/Visibility Minimums for PWC-2:
“Suitable published minimums or 300 feet and 1 mile (runway visual range (RVR) 5,000 feet), whichever is greater.”
“Do not file a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimate time of arrival (plus or minus 1 hour) is …”
“… at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater.”
“Base the decision to launch a local sortie on the existing weather and forecast for planned landing plus or minus ___ ___.”
1 hour
“Do not commence an en route descent or published approach unless existing ceiling and visibility meet …”
the PWC requirements
“After beginning a penetration or published approach, if the weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot [May or May not] continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher.”
May
“If flying RNAV SIDs, DPs, STARs, T or Q routes, aircrew will …”
“… check predictive receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) for their route of flight during preflight planning at https://www.raimprediction.net or an approved alternate site to ensure GPS satellite coverage.”
“The GPS equipment is approved for en route, terminal, and nonprecision approach operations and other instrument procedures requiring a minimum required navigation performance (RNP) value of ___ or greater.”
0.3
“Crews must complete MAJCOM-directed training for use of these systems down to RNP 0.3 before ___ ___.”
IFR use
“To minimize the possibility of a bird strike and avoid problems associated with visual illusions, enter the (low-level) route no earlier than ___ after sunrise (___ for mountainous terrain).”
30 minutes
1 hour
“Fly low-level navigation at an altitude of ___ to ___ feet (AGL or MSL)”
500 to 1,500 AGL
On a low-level, “when terrain height varies, maintain a minimum of ___ above the highest terrain within ___ of the aircraft.”
500 feet
2,000 feet
On a low-level, “for towers on or near the route, plan to fly a minimum of ___ above the highest obstacle within ___ of the aircraft.”
500 feet
2 nm
