EPQ4 - using guidance from an IP, there may be questions on the EPQ not covered in these cards Flashcards
1
Q
What information is required for mission planning?
A
1) Weather
2) NOTAMS; TFRs
3) Airfield Suitability Restrictions Report (ASRR)
4) FLIP charts
5) Fuel requirements
6) Birds and hazards info
7) Special Departure Procedures (SDP)
8) (as applicable) P-RAIM, Space Based Augmentation System (SBAS) coverage and NOTAMS, and air traffic management Service Availability
9) Aircraft T.O.
10) MDS-specific, Volume 3
11) (as applicable) MAJCOM/COCOM guidance and flight crew bulletins
2
Q
Do not exceed 250 KIAS below what altitude?
A
10,000’ MSL
3
Q
“For coordinated/Approved stereo routes, reference the ___.”
A
“479 FTG T-6 inflight guides”
4
Q
“479 FTG assigned aircrew should make every attempt to coordinate all scheduling requests through their ___”
A
“respective squadron’s DOS”
5
Q
“TRAWING 6 owned low-level routes have a +/- ___ entry window.”
A
4 minute
6
Q
“If unable to make the low-level entry window…”
A
“…a new time must be coordinated.”
7
Q
“All aircrew will ensure they have a minimum of ___ separation behind preceding aircraft.”
A
2 minutes
8
Q
Five minutes prior to low-level actual entry time, aircrews will transmit on 255.4 MHz …
A
“Attention all aircraft, (callsign), (type of aircraft), entering (low-level route) Pt (x), 5 minutes, Exiting Pt (x), xxx’ AGL, xxx groundspeed.”
9
Q
Aircrews flying low-level routes will announce entry on 255.4 MHz by stating …
A
“Attention all aircraft, (callsign) entering (low-level route).”
10
Q
Aircrews flying on low-level routes “when making advisory calls in the MOA, remain on the ___ UHF frequency until ___ ___ ___ ___ then return to ___.”
A
MOA
clear of the MOA
255.4 MHz
11
Q
Aircrews flying on low-level routes will announce exit on 255.4 MHz by stating …
A
“Attention all aircraft, (callsign) exiting (low-level route)”
12
Q
“Aircrews entering on VRs 1021 through 1024 at Point A will contact ___ ___ on (VHF or UHF) with ___ ___ ___ and ___ ___.”
A
KPQL tower
VHF
position from airfield
VR route
13
Q
Aircrews entering VRs 1021 through 1024, after contacting KPQL tower will “remain on KPQL tower frequency until reporting “___ ___ ___” then change to ___ ___ ___ ___.”
A
clear to north
low-level VHF common frequency
14
Q
“Aircrews will notify squadron operations of ___ ___ ___. Operations supervisors will ensure changes are annotated in ___.”
A
tail number changes
TIMS
15
Q
“At NAS Pensacola, aircrew may takeoff with weather no lower than ___ ceilings and ___ visibility, or ___ ___, whichever is (least or greater?).”
A
200’
1/2 SM
approach minimums
greater
16
Q
(True/Flase) PWC-2 mins N/A at home station.
A
True
17
Q
“For departure at all off station locations, aircrew may takeoff with weather no lower than ___ ceilings and ___ visibility, ___ ___, or ___ ___ ___, whichever is (least or greater?)”
A
200' 1/2 SM PWC minimums suitable approach minimums greater
18
Q
“479 FTG assigned T-6s recover at ___ KIAS until base leg, then ___ knots minimum until ___ DME final.”
A
200
160
13
19
Q
“NASP recoveries. 479 FTG assigned T-6 and T-1s recovering via Course Rules recover at ___ knots until ___ ___.”
A
250
the break
20
Q
“Aircrews will utilize all means necessary (ATC, PIREPS, Ops Sup) to avoid ___, by ___ NM at or above ___ and ___ NM below ___.”
A
thunderstorms
20 FL 230
10 FL 230
21
Q
“When notified of a weather recall or divert, aircrews contact ___ ___ as appropriate with ___ ___, ___ ___ ___, and ___. Aircrews should ___ ___ while awaiting recovery sequencing.”
A
Ops Sup call sign fuel on board intentions conserve fuel
22
Q
“For specific bird watch procedures, reference the …”
A
479 FTG T-6A inflight guides
23
Q
Do not conduct flying operations in what BWC condition?
A
Severe
24
Q
“The slowest planned speed correction on low-level routes will be ___.”
A
180 KIAS
25
What are VFR Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums for Class B airspace?
Clear of clouds and 3 SM
26
What are VFR Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums for Class C and Class D airspace?
500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal and 3 SM
27
"When any portion of runway ___ is determined to be wet (by the aircrew, Sherman Tower or the Ops Sup), the runway will be considered as having ___ ___ as well."
1/19
| standing water
28
"At NAS Pensacola, aircrew may takeoff with weather no lower than ___ ceilings and ___ visibility, or ___ ___, whichever is (least or greater?)."
200'
1/2 SM
approach minimums
greater
29
(True/Flase) PWC-2 mins N/A at home station.
True
30
"For departure at all off station locations, aircrew may takeoff with weather no lower than ___ ceilings and ___ visibility, ___ ___, or ___ ___ ___, whichever is (least or greater?)"
```
200'
1/2 SM
PWC minimums
suitable approach minimums
greater
```
31
"479 FTG assigned T-6s recover at ___ KIAS until base leg, then ___ knots minimum until ___ DME final."
200
160
13
32
"NASP recoveries. 479 FTG assigned T-6 and T-1s recovering via Course Rules recover at ___ knots until ___ ___."
250
| the break
33
"Aircrews will utilize all means necessary (ATC, PIREPS, Ops Sup) to avoid ___, by ___ NM at or above ___ and ___ NM below ___."
thunderstorms
20 FL 230
10 FL 230
34
"When notified of a weather recall or divert, aircrews contact ___ ___ as appropriate with ___ ___, ___ ___ ___, and ___. Aircrews should ___ ___ while awaiting recovery sequencing."
```
Ops Sup
call sign
fuel on board
intentions
conserve fuel
```
35
"For specific bird watch procedures, reference the ..."
479 FTG T-6A inflight guides
36
Do not begin a descent if destination weather is below the __________ minimums for a straight in or sidestep approach
Visibility
37
Do not begin a descent if destination weather is below the __________ and ___________ minimums for a circling approach
Ceiling and visibility
38
If the reported weather decreases below minimums, when can the pilot continue the approach?
After beginning a descent, receiving radar vectors for an approach, or established on any segment of the approach prior to the MAP
39
"Bird Condition on low-level routes will be set by the use of ___ and ___."
AHAS
| PIREPS
40
"The slowest planned speed correction on low-level routes will be ___."
180 KIAS
41
(True/False) At NAS Pensacola, there is no system in place to adequately determine Runway Surface Condition (RSC).
True
42
"Because the runway is neither grooved nor properly crowned, pooling/standing water is commonplace on runway ___ after any amount of rainfall which causes the runway to be considered wet."
1/19
43
"When any portion of runway ___ is determined to be wet (by the aircrew, Sherman Tower or the Ops Sup), the runway will be considered as having ___ ___ as well."
1/19
| standing water
44
Where would you look for NASP pattern and "Delta" pattern information?
MDS-specific In-Flight Guides
45
When may aircrew file to and/or land at civil public airports? (What are "P" coded Civil Airports?)
1) In an emergency
2) Flying a helicopter or C-coded aircraft
3) Necessary in the recovery of active air defense interceptor aircraft
4) An alternate is required and no other suitable airport is available
5) The wing commander or higher authority approves and the airport manager grants permission
6) A US governed tenant (e.g. ANG) is listed for the airport of landing and airport facilities can support the aircraft
46
Where can you find authorized sources to obtain weather information from?
See list in 11-203V2, FIH, or as MAJCOM directs
47
Where do you obtain NOTAMS?
- The Defense Internet NOTAM Service (DINS)
| - or by contacting the installations listed in the FLIP or the nearest Aeronautical Information Service
48
When do pilots have to fly under IFR?
1) Weather does not permit VFR
2) Airspace rules require IFR (e.g. class A)
3) Flying federal airways faster than 180 KTAS
4) Flying fixed wing at night (unless the mission cannot be flown with IFR)
49
What weather is required in order to file an IFR destination?
Prevailing weather for the estimated time of arrival +-1 hour at destination must be at or above the lowest compatible published minimums
50
What report takes precedence over all visibility reports for a runway and is applied to all takeoffs, landings, and approaches for that runway?
Runway Visual Range (RVR) reports
51
What should a pilot do if there is no compatible published approach at the destination?
Pilots may file to a point served by a published approach where forecast weather at ETA 1 hour allows the pilot to continue on a composite IFR/VFR flight plan to the destination.
52
For fixed-wing aircraft, when is an IFR alternate required?
An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at ETA 1 hour is less than a ceiling of 2,000 ft and a visibility of 3 SM.
53
When else is an alternate required?
1) All compatible approaches require radar
2) Required NAVAIDs will be unmonitored
3) The destination has no weather reporting capability
4) The airfield's lowest compatible approach weather minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft ceiling or 3 SM visibility.
54
What forecast weather conditions are needed to qualify an alternate for fixed-wing aircraft?
The worst alternate forecast weather conditions for ETA 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions, will meet or exceed:
1) a ceiling of 1000 ft, or 500 ft above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher
2) 2 SM or 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher
55
What disqualifies an alternate?
1) All compatible approaches require radar
2) All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
3) The airfield does not have a weather reporting service
4) "Alternate not authorized" is marked on all compatible approaches
5) Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section
6) All compatible approaches at the alternate require use of GNSS and planning to the destination was also based on the use of only GNSS approaches (except if aircraft has WAAS/SBAS and WAAS approach is available)
56
When should you fly VFR?
Only when required for mission accomplishment.
57
When is the flight plan closed?
When landing at a tower-controlled airfield in the NAS, the flight plan should close automatically. In all other cases, close flight plans with an FSS or ATC facility.
58
How much fuel must the aircraft have before takeoff or immediately after in-flight refueling?
Enough usable fuel to complete flight to final landing (or Air Refueling Control Point) plus reserves.
59
When an alternate airport is required, must fuel required for a MISSED approach at the alternate airport be included in the total flight plan fuel?
When an alternate is required, fuel required for an approach AND missed approach must be included in the total plan fuel if visibility-only weather criteria is used at destination. Fuel required for ONLY the approach is required in the total plan fuel if both ceiling an visibility criteria are used.
60
How much fuel reserve do you need?
"Ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10% or 20 minutes, whichever is greater."
61
What are the minimum items that must be included in a preflight briefing?
1) Emergency procedures/signals
2) Aircrew and passenger flight equipment/system usage
3) Safety precautions and restrictions
62
Can you takeoff when existing weather is below minimums?
No!
63
When can you turn after takeoff?
"Do not turn after takeoff until at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway, unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern."
64
Is low close-in obstacle clearance assured when complying with the published or ATC climb gradient?
No. "Low close-in obstacles may be listed in the Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) section, NOTAMs, or charted on the published procedure."
65
What climb gradient must a single engine aircraft comply with?
"Ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed 200 ft/NM or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher"
66
What are the 6 ways you can depart IFR?
1) Diverse Departure
2) Obstacle Departure Procedure
3) Standard Instrument Departure
4) Specific ATC Departure (SID)
5) Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums
6) MAJCOM Certified Procedure
67
What is Diverse Departure?
"A diverse departure is an IFR departure procedure used at an airport that has at least one published approach but lacks non-standard takeoff minimums and/or IFR departure procedures. Track runway centerline to 400 ft. above the DER elevation before turning on course."
68
What is Obstacle Departure Procedure?
"Also known as a "trouble T", ODP refers to textual or graphical instructions to ensure departure obstacle clearance"
69
What are Standard Instrument Departures?
"Follow SID procedures as published."
70
What are Specific ATC Departure Instructions?
"ATC instructions refer to navigational guidance (e.g. heading, routing, and altitude) issued with a departure clearance."
71
What are Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums?
"Departures using non-standard takeoff minimums (ceiling and visibility) must ensure the aircraft is at or above the published ceiling by the end of the runway, the continue climbing at 200'/NM to a minimum IFR altitude."
72
What are MAJCOM Certified Procedures?
"In Restricted Areas or during contingency operations, MAJCOM/A3s may develop and authorize departure procedures for their aircraft at specific locations if no other procedure can be developed"
73
What is the minimum aircraft altitude on Airways?
"No lower than any published minimum for the airway."
74
What is the minimum aircraft altitude off Airways?
No lower than the Off Route Obstacle or Terrain Clearance Altitude or the altitude that provides at least 1,000 ft. of clearance above all obstacles within 4 NMs of the course to be flown in non-mountainous terrain, or 2,000 ft. in mountainous terrain.
75
Do not begin a descent if destination weather is below the following required approach minimums:
1.
2.
1. For a straight-in or sidestep approach, the required visibility minimums.
2. For a circling approach, both the required ceiling and visibility minimums.
76
Category I ILS has ___ RVR ___ ___
1800
| or greater
77
Category II ILS has ___ to ___ ___ ___ RVR
1200
| less than 1800
78
Category III ILS has ___ ___ ___ RVR
less than 1200
79
"MAJCOMsmay authorize Category I ILS approaches to less than 2400 RVR at locations without Touchdown Zone/Centerline Lighting (TDZ/CL) (or when such system is inoperative) provided the approach is flown using guidance from ___ ___ ___ ___, ___ ___, or ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___."
an approved flight director
heads-up display
coupled to an autopilot flown to a Decision Altitude (DA)
80
"Do not apply a temperature correction to ___ ___ ___."
an ATC-assigned altitude
81
"Radar vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC in the NAS are not temperature compensated and may be queried or refused if ..."
"... obstacle clearance is in doubt."
82
When making Cold Weather Altitude Corrections, advise ATC if any correction exceeds ___.
8 ft
83
If the temperature is below 32 degrees F or 0 degrees C, the airfield is not in mountainous terrain, and if the altitude on the IAP is not greater than 3,000 ft above the altimeter setting source, which altitudes need cold weather corrections?
All altitudes inside FAF or below 1,000 ft AGL
84
If the temperature is below 32 degrees F or 0 degrees C, and the airfield is either in mountainous terrain, and/or if the altitude on the IAP is greater than 3,000 ft above the altimeter setting source, which altitudes need cold weather corrections?
All altitudes on the IAP
85
If the temperature is below -22 degrees F or -30 degrees C, which altitudes need cold weather corrections?
All altitudes on the IAP
86
"Fly these procedures using the appropriate conventional NAVAID(s) as the primary means of navigation except as authorized with approved RNAV equipment"
Conventional Arrivals
87
"Retrieve (these) procedures in their entirety by procedure name from a current navigation database and compare against approved publications"
RNAV/RNP/GNSS
88
What acronym is used to help determine if an alternate is required?
WWDRUM
89
What acronym is used to help determine of an alternate qualifies?
WWDRAG
90
WWDRAG
Worst WX +/- 1 hr. 1,000 and 2 SM or 500 and 1 SM above lowest compatible approach min.s
Winds out of limits
Denial or RVSM
Radar required for all compatible approaches
Alternate not authorized (Trouble A's)
GPS is the only available NAVAID + planning to a destination only based on using GPS approach
91
WWDRAG
Worst WX +/- 1 hr. 1,000 and 2 SM or 500 and 1 SM above lowest compatible approach min.s
Winds out of limits
Denial or RVSM
Radar required for all compatible approaches
A (Trouble A's)
GPS is the only available NAVAID + planning to a destination only based on using GPS approach
92
6 departures:
```
Diverse
MAJCOM
ATC
SID
ODD
Non-standard T/O min.s
```
93
What forecast weather requirements are there for a straight-in or side-step approach?
Meets required visibility minimums
94
What forecast weather requirements are there for a circling approach?
Meets required ceiling and prevailing visibility minimums
95
What are the 5 reasons you would be required to file IFR?
1-Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
2-Airspace rules require IFR flight
3-Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within (not simply crossing) Federal Airways
4-Operating fixed-wing aircraft at night unless the mission cannot be flown under IFR
5-If it is possible to file IFR, file IFR
96
What are the 4 reasons you would be required to file IFR?
1-Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
2-Airspace rules require IFR flight
3-Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within (not simply crossing) Federal Airways
4-Operating fixed-wing aircraft at night unless the mission cannot be flown under IFR
97
(True/False) Aircrew may file to and land at US military, Joint Use (MIL/CIV), or Public Civilian fields.
False. Aircrew may only file to and land at US military and Joint Use (MIL/CIV) fields, not Public Civilian fields.
98
Where do you get NOTAMS?
DINS or, if DINS is not available, by contacting one of the installations listed in the FLIP or the nearest Aeronautical Information Service
99
Where do you go to obtain WX info?
Sources listed in the Air Force Handbook (AFH) (11-202V2) or in the Flight Information Handbook (FIH)
100
Where do you go to obtain WX info?
Sources listed in the Air Force Handbook (AFH) (11-202V2) or in the Flight Information Handbook (FIH)
101
When visibility reports conflict, which has the highest priority?
Runway Visual Range (RVR)
102
How do you close a flight plan at a non-towered airfield?
With an FSS or ATC facility by any means of communication available
103
Aircraft must have enough usable fuel to complete the flight to ________ plus ______.
to a final landing at either the destination or alternate
| plus fuel reserves
104
Ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by ___% up to a maximum of ___ minutes, or ___ minutes, whichever is greater.
10%
45 minutes
20 minutes
105
Takeoffs are prohibited when WX is below ___ ___.
Landing minimums
106
Do not turn after takeoff until at least ___ above the ___ ___ ___ ___ ___, at ___ ___ ___, and ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___, unless ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___, ___ ___ ___ ___ ___, or ___ ___ ___ ___ ___.
```
400'
Departure End of the Runway elevation
a safe airspeed
past the end of the runway
specifically cleared by the controlling agency
required by a published procedure
when executing a closed pattern
```
107
What is th minimum IFR climb gradient?
200 ft/NM
108
Operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above ___ AGL, except ___ ___ ___, ___ ___ ___ ___, or ___ ___ ___ ___.
500'
over open water
in special use airspace
in sparsely populated areas
109
Operate over congested areas or groups of people at an altitude which ensures at least ___ above the highest obstacle within a ___ radius.
1,000'
| 2,000'
110
Do not descend below DH/DA.MDA until _______, and _____
sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established
in a position to execute a safe landing
111
Do not descend below 100' above the threshold elevation or touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the ___ ___ ___ or the ___ ___ ___ ___ are visible and identifiable.
red termination bars
| red side row bars
112
Do not descend below 100' above the threshold elevation or touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the ___ ___ ___ or the ___ ___ ___ ___ are visible and identifiable.
red termination bars
| red side row bars
113
When do you report gear down and to whom?
prior to crossing the runway threshold
| to ATC or runway supervisory unit
