455 FTS STANDARDS (EPQ 2)

Question 1

Mission Prep: UCSOs will show to the squadron at least ___ minutes prior to the brief

Answer 1

15 min, crew rest and crew duty day permitting

Question 2

Step time is ___ prior to T/O

Answer 2

40 min

Question 3

Chock time is ___ from to T/O

Answer 3

1 + 45

Question 4

Max taxi speed on taxiway

Answer 4

15 knots

Question 5

Max taxi speed in congested areas

Answer 5

5-7 knots, a brisk walk

Question 6

Do not conduct RAIM check in ___

Answer 6

congested areas

Question 7

Slow to configure approximately ___ NM prior to ___

Answer 7

5 NM prior to FAF

Question 8

Make “100 prior” call after the ___ on approach

Answer 8

FAF

Question 9

Lead turn points will be calculated for turns greater than ___° hdg change

Answer 9

30°

Question 10

At least ___ Ground Speed check(s) should be performed on a sortie

Answer 10

1

Question 11

Standard planned airspeed

Answer 11

240 TAS

Question 12

Standard holding speed

Answer 12

150 KIAS

Question 13

UCSOs will verbalize the “hack” when…

Answer 13

when reaching the holding fix

Question 14

In a radar pattern, fly downwind at ___ KIAS

Answer 14

200 KIAS

Question 15

In a radar pattern, fly base/dogleg at ___ KIAS

Answer 15

180 KIAS

Question 16

In a radar pattern, fly final/straight in at ___ KIAS until 10 NM prior to FAF, and ___ KIAS until 5 NM prior to FAF

Answer 16

200 KIAS

180 KIAS

Question 17

In a radar pattern, fly final approach at ___ KIAS after configuring

Answer 17

110 KIAS plus gust factor

Question 18

___ NM prior to the FAF and inbound, UCSOs will callout “___ NM prior to the FAF, slow to configure”

Answer 18

5 NM

Question 19

OLDRODIO = ?

Answer 19

• OBS off
• Load GPS approach
• Direct to the IAF or FAF if receiving vectors on final
• RAIM: check predictability on Status pg 5
• OBS on as required
• Displays: use the NAV button to select the GPS for the CDI and magenta needle
• Inbound Course: published course to FAF if being vectored to final, as required, for full procedure
• OBS off NTL 2 miles prior to the FAF/IAF

Question 20

Run through 6 T’s at every ___, ___, ___ and ___

Answer 20

Holding fix, IAF, FAF, and glideslope intercept

Question 21

6 T’s

Answer 21

Time Turn Transition Twist Track Talk

Question 22

Hand signal to turn on AUX bat

Answer 22

Triangle formed with thumbs and index fingers

Question 23

ISS Solo procedures: Rear Cockpit ejects upon ___ or ___ (without comms)

Answer 23

third bailout

third face curtain hand signal

Question 24

ISS Solo procedures: Front Cockpit ejects approx. ___ sec after Rear Cockpit

Answer 24

0.5 sec

Question 25

Uncontrolled ejection altitude

Answer 25

6,000 AGL

Question 26

Pass aircraft control without comms by ____

Answer 26

rocking rudder pedals

Question 27

Average Mission Duration (AMD), Contact

Answer 27

1.0

Question 28

Average Mission Duration (AMD), Instrument

Answer 28

1.5

Question 29

Average Mission Duration (AMD), Nav

Answer 29

1.6

Question 30

IP can shorten/extend AMD by ___ but requires ____

Answer 30

0.2

4293 writeup

Question 31

Do you brief joker every sortie?

Answer 31

No

Question 32

Do you brief bingo on every sortie?

Answer 32

Yes

Question 33

ORM briefs consist of ___ and how to ____

Answer 33

total numbers

how to mitigate

Question 34

UCSO initiates which checklists?

Answer 34

Climb, Ops, Fence, Clef, Descent

checklists in the air

Question 35

Fuel pt update brief includes:

Answer 35

1 - Time
2 - Est. Fuel
3 - MCF (Mission Continuation Fuel)

Question 36

Brief Time: C/N/I4001, I4290, I4190 and 88/99 sortie =

Answer 36

1 + 30

Question 37

Brief first O&B/XC or unfam. Low Level sortie =

Answer 37

1 + 45

Question 38

Briefs not C/N/I4001, I4290, I4190 and 88/99 sortie

or First O&B/XC or unfam. Low Level sortie =

Answer 38

1 + 10

Question 39

Minimum scheduled turn time (events) =

exception:

Answer 39

0 + 45

turning from flight to flight = 1 + 15

Question 40

Which sorties do IPs brief?

Answer 40

C4001/2, I4001 and N4001

Question 41

UCSOs may brief PCL hand position as “standard” after ____

Answer 41

I4002

Question 42

Do not switch the departure freq until ___

Answer 42

until being cleared to do so and after verifying that the gear and flaps are up

Question 43

The ejection seat pin will remain in prior to ___ and while ___

Answer 43

prior to entering the aircraft and while under sun shelters

Question 44

If either crewmember drops eject seat pin:

Answer 44

• DO NOT taxi under sun shelters
• notify Jedi Ops ASAP, tell them which cockpit
• Coord. w/ Jedi Ops for non-sheltered parking spot
• Maintenance will bring a spare pin
• Shut down engine
• Open canopy just enough to take pin
• reclose canopy, latch, install pin

Question 45

Minimum wingtip clearance for taxi

Answer 45

25 ft

Question 46

When ATC or ATIS announces winds other than pre-briefed, UCSO will:

Answer 46

update “rotate” speed (factoring gusts)

Question 47

Within Pensacola departure airspace, departures will normally be flown utilizing the GPS for navigation for _____.

Answer 47

For the first 2 points

Question 48

Fly ___ - ___ knots during the climb

Answer 48

160 - 180

Question 49

UCSO announces ____ prior to all required level offs

Answer 49

1000 feet

Question 50

For all intermediate level offs, UCSOs direct the IP to “set ___”

Answer 50

Set 200

Question 51

Recoveries published in the IFG may be briefed as _____ and planned for ___ knots

Answer 51

“Standard”

250 knots

Question 52

IPs will call JEDI OPS approximately ___ out from landing with their _____

Answer 52

10 minutes out

aircraft status

Question 53

Prior to all assigned/cleared altitudes prior to and including the FAF, Callout:

Answer 53

“1000 feet prior, set XXX indicated”

Question 54

Prior to all assigned/cleared altitudes after the FAF, Callout:

Answer 54

“100 feet prior”

Question 55

Callout at MDA/DA

Answer 55

“Minimums”

Question 56

At the MAP or after the DA, and the runway is not in sight, Callout:

Answer 56

“Go around”

Question 57

Anytime the aircraft is more than ___ feet off altitude, ___ KIAS off assigned airspeed, or ___ degrees off assigned heading, the UCSO shall ______

Answer 57

100 feet
10 KIAS
5 degrees
The UCSO shall advise the IP of the deviation

Question 58

UCSOs may use GPS in lieu of ____

Answer 58

Land based NAVAIDs that are unreliable, unserviceable, or NOTAM’d out.

Question 59

UCSOs may use GPS for a GS check when _____

Answer 59

When a GS check is required and within slant-range error distance to the ground-based NAVAID

Question 60

Use ___ Knots ___ Speed when calculating time to control point

Answer 60

240 Knots Ground Speed

Question 61

Plan to accomplish a Ground Speed check if a turn >___ degrees

Answer 61

45 degrees

Question 62

The latest possible update to calculated CT arrival times will be ___ miles prior to ___, ___, or ___.

Answer 62

10 miles prior to TRADR, INBRD, or BRATT

Question 63

Objective will be to arrive at CT +/- ___ min of calculated CT

Answer 63

+/- 2 min

Question 64

In holding, may slow to as low as ___ or ___, whichever is higher.

Answer 64

120 KIAS or MAX endurance AoA

Question 65

UCSO will verbalize the “hack” when reaching the ___

Answer 65

holding fix

Question 66

Direct the pilot to slow to configure ___ prior to the ___

Answer 66

5 NM prior to the FAF

Question 67

Direct pilot to slow down to ___ , ___ prior to the IAF

Answer 67

150 KIAS, 10 NM prior to IAF

Question 68

Final Approach speed, after configuring is no slower than ___

Answer 68

110 KIAS plus gust factor

Question 69

5 NM prior to the FAF the UCSO will callout: ___

Pilots will begin slowing down to configure approx. ___ prior to the FAF

Answer 69

“5 NM from the FAF, slow to configure”

2-3 NM prior

Question 70

On procedure turns, UCSOs will use the ____ maneuver

Answer 70

45/180 maneuver

Question 71

UCSO will ensure pilot remains within ___ above and ___ below glideslope on ILS approach

Answer 71

One dot above

Half dot below

Question 72

Callout ___, ___ feet above DA/MDA

Answer 72

“100 above”

Question 73

When IP says “Runway in sight”, UCSO says ___

Answer 73

“Proceed visually”

Question 74

On a precision approach, when IP says “Runway not in sight”, UCSO says ___

Answer 74

“Go around”

Question 75

455 aircrew will not fly any instrument approaches to a DA lower than ___

Answer 75

200 ft AGL

Question 76

All simulated emergencies will be prefaced with “____, ____, ____”

Answer 76

“Simulated, Simulated, Simulated”

Question 77

When egressing, the default direction is ___, and run ___ feet

Answer 77

left and 45 degrees aft of wing, run at least 300 ft

Question 78

ORM 321 is used to ____

Answer 78

check to see if you are cleared to descend below 2,000 ft on a forced landing

Question 79

ORM 321

Answer 79

On profile for field of intended landing
Runway in sight
Maneuver to Land
300' AGL: final decision to eject
200' AGL: gear confirmed and reported down
100' AGL: aircraft on centerline

Question 80

ELP High Key: ___ AGL, ___ KIAS, Gear ___, Flaps ___

Answer 80

3,000 AGL, 120 KIAS, Lower Gear, Flaps Up

Question 81

ELP Cross Key: ___ AGL, ___ KIAS, Gear ___, Flaps ___

Answer 81

2,200-2,300 AGL, 120 KIAS, Gear Down, Flaps Up

Question 82

ELP Low Key: ___ AGL, ___ KIAS, Gear ___, Flaps ___

Answer 82

1,500 AGL, 120 KIAS, Gear Down, Flaps T/O

Question 83

ELP Base Key: ___ AGL, ___ KIAS, Gear ___, Flaps ___

Answer 83

600-800 AGL, 120 KIAS, Gear Down, Flaps LDG (as required)

Question 84

ELP Final: ___ AGL, ___ KIAS, Gear ___, Flaps ___

Answer 84

1,000 ft from TD, 110 KIAS, Gear Down, Flaps LDG (as required)