Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

SMART 1 > Endocrine meds > Flashcards

Endocrine meds Flashcards

1
Q

Which medication used to treat PRIMARY or SECONDARY hyperparathyroidism and has an adverse effect of hypocalcemia

A

Cinacalcet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mechanism of Cinacalcet

A

Sensitizes Ca sensing receptor (CaSR) in parathyroid gland—-> decrease PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the use of Fludrocortisone

A

Mineralocorticoid replacement in primary adrenal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Adverse effect of Fludrocortisone therapy

A

Edema, exacerbation of heart failure, hyperpigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What medication use to treat SIADH has a side effect of nephrogenic DI, photosensitivity and bone and teeth abnormalities

A

Demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which ADH antagonist that works at V2 receptor is used to treat SIADH

A

Conivaptan, Tolvaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Medication for treating Central DI, von Willebrand disease, sleep enuresis

A

Desmopressin acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Medication for treating Turner syndrome and GH deficiciency

A

GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the use of Oxytocin

A

Stimulate labor, uterine contractions, milk let down; controls uterine hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can somatostatin (octreotide) be use to treat

A

acromegaly, carcinoid syndrome, gastrinoma, glucagonoma, esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Levothyroxine and Triiodothyronine

A

Thyroid hormone replacement medication use to treat HYPOTHYROIDISM, MYXEDEMA and off-label as weight loss supplement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Side effects of levothyroxine and triiodothyronine

A

Tachycardia, heat intolerance, tremor, arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which medications use to treat HYPERTHYROIDISM block thyroid peroxidase, inhibiting the oxidation of iodide and the organification and coupling of of iodide leading to inhibition of thyroid hormones

A

Propylthiouracil and methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medication used to Treat Hyperthyroidism by blocking 5’-deiodinase—> decrease conversion of peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

Propythiouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which medication for hypothyroidism can be used in the 1st trimester of pregnancy because of its hepatotoxicity in 2nd and 3rd trimester

A

Propythiouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hyperthyroidism medication used in 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy because of its teratogenicity in first trimester

A

Methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medication used as monotherapy in type 2 DM that leads to weight gain. Stimulate postprandial insuline release by binding to K channels on Beta-cells

A

Meglitinide

nateglinide, repaglinide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Type 2 DM medication that causes vomiting, pancreatitis and modest weight loss

A

GLP-1 analogs

Exenatide, Liraglutide–sc injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of GLP-1 analogs

A

Increase glucose dependent insulin release, decrease glucagon release and increase satiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Medication that inhibit DPP-4 enzyme that deactivates GLP-1 use to treat Type 1 & 2 DM

A

Sitagliptin
Linagliptin,
saxagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Medication given subcutaneously for Type 1 & 2DM causes hypoglycemia (mistimed)

A

AMYLIN ANALOGS

Pramlintide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type 2 Diabetic medication that blocks reabsorption of glucose at PCT

A

SODIUM-GLUCOSE CO-TRANSPORTER 2 (SGGLT-2) inhibitors

  1. Canagliflozin
  2. Dapagliflozin
  3. Empagliflozin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adverse effects of Cangliflozin, Dapagliflozin and Empagliflozin

A

Glucosuria, UTI, vaginal yeast infection, weight loss, orthostatic hypotension

24
Q

Type 2 DM medication that inhibit intestinal brush-border alpha- glucosidase

A

Acarbose

Miglitol

25
Oral FIRST LINE therapy in type 2 DM. Cause lactic acidosis. Contraindicated in renal insufficiency and can be used in patients without ISLET function
Biguanide | Metformin
26
Medication for type 2 DM. It stimulates release of endogenous insulin. Close K channels in B-cell membrane and can cause disufiram-like effect
FIRST GENERATION SULFONYLUREAS Chlorpropamide Tolbutamide
27
Medication for type 2 DM. It stimulates release of endogenous insulin. Close K channels in B-cell membrane. Does NOT cause disulfiram-like effect
SECOND GENERATION SULFONYLUREAS 1. Glimepiride 2. Glipizide 3. Glyburide
28
what is disulfiram-like effects
Flushing, fast heartbeats, nausea, thirst, chest pain, vertigo, and low blood pressure
29
Monotherapy Type 2 DM medication that binds to PPAR-gamma nuclear transcription regulator with a risk of HF and increase risk of fractures
Pioglitazone | Rosiglitazone
30
Long acting insulin for for Type 1 and 2 DM, GDM
Determir, Glargine
31
Rapid acting insulin for Type 1 and 2 DM, GDM
Lispro, Aspart, Glulisine
32
Intermediate Insulin for GDM, Type 1 and 2 DM
NPH
33
Short acting Regular insulin is used for
Type 1 and 2 DM, GDM, DKA(IV), hyperkalemia (+ glucose), stress hyperglycemia
34
What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of Nor-epinephrine to EPINEPHRINE
Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNM)
35
What muscle acts primary to flex the thigh at the hip
Psoas Muscle
36
Where is the origination of the psoas muscle
Anterior surface of the transverse process and lateral surface of the vertebral body
37
What medication used for AFib has an adverse effect of CONSTIPTION
Diltiazem and Verapamil | Non-dihydropyridine CCBs
38
Serum level of which substances will be raised with the administration of Thiazide
Cholesterol, Calcium, Uric acid, Glucose and Triglycerides
39
Wilson disease can cause cystic degeneration of which brain structures
1. Putamen | 2. Basal ganglia structures
40
Woolsorters disease (pulmonary anthrax) is caused by
Inhalation of spores from mainly goats hair or hides
41
Widened mediastinum on chest X-ray, hemorrhagic mediastinitis
Pulmonary Anthrax
42
Serpentine or medusa head on microscopy
Anthrax
43
What is required for the pathogenicity of Anthrax
Antiphagocytic D-glutamate Capsule
44
What is the virulence factor for Staph Aureus
Protein A
45
What is the function of protein A from staph aureus
Binds Fc portion of IgG and prevent opsonization and complement mediated killing
46
What does Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) vaccine compose
Cell wall polysaccharide conjugate with protein toxoid
47
Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) reduces incidence of
meningitis, pneumonia, bacteremia and epiglottitis
48
Gastric Ulcers located at the lesser curvature most like will penetrate
Left and Right gastric arteries
49
What medication can be used to treat alcohol redrawal
Benzodiazepines (chlordiazepoxide)
50
Which antipsychotic medications can lower seizure treshold
Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol
51
Mechanism of Ecoli (0157:H7)
Inactivates ribosomal subunits
52
Which endogenous opioid peptides with strong affinity for Delta and Mu receptors are released in response to Noxious stimuli
1. Enkephalins 2. Endorphine 3. dynorphins
53
One endogenous opioid peptide that is derived from proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is
Beta endophine
54
What other substances are derived from POMC
ACTH and MSH
55
The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin in the lungs drives the release of
Protons (H) and CO2 from hemoglobin (Haldane effect)
56
What organism is implicated in most cases of HEMATOGENOUS OSTEOMYELITIS
``` Staphylococcus Aureus (1st) Streptococcus pyogenes (2nd) ```
57
What nerve is most likely injured in a person experiencing middle ear pain with INCREASED SENSITIVITY to SOUND (hyperacusis)
Facial Nerve

SMART 1 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions