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Endo Flashcards

1
Q

what is the first line and diagnostic test for acromegaly ?

A

1st line - serum IGF-1
diagnostic - OGTT

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2
Q

what is sick euthyroid syndrome

A

Low T3/T4 alongside an inappropriately normal TSH in an acutely unwell patient.

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3
Q

what is the initial management of hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state

A

IV fluids

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4
Q

what is the first line management of a DKA ?

A

Isotonic saline

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5
Q

which medications are helpful in the management of diabetic patients who are obese

A

DPP-4 Inhibitor ( Sitagliptin)

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6
Q

what is the diagnostic test for Graves disease

A

TSH hormone receptor antibodies

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7
Q

what is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis

A

Graves

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8
Q

whats the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia

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9
Q

give 2 features of Primary hyperaldosteronism

A

HTN + Hypokalaemia

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10
Q

what test can be used to distinguish the different types of diabetes

A

C-Peptide - will be low in T1DM and normal / high in T2DM

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11
Q

when should an SGLT-2 be added to metformin ? Do you need to make any changes to the metformin when you do this

A
  • high risk of CVD
    -established CVD
  • Chronic HF
  • titrate metformin up first
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12
Q

What is the pattern in which diabetic neuropathy occurs

A

sensory loss in a ‘‘glove and stocking’’ distribution with the lower legs affected first - symmetrical and then spreading upwards

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13
Q

first line management of diabetic neuropathy

A

amitryptiline, duloxetine, gabapentin, pregabalin

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14
Q

which is the most sensitive test to diagnose cushings syndrome

A

low dose overnight dexamethasone suppression test

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15
Q

which is the most sensitive test to distinguish between the causes of cushings

A

high dose dexamethasone test

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16
Q

what is the first line management of hypoglycaemia

A

oral glucose 10-20 g in liquid gel or tablet form

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17
Q

what is the management of hypoglycaemia in an unconscious patient

A

subcutaneous / IM Glucagon
IV 20% GLUCOSE through a large vein

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18
Q

whats the criteria for hypoglycaemia

A

< 3.9 mmol/L

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19
Q

how do you manage changes in eye vision with thyroid disease

A

urgent refferal to specialist

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20
Q

which is the most important modifiable risk factor for the development of thyroid eye disease

A

smoking

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21
Q

what is the management of thyroid eye disease

A

topical lubricants
steroids
radiotherapy
surgery

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22
Q

what are the features of an Addisonian crisis

A

hyponatraemia
hypotension
hypovolaemia
hyperkalaemia

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23
Q

give 3 causes of an adrenal crisis

A

sepsis / surgery
adrenal haemorrhage
steroid withdrawal

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24
Q

how do you manage an addisonian crisis

A

hydrocortisone 100 mg im/iv

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25
Q

name 2 main side effects of sulfonylureas

A

hypoglycaemia
weight gain

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26
Q

when should sulfonylureas be avoided

A

breastfeeding, pregnancy

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27
Q

what is the first line investigation in suspected primary hyperaldosteronism

A

aldosterone / renin ratio

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28
Q

2 key features of hyperaldosteronism

A

htn and hypokalaemia

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29
Q

most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia

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30
Q

how does a myxoedema coma present

A

confusion and hypothermia

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31
Q

how do you manage a myxoedema coma

A

IV Thyroid replacement
IV Fluid
IV Corticosteroids
electrolyte imbalance correction

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32
Q

at what rate should you prescribe insuline ( DKA)

A

0.1 unit / kg/ hour

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33
Q

which type of fluid is used in fluid resuscitation in DKA

A

Isotonic saline

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34
Q

_________ diabetes medication are associated with an increased risk of UTI’s and thrush

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors ( flozin ending)

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35
Q

which diabetes medication is linked to fourniers gangrene

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor

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36
Q

how does an SGLT-2 inhibitor act

A

inc glucose reabsorption , increase urinary glucose excretion

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37
Q

which diabetes medication is recommended for weight loss

A

SGLT-2

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38
Q

which conditions are not suppressed by the high dose dexamethasone suppresion test

A

cushings syndrome, ectopic ACTH syndrome

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39
Q

differentiate between Obese class 1,2,3

A

1 - 30 to 35
2- 35 to 40
3- >40

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40
Q

specific features seen in Graves disease

A

exophthalmos
pretibial myxoedema

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41
Q

which antibodies are present in Graves disease

A

TSH receptor stimulating antibodies
anti thyroid peroxidase antibodies

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42
Q

how is addisons disease managed

A

Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

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43
Q

what is given to diabetic patients on insulin for emergencies

A

glucagon kit

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44
Q

definitive management of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

total parathyroidectomy

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45
Q

how do you manage steroid dose in addisons patient with recurrent illness

A

double hydrocortisone
keep fludrocortisone the same

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46
Q

what is central pontine myelinolysis and why does it occur

A

it occurs when you give insulin in hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state which causes dramatic fluid shift between compartments leading to central pontine myelinolysis. presents as dysarthria, reduced consciousness, dysphagia

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47
Q

what is the first line treatment for Acromegaly ?

A

Trans-Sphenoidal surgery

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48
Q

which 3 classes of medications can be used in the management of acromegaly ? Give examples

A

Somatostatin analogue : Octreotide
GH receptor antagonist : Pegvisomant
Dopamine agonist : Bromocriptine

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49
Q

In type 1 diabetes what HBA1C target should be used ?

A

48 mmol/mol

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50
Q

what is the definitive management of primary hyperparathyroidism ?

A

Total parathyroidectomy

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51
Q

what is the Hba1c target for patients on a drug which may cause hypoglycaemia ?

A

Sulfonylureas

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52
Q

how is an adrenal crisis managed

A

IM Hydrocortisone

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53
Q

name 4 drug causes of raised Prolactin

A

Metoclopramide
Domperidone
Phenothiazines
Haloperidol

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54
Q

How do you manage a DKA patient who’s ketonaemia and acidosis has not been resolved in 24 hours

A

Review by senior endocrinologist

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55
Q

how is mastoiditis diagnosed

A

clinical diagnosis
CT only if complications suspected

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56
Q

hashimotos diseases carries a small increased risk of which cancer

A

thyroid lymphoma

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57
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state

A

Hypovolaemia
Marked Hyperglycaemia ( 30 mmol / L)
significantly raised serum osmolarity ( > 320 mosmol/kg)
no significant hyperketonaemia or acidosis

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58
Q

what is the management of hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state

A

Fluid replacement ( IV 0.9% sodium)
insulin : only give if blood glucose stops falling while giving fluids
VTE prophylaxis

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59
Q

what are drug causes of raised prolactin

A

Metoclopramide + domperidone
phenothiazines
Haloperidol

rarely : SSRI, opiates

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60
Q

when should SGLT 2 inhibitors be the second line management for diabetes

A
  • Patient has a high risk of developing CVD
    -patient has established CVD
    -Patient has chronic HF
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61
Q

what is the difference primary and secondary prevention when prescribing a statin

A

primary prevention

10 year cardiovascular risk => 10 % OR most type 1 diabetes OR CKD if eGFR < 60 m//min/m2
give atorvastatin 20 mg OD
Secondary prevention

Known ischaemic heart disease OR cerebrovascular disease OR peripheral arterial disease
atorvastatin 80 mg OD

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62
Q

What acid base disturbances are seen in Cushing’s syndrome

A

hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis

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63
Q

how do you manage a patients insulin when they have diabetic ketoacidosis

A

continue long acting insulin
stop short acting insulin

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64
Q

what are the side effects of thyroxine therapy

A

hyperthyroidism = due to overtreatment
Reduced bone mineral density
worsening of angina AF

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65
Q

how can an ectopic source of ACTH present

A

Hypokalaemia - muscle, weakness and lethargy
metabolic alkalosis
glucose intolerance
Lymphoedema
chest pain

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66
Q

explain the results of water deprivation test and desmopressin test in diabetes insipidus

A

nephrogenic DI : low urine osmolality after water deprivation and low urine osmolality after desmopressin

cranial DI : low urine osmolality after deprivation and high urine osmolality after desmopressin

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67
Q

what is the hormonal picture of Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

elevated gonadotrophs but low testosterone

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68
Q

what is the most appropriate investigation for patients with increased urinary cortisol and low plasma ACTH levels

A

CT adrenals

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69
Q

when does the BNF suggest gradual removal of systemic steroids ? at what frequency

A

received > 40 mg prednisolone daily for > 1 week
received > 3 weeks of treatment
recently received repeated courses

reduce weekly

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70
Q

what are the side effects of SGLT-2 inhibitors ?

A

urinary and genital infection
Fournier’s gangrene
normoglycemic ketoacidosis
Increased risk of lower limb amputation - monitor feet closely

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71
Q

what is the action of SGLT-2 inhibitors ?

A

reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion

acting in the renal proximal convoluted tubule

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72
Q

what is the definitive investigation of Addison’s disease ?

A

ACTH stimulation test - short synacthen test

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73
Q

How is the diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus made in a symptomatic patient ? Is this different in an asymptomatic patient ?

A

fasting glucose >= 7.0 mmol/l
random glucose >= 11.1 mmol/l

Same criteria but must be demonstrated on 2 occasions

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74
Q

what are the causes of an Addisonian crisis ?

A

Sepsis / surgery causing acute exacerbation of chronic insufficiency ( Addisons, Hypopituitarism)

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75
Q

how do you manage an Addisonian crisis ?

A

Hydrocortisone 100 mg iv/im
saline 1 l over 30-60 mins / dextrose if hypoglycemic

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76
Q

What causes a lower than expected level of HbA1c ?

A

SCA
G6PD deficiency
hereditary spherocytosis
haemodialysis

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77
Q

what causes a higher than expected level of HbA1C

A

vit b12 / folic acid deficiency
IDA
splenectomy

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78
Q

what is gastroparesis ? When does it occurs + what are its symptoms + management ?

A

It occurs secondary to autonomic neuropathy and symptoms include erratic blood glucose control, bloating and vomiting.
management includes metoclopramide, domperidone or erythromycin

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79
Q

what is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia ?

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

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80
Q

what is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroid adenoma

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81
Q

what are the symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

bones
stones
groans
psychiatric moans

82
Q

how would you diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism based on blood tests

A

raised calcium
low phosphate
PTH raised inappropriately

83
Q

what sign is seen on xray in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

pepperpot skull

84
Q

what is the definitive management of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

total parathyroidectomy

85
Q

what is the first line management of diabetic neuropathy

A

amitriptyline
duloxetine
gabapentin
pregabalin

86
Q

which antibodies are found in graves disease

A

Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

87
Q

what is the Hba1c target for a patient on a drug which may cause hypoglycemia

A

53 mmol/mol

88
Q

name 4 complications of acromegaly

A

HTN
Diabetes
cardiomyopathy
colorectal cancer

89
Q

how does graves disease show on radioiodine uptake test ?

A

increased homogenous uptakee

90
Q

what is the nature of inheritance of maturity onset diabetes of the young ?

A

autosomal dominant

91
Q

what are the diabetes sick day rules regarding insulin?

A

if the patient is on insulin they must not stop it due to DKA

92
Q

what are the diabetes sick day rules regarding oral hypoglycemics ?

A

temporarily stop oral hypoglycemics during an acute illness

93
Q

what is Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome ? What is it caused by? how do you manage it ?

A

rare but life threatening disorder associated with bilateral adrenal haemorrhage.

Can be caused by fulminant meningococcemia.

Management includes supportive therapy for sepsis + volume resuscitation

94
Q

how does a benign incidental adenoma present ?

A

lipid rich core readily identified on CT scanning
non specific pain

95
Q

what is secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by

A

Physiological elevation of PTH levels in response to hypocalcemia, commonly due to renal failure/ vitamin D deficiency

96
Q

what is the first line treatment for acromegaly?

A

trans-sphenoidal surgery

97
Q

what medications are used in the management of acromegaly?

A

somatostatin analogue : Octreotide
GH receptor antagonist : Pegvisomant
dopamine agonist : bromocriptine

98
Q

what is the first line drug used in the management of thyrotoxicosis

A

Propylthiouracil

99
Q

what is the most important blood test to assess a patient’s response to treatment with levothyroxine for Hashimoto’s thyroiditis ?

A

TSH

100
Q

how often should insulin dependent diabetics check their blood glucose whilst driving ?

A

Insulin dependent diabetics

101
Q

what is the action of metformin?

A

Acts by reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving glucose uptake and utilisation in peripheral tissues.

102
Q

how is a diagnosis of gestational diabetes made ?

A

fasting plasma glucose of >= 5.6 mmol/L
2 hour post oral glucose tolerance test plasma of >= 7.8 mmol/l

103
Q

what is the most common complication of parathyroidectomy

A

hypocalcaemia

104
Q

how long apart should calcium carbonate and levothyroxine be taken

A

dec absorption of oral levothyroxine so take 4 h apart

105
Q

what is the most common type of thyroid cancer ?

A

papillary

106
Q

what investigations are needed to diagnose thyroid cancer ?

A

thyroid ultrasound
fine needle aspiration
serum thyroid stimulating hormone
calcitonin

107
Q

What are the complications of maternal gestational diabetes?

A

Macrosomia ( birth weight > 4 kg)
Neonatal seizures
preterm delivery –> neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

108
Q

what are complications of amiodarone use ?

A

Hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism /thyrotoxicosis
corneal deposits
stevens-johnson syndrome

109
Q

How do you diagnose pre-diabetes

A

Impaired Fasting Glucose (IFG): Fasting blood glucose levels between 6.1-6.9 mmol/L

Impaired Glucose Tolerance (IGT): Two-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) values between 7.8-11.0 mmol/L

110
Q

how do you investigate sub-clinical hypothyroidism

A

raised TSH
Normal T3 and T4
Repeat test in 3-6 months

111
Q

what are the rules regarding metformin during ramadan

A

one-third of the normal metformin dose should be taken before sunrise and two-thirds should be taken after sunset

112
Q

what are the causes of Addisonian crisis ?

A

sepsis / surgery causing an acute exacerbation
steroid withdrawal
adrenal haemorrhage or Waterhouse Friederichsen syndrome

113
Q

what is the management of an Addisonian crisis

A

hydrocortisone 100 mg im / iv
1 litre normal saline infused over 30-60 mins or with dextrose if hypoglycaemic

114
Q

what MEN condition is pheochromocytoma ?

A

MEN 2

115
Q

what are the MEN 1 conditions?

A

pancreatic tumours ( gastrinoma, insulinoma)
pituitary tumours

116
Q

what feature suggests Grave’s disease over other causes of Hyperthyroidism

A

Diplopia

117
Q

how does tertiary hyperthyroidism present?

A

occurs in patient’s with CKD due to ongoing hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands resulting in excessive levels of parathyroid hormone.

118
Q

how is gestational diabetes diagnosed?

A

fasting glucose >= 5.6 mmol/L ( <7 diet and exercise)
2 hour glucose level >= 7.8

119
Q

how to assess a patient following a fragility fracture?

A

> 75 : start bisphosphonate without DEXA scan
<75 : DEXA

120
Q

which medication is associated with angioedema

A

ACEi-i

121
Q

how is a maintenance dose of steroid replacement split in terms of regimen

A

Majority of dose given in the 1st half of the day

122
Q

what is the treatment of choice of toxic multinodular goitre ?

A

radioactive iodine

123
Q

what is the management of severe PAD ?

A

endovascular revascularisation for short segment stenosis < 10 cm
surgical revascularisation in segments > 10 cm

124
Q

what medications and lifestyle changes are recommended in the management of PAD ?

A

Stop smoking
treat co-morbidities : HTN, DM, Obesity
start statin, Clopidogrel

125
Q

explain the results of primary polydipsia on water deprivation test ?

A

urine osmolality after fluid deprivation : high
urine osmolality after desmopressin : high

126
Q

what are the tests and management done for pheochromocytomas ?

A

tests : 24h urinary collection of metanephrines

surgery is the definitive management however first medications are used :

alpha blocker ( phenoxybenzamine) followed by beta blocker ( propranolol)

127
Q

what 3 conditions are associated with pheochromocytoma

A

MEN2
neurofibromatosis
VHL

128
Q

what is the rule of 10’s in pheochromocytoma ?

A

bilateral in 10%
malignant in 10%
extra-adrenal in 10%

129
Q

what is the most common complication of thyroid eye disease ?

A

exposure keratopathy

130
Q

what are the phases of subacute thyroiditis ? How is it investigated ?

A

4 phases
phase 1 : hyperthyroidism, painful goitre and raised ESR

Phase 2 : euthyroid

Phase 3 : hypothyroidism

Phase 4 : normal

investigated by thyroid scintigraphy : globally reduced uptake of iodine

131
Q

how are unilateral and bilateral causes of aldosterone excess investigated

A

high resolution CT and adrenal vein sampling

132
Q

how is primary hyperaldosteronism managed

A

adrenal adenoma : laparoscopic adrenalectomy
bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia : aldosterone antagonist - spironolactone

133
Q

what is the key parameter to monitor patients with hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state

A

serum osmolality

134
Q

deficiency of what electrolyte can prevent adequate replacement of other electrolytes such as calcium ?

A

magnesium

135
Q

what is the management of a prolactinoma ?

A

drugs are first line - cabergoline ( dopamine agonists)
second line - surgery

136
Q

what is nelson’s syndrome and how does it present ?

A

presents due to rapid enlargement of an ACTH producing adenoma that occurs after removal of both adrenal glands. This eliminates cortisol feedback causing existing pituitary adenomas to grow unchecked.

137
Q

how do non functioning pituitary adenomas present

A

generalised hypopituitarism

138
Q

what are common drug causes of raised prolactin

A

metoclopramide
domperidone
phenothiazines - prochlorperazine
haloperidol

139
Q

what are causes of raised prolactin

A

pregnancy
prolactinoma
physiological
PCOS
primary hypothyroidism
prochlorperazine, metocloPramide, domPeridone

140
Q

when should addition of metformin be considered in the management of type 1 diabetes

A

BMI > 25

141
Q

which anti-diabetic drug is contraindicated in HF

A

Pioglitazone

142
Q

what is the action of DPP4 inhibitors ?

A

They increase levels of incretins ( GLP-1 and GIP)

143
Q

what medication induces neutrophilia

A

corticosteroids

144
Q

what biochemical marker are MEN1 syndromes associated with

A

hypercalcaemia

145
Q

what treatment can worsen thyroid eye disease

A

radioiodine treatment

146
Q

how does hypercalcaemia secondary to malignancy present ?

A

PTH low
ALP high
calcium high

147
Q

how many hypoglycaemic episodes will result in the patient having to surrender their driving license

A

2

148
Q

what hormone are medullary thyroid cancers associated with

A

calcitonin

149
Q

what is the action of pioglitazone

A

reducing peripheral insulin resistance

150
Q

what thyroid function is seen in pregnancy

A

raised total t3 and t4 but normal ft3 and ft4

151
Q

how are patients with diabetic foot disease followed up?

A

referral to local diabetic foot centre

152
Q

how does subacute thyroiditis show on scan

A

globally reduced iodine uptake on scan

153
Q

what is the definition of DKA resolution

A

pH >7.3 and
blood ketones < 0.6 mmol/L and
bicarbonate > 15.0mmol/L

154
Q

Bone pain, tenderness and proximal myopathy (→ waddling gait) → ?

A

osteomalacia

155
Q

what is the management of osteomalacia ?

A

vitamin D supplementation
calcium supplementation if dietary calcium inadequate

156
Q

what are the blood investigations of osteomalacia and what do they show

A

low vitamin D levels
low calcium, phosphate (in around 30%)
raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients)

157
Q

how do you manage blood pressure > 180/120 mm Hg

A

specialist assessment : signs of retinal haemorrhage / life threatening symptoms
referral if pheochromocytoma suspected

if no warning signs :
urgent investigations for end organ damage

158
Q

most common endogenous cause of Cushing’s

A

pituitary adenoma

159
Q

what is Pseudo-cushings? How would you distinguish it from regular cushings

A

mimics Cushing’s
alcohol excess or depression causes it
false positive dexamethasone suppression test or 24h urinary free cortisol
insulin test used to differentiate

160
Q

what are the side effects of isosorbide mononitrate

A

headaches, dizziness and hypotension

161
Q

Thyrotoxicosis with tender goitre =

A

subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis

162
Q

How do the following show up on nuclear scintigraphy
toxic multinodular goitre
de quervain’s thyroditis

A

TMG - patchy uptake
DQT - globally reduced uptake

163
Q

what are the high risk factor for pre-eclampsia

A

hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy
chronic kidney disease
autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or antiphospholipid syndrome
type 1 or type 2 diabetes
chronic hypertension

164
Q

what are the moderate risk factors for eclampsia

A

first pregnancy
age 40 years or older
pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m² or more at first visit
family history of pre-eclampsia
multiple pregnancy

165
Q

how is the risk of hypertensive disorders reduced in pregnancy

A

women with the following should take aspirin 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks gestation until the birth
≥ 1 high risk factors
≥ 2 moderate factors

166
Q

what urine osmolality excludes diabetes insipidus

A

a urine osmolality of >700 mOsm/kg

167
Q

mx of nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus

A

nephrogenic - thiazides, low salt + protein diet
central - desmopressin which is a Vasopressin V2 receptor agonist

168
Q

give 2 important interactions of levothyroxine? how should that be managed

A

iron, calcium carbonate : to be given at least 4h apart

169
Q

gestational diabetes : glucose >= 7 mmol/l insulin

A

start insulin

170
Q

management of gestational diabetes

A

plasma glucose <7 : diet and exercise –> metformin after 1-2 weeks if targets not met –> still not met then add insulin

plasma glucose > 7 : insulin

171
Q

management of de quervains thyroditis

A

naproxen

172
Q

what type of insulin is used to treat gestational diabetes

A

short acting insulin only

173
Q

when is glibenclamide used in the management of diabetes in pregnancy

A

should only be used for women who cannot tolerate metformin or those who do not meet the glucose targets with metformin but don’t want insulin

174
Q

Diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes

A

fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L
2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L

175
Q

when should women be screened for gestational diabetes ?

A

previous GDD: at booking and at 24-28
any other RF’s : only at 24-28 weeks

176
Q

referral for a child with a palpable abdominal mass

A

refer very urgently < 48h for specialist assessment for neuroblastoma / Wilms

177
Q

management of hypothyroidism in pregnancy

A

increase dose of levothyroxine by 50%

178
Q

management of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

propylthiouracil

179
Q

management of MODY with HNF1A

A

low dose sulfonylureas

180
Q

which diabetic drug creates c peptide and insulin as a by product

A

gliclazide

181
Q

medullary carcinoma

A

autosomal dominant pattern, MEN2 , calcitonin secreting

182
Q

high calcium with v low pth suggests -

A

malignancy

183
Q

what cardiac complication can thyrotoxicosis cause

A

high output cardiac failure

184
Q

At what HbA1c should the addition of a second drug be considered ?

A

58

185
Q

secondary hypothyroidism

A

low TSH and T4 , generally due to pituitary insufficiency and MRI of glands should be performed

186
Q

vbg picture of cushings

A

hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis

187
Q

TFT’s suggesting poor compliance with thyroxine

A

high TSH, normal T4

188
Q

sick euthyroid syndrome

A

low T3/T4 and normal TSH

189
Q

hypercalcaemia secondary to malignancy

A

low PTH, raised PTHrP

190
Q

main cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia

191
Q

what does adrenal venous sampling help with

A

distinguishing unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia

192
Q

pre-diabetes

A

6.1-7 - fasting glucose
HbA1c - 42-47

193
Q

what acid base disturbance does hyperaldosteronism cause

A

metabolic alkalosis

194
Q

which condition can medullary carcinoma pre-dispose you to

A

phaeochromocytoma

195
Q

which physical feature is hashimotos associated with

A

goitre

196
Q

where does papillary thyroid cancer spread to

A

cervical lymph nodes

197
Q

management of patients with parathyroid adenoma not suitable for surgery

A

calcimimetic

198
Q

how many units of insulin in 1 ml of insulin

A

100 units

199
Q

de quervain’s thyroiditis vs sick euthyroid

A

de quervain’s = hyperthyroidism
sick euthyroid = hypothyroidism

200
Q

Patient with diabetes who have had two hypoglycaemic episodes requiring help needs to

A

surrender their driving licence

201
Q

can patients on Insulin hold a HGV license

A

if they meet certain DVLA criteria

202
Q
A

SBA passmed Flashcards (30 decks)

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