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BOARDS > EENT > Flashcards

EENT Flashcards

1
Q

ability to fixate starts when

A

6 weeks

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2
Q

color perception develops when

A

2 months

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3
Q

binocular vision with convergence ability starts when

A

3 months

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4
Q

preference for patterns/faces starts when

A

4 months

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5
Q

visual acuity of newborn

A

20/200

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6
Q

optokinetic nystagmus

A

ability to see a moving target, follow it, and return to original gaze. develops in first few months of life

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7
Q

pendular nystagmus is a sign of

A

multiple sclerosis or spinocerebellar disease

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8
Q

spasmus nutans

A

benign transient disorder with pendular nystagmus, intermittent head tilt and nodding/head bobbing

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9
Q

loss of visual acuity due to active cortical suppression of the vision of one eye

A

ambylopia

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10
Q

inward turning of eye

A

esotropia (form of strabismus)

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11
Q

outward turning of eye

A

exotropia (form of strabismus)

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12
Q

hyperopia

A

mild far sightedness (normal in 3 yr old)

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13
Q

Hirschberg test

A

corneal light reflex

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14
Q

deviation of alignment of one eye in relation to the other that worsens when focusing

A

strabismus

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15
Q

untreated strabismus results in ___ by age ___

A

ambylopia by 6 years

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16
Q

cover test

A

eye with strabismus deviates instead of fixating on object

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17
Q

accommodative esotropia on cover test

A

uncovered eye moves outwards

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18
Q

accusative exotropia on cover test

A

uncovered eye moves inward

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19
Q

storage weber at increased risk for

A

glaucoma

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20
Q

presentation of congenital glaucoma

A

tearing, photophobia, blepharospasm, corneal clouding, edema, progressive enlargement of the eye

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21
Q

important associations with cataracts

A

CMV, rubella and galactosemia

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22
Q

external hordeolum aka

A

stye

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23
Q

external hordeolum treatment

A

warm compresses and topical antibiotics, possible I&D but never oral abx

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24
Q

lipogranuloma within the eyelid

A

chalazion

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25
Q

cause of chalazion

A

chronic inflammation due to retention of secretions, usually painless, not an infection

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26
Q

chalazion vs stye

A

chalazion is painless and not an infection, requires surgical excision

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27
Q

nasolacrimal duct obstruction treatment

A

massage BID/TID. topical antibiotic if infected. ophthalmology if still there at 1 year

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28
Q

chlamydial conjunctivitis must have

A

bilateral eye discharge

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29
Q

most common cause of orbital cellulitis

A

staph aureus

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30
Q

buzzwords for orbital cellulitis rather than preseptal

A

compromised vision, proptosis, decreased extra ocular movements, pain exacerbated by eye movement

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31
Q

orbital cellulitis treatment

A

CT scan to determine extent and c/s ophthalmology, admit for IV abx

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32
Q

treatment for corneal abrasion

A

fluorescein stain the eye first, then topical antibiotic

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33
Q

photophobia, tearing, intermittent sharp pain, irregular red reflex, dulled corneal light reflex

A

corneal abrasion

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34
Q

retinitis pigments fundoycopic view

A

optic disc w/ central pallor, narrow arterioles coming off of the optic disc, retinal pigment deposition on the periphery

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35
Q

flame shaped hemorrhages

A

retinal hemorrhage (NAT)

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36
Q

who gets screened for ROP

A

weight <1500 grams, GA <32 weeks or weight <2000 grams w/ unstable clinical course

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37
Q

when to screen for ROP

A

31-34 weeks post conceptions or 4 to 6 weeks after birth (whichever is later)

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38
Q

greatest risk factor for ROP

A

prematurity due to incomplete retinal vascularization

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39
Q

ophthalmia neonatorum

A

conjunctivitis in the first 4 weeks after birth

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40
Q

watery discharge 5 to 14 days after birth that becomes mucopurulent

A

chlamydia conjunctivitis

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41
Q

chlamydia conjunctivitis treatment

A

oral erythromycin x14 days (likely has co-infection so needs systemic treatment)

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42
Q

hyper acute hyper purulent conjunctivitis 24 to 48 hours after birth

A

N. gonorrheae neonatal conjunctivitis

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43
Q

N. gonorrhea conjunctivitis treatment

A

IV ceftriaxone and frequent saline lavage

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44
Q

diffuse uptake of fluorescein stain

A

G- infection or ulceration of corneal epithelium 2/2 contacts

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45
Q

most common cause of viral conjunctivitis

A

adenovirus

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46
Q

viral conjunctivitis treatment

A

artificial tears and cool compresses

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47
Q

non-purulent bilateral conjunctivitis with perilimbal sparing

A

kawasaki disease

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48
Q

collection of blood between cornea and iris (anterior chamber)

A

hyphema

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49
Q

hyphema treatment

A

bed rest and elevate head 30 degrees to decrease intraocular pressure with eye shield in place

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50
Q

blowout fracture

A

fracture to orbital wall or floor

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51
Q

double vision when looking to one side of dysconjugate gaze to one side

A

blowout fracture

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52
Q

curtain like visual deficit

A

detached retina

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53
Q

most common cause of conductive hearing loss

A

effusion/otitis media

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54
Q

keratinization of the epithelial cells in the middle ear resulting in conductive hearing loss

A

cholesteatoma

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55
Q

foul smelling discharge despite treatment of perforated TM

A

cholesteatoma

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56
Q

malfunction of the cochlea and/or auditory nerve

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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57
Q

sudden onset of bilateral sensorineural deafness

A

viral labyrinthitis

58
Q

temporary hearing loss can be caused by what meds

A

furosemide (lasix) and ethacrynic acid - loop diuretics

59
Q

reversible ototoxicity with high pitched tinnitus

A

salicylates

60
Q

most common cause of congenital sensorineural hearing loss

A

congenital CMV

61
Q

infectious causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A

CMV, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, syphilis

62
Q

antibiotics that cause sensorineural hearing loss

A

aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin)

63
Q

most common acquired cause of sensorineural hearing loss

A

bacterial meningitis (usually occurs within the first 24 hours)

64
Q

bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and hematuria in a boy

A

Alport syndrome

65
Q

low amplitude/flat tympanogram

A

stiff membrane, middle ear fluid present or obstructed PE tube

66
Q

area under the tympanogram curve reflects

A

area in the external ear canal

67
Q

Type B tympanogram

A

high volume = perforated TM = continuity between middle and outer ear

68
Q

most common causes of AOM

A

strep pneumo, non typeable H. flu, moraxella catarrhalis, grp A strep

69
Q

conjunctivitis otitis syndrome

A

H. flu, treat w/ augmentin

70
Q

most common cause of chronic suppurative otitis media

A

pseudomonas

71
Q

chronic suppurative otitis media treatment

A

topical/otic ofloxacin with daily canal suctioning

72
Q

AOM treatment w/ penicillin allergy

A

azithromycin or clarithromcyin

73
Q

things associated with recurrent AOM

A

age <2 years, bottle propping, daycare

74
Q

bloody discharge and erythematous mass after PE tube placement

A

tympanovstomy tube granuloma

75
Q

otitis externa most common cause

A

pseudomonas

76
Q

otitis externa treatment

A

antibiotic/steroid drops

77
Q

otitis externa prevention

A

boric acid or acetic acid solution before and after swimming

78
Q

outwardly displaced pinna

A

mastoiditis

79
Q

mastoiditis diagnosis

A

CT and tympanocentesis with culture

80
Q

mastoiditis treatment

A

IV antibiotics and surgery

81
Q

acute onset of self-limited vertigo without vomiting or LOC, with nystagmus and pallor

A

benign paroxysmal vertigo

82
Q

acute onset of vertigo with hearing loss

A

labyrinthitis

83
Q

cyanosis with feeds that resolves with crying

A

choanal atresia

84
Q

nasal polyps are associated with

A

CF ( order sweat test if present)

85
Q

maxillary sinus develops when

A

at birth

86
Q

ethmoid sinus develops when

A

at birth

87
Q

sphenoid sinus develops when

A

5 to 6 years

88
Q

frontal sinus develops when

A

5 to 6 years

89
Q

ethmoid sinusitis can result in

A

orbital cellulitis

90
Q

frontal sinusitis can result in

A

brain abscess

91
Q

next step with epistaxis that is worsening in frequency and severity

A

CT scan to look for posterior nasopharyngeal mass such as nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

92
Q

incubation period for mono

A

2 to 7 weeks

93
Q

testing for mono if <4 years

A

viral specific IgM (mono spot is not sensitive if <4 yrs)

94
Q

teen with sore throat and erythematous patches on exam

A

gonococcal pharyngitis

95
Q

dysphagia, difficulty opening mouth, unilateral swelling of tonsil and deviation of uvula

A

peritonsillar abscess

96
Q

peritonsillar abscess treatment

A

unasyn, clindamycin or augmentin plus I&D

97
Q

diagnosis of peritonsillar abscess

A

CT

98
Q

hyperextended neck, high fever, difficulty swallowing, drooling

A

retropharyngeal abscess

99
Q

lateral neck film w/ widening of paravertebral soft tissues

A

retropharyngeal abscess

100
Q

epiglottis vs RPA

A 
epiglottitis = lean forward for comfort
RPA = hyperextend for comfort
101
Q

RPA treatment

A

clindamycin or unasyn

102
Q

RPA vs peritonsillar age

A

RPA more common in <4 yrs

103
Q

grayish/white coagulum surrounded by a thin rim of bright erythema

A

aphthous ulcers

104
Q

infant with tender red deep-seated plaques/nodules on cheek but afebrile

A

cold induced panniculitis

105
Q

what is normal for delayed tooth eruption

A

up to 16 months

106
Q

common causes of delayed tooth eruption

A 
Hypothyroid
Hypopituitary
Hypoplasia (ectodermal)
Hypohidrosis 
Rickets
107
Q

how to transport avulsed tooth

A

saliva or chilled milk

108
Q

treatment for dental abscess

A

penicillin (clindamycin or erythromycin if allergic)

109
Q

clefts are most common in what population

A

Native Americans and asians

110
Q

cleft lip is more common in what gender

A

males

111
Q

when to repair cleft lip

A

10 weeks

112
Q

cleft palate is more common in what gender

A

females

113
Q

when to repair cleft palate

A

9 to 12 months

114
Q

syndromes associated with clefts

A

Pierre robin, crouton, apart, treacher collins

115
Q

gold standard for diagnosing OSA

A

polysomnography

116
Q

EKG in sever OSA

A

RVH

117
Q

postop complication of T&A after severe OSA

A

pulmonary edema

118
Q

inspiratory vs expiratory stridor

A

inspiratory is extrathoracic

119
Q

most common cause of congenital stridor

A

laryngomalacia

120
Q

stridor that worsens when supine and agitated but improves with expiration

A

laryngomalacia

121
Q

blunted inspiratory loop on spirometry

A

vocal cord paralysis

122
Q

injury to recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

vocal cord paralysis

123
Q

high pitched inspiratory stridor

A

vocal cord paralysis

124
Q

wet, variably pitched inspiratory stridor

A

laryngomalacia

125
Q

progressive hoarseness that is less severe in the morning

A

vocal cord nodules

126
Q

feeding difficulties and expiratory stridor

A

vascular ring

127
Q

thumb sign on lateral neck film

A

epiglottitis

128
Q

rapid deterioration in a patient diagnosed with croup

A

bacterial tracheitis

129
Q

neck film with ragged air column or subglottic narrowing

A

bacterial tracheitis

130
Q

preauricular adenopathy and conjunctivitis

A

adenovirus

131
Q

viral vs bacterial cervical LAD

A 
unilateral = bacterial (staph, grp A strep_
viral = bilateral
132
Q

atypical mycobacterium LAD treatment

A

leave it alone

133
Q

nontender, firm, fixed mass

A

neoplasm

134
Q

midline lesion on anterior neck

A

thyroglossal duct cyst (moves vertically with swallowing or sticking tongue out)

135
Q

mass of dilated lymph vessels

A

cystic hygroma

136
Q

most common cause of bacterial parotitis

A

staph aureus

137
Q

recurrent swelling of both parotid glands

A

salivary gland stone

138
Q

must think of what with parotitis

A

HIV

139
Q

are low birthweight newborn far or near sighted

A

near sighted

140
Q

most common cause of visual loss in children

A

ambylopia

141
Q

what structure is the origin of bleeding in most cases of epistaxis

A

kiesselbach plexus

142
Q

first line antibiotic for acute sinusitis

A

amoxicillin

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