Drug quiz 5

Question 1

Verapamil

Answer 1

Calcium channel blocker (non-dihydropyridine)- Inhibition of L-type calcium channels – tissue selective

• hypertension
• supraventiruclar tachycardia

Question 2

Isosorbide mononitrate

Answer 2

nitric oxide (NO) donor

• NO causes a relaxation of vascular smooth muscle via the stimulation of guanylyl cyclase and the subsequent increase of intracellular cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) concentration*
• Prophylaxis of angina

Question 3

Clopidogrel

Answer 3

• ADP (P2Y₁₂) receptor antagonists:* selectively inhibits the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its platelet P2Y12 receptor and the subsequent ADP- mediated activation of the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, thereby inhibiting platelet aggregation. This action is irreversible.
• ​Prevention of atherothrombotic events

Question 4

Ipratropium bromide

Answer 4

short acting- anti-muscarinic: M₃ receptor antagonists

• Reversible airways obstruction
  
  • severe/ lifethreatening asthma
  • bronchospasm

Question 5

Metoclopramide

Answer 5

D2 antagonist:

• antiemetic

Question 6

Paracetamol

Answer 6

analgesic: COX-2 inhibition in spinal cord

Question 7

Co-beneldopa

Answer 7

dopamine receptor agonists: contain levodopa and DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor

• parkinsons

Question 8

Clarithromycin

Answer 8

macrolide: inhibition of bacterial protein biosynthesis

• soft tissue infections
  
  • cellulitis
  • impetigo
• Pneumonia

Question 9

Metronidazole

Answer 9

• anaerobic infections
  
  • human bites
  • H.pylori eradication
    
    • etcccc

Question 10

Ethinylestradiol

Answer 10

synthetic derivatives of oestrogen

• Short-term treatment of symptoms of oestrogen deficiency
• osteoporosis
• menstrual disorders

Question 11

haloperidol

Answer 11

antipsychotic and antiemetic: Primarily post synaptic D2 receptor antagonism

• schizophrenia
• antiemetic in palliation
  *

Question 12

Aspirin

Answer 12

NSAID: Prostaglandin production inhibition and reduction of TXA2 synthesis by COX-1 inhibition

• analgesic
• anti-platelet

Question 13

Streptokinase

Answer 13

fibrinolytic: Bind to and activate plasminogen to plasmin

• Acute MI
  PE
• DVT

Question 14

Ticagrelor

Answer 14

antiplatelet: ADP (P2Y₁₂) receptor antagonists
* Prevention of atherothrombotic events

Question 15

Theophylline

Answer 15

methylxanthine: adenosine antagonist
* chronic asthma

Question 16

Beclometasone

Answer 16

corticosteroid (inhaled)

• Prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis

Question 17

Lorazepam

Answer 17

Anxiolytics: Increase GABA activity (inhibitory neurotransmitter)

• anxiety (short term)
• sleep problems (short term)
• conscious sedation

Question 18

Ondansetron

Answer 18

5HT3 antagonists

• emetogenic (sickness inducing) chemo
• preventative for post opp nausea and vomiting

Question 19

Carbamazepine

Answer 19

anti-epileptic: sodium channel blocker

• focal and tonic-clonic seizures
• trigeminal neuralgia
• bipolar unresponsive to lithium
• adjunct in alcohol withdrawal

Question 20

Amoxicillin

Answer 20

peniciilin: inhibit cell wall synthesis

• pneumonia
• acute otitis media
• UTI in pregnancy

Question 21

Desogestrel

Answer 21

synthetic progestogen

• contraception

Question 22

Hydrocortisone

Answer 22

systemic corticosteroid

• adrenal insufficiency e.g. addisons or resulting from septic shock
• acute hypersensitivity reactions
• eczema
• severe acute asthma

Question 23

Alendronic acid

Answer 23

bisphosphonate

• postmenopausal osteoporosis

Question 24

Vincristine

Answer 24

antimetabolite: vinca alkaloids - Microtubule assembly inhibitor
* Variety of cancers including leukaemias, lymphomas, and some solid tumours (e.g. breast and lung cancer)

Question 25

Ropivacaine

Answer 25

local anesthetic

• Acute pain, peripheral nerve block
• Acute labour pain (lumbar epidural)
• acute post opp pain
• Surgical anaesthesia for caesarean section

Question 26

Adalimumab

Answer 26

• TNF-**α* inhibitors
• rhematodi arthirtis

Question 27

Mycophenolate mofetil

Answer 27

Antiproliferative immunosuppressants

• organ transplantation

Question 28

Pioglitazone

Answer 28

glitazone: PPAR**γ receptor agonists
* Type 2 diabetes not controlled by metformin alone

Question 29

Saxagliptin

Answer 29

Dipeptidyl-peptidase 4 (DPP4) Inhibitors

• Type 2 diabetes mellitus not controlled by metformin and/or a sulfonylurea with either saxagliptin or dapagliflozin

Question 30

Codeine phosphate

Answer 30

Anti-motility drugs: Intestinal μ-receptor agonist

• Acute diarrhoea