Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Drug Profiles: Winter Final > Flashcards

Drug Profiles: Winter Final Flashcards

1
Q

Vasopressin: Mechanism of Action

A

In high doses, vasopressin acts as a non-adrenergic peripheral vasoconstrictor. When given during CPR, vasopressin increases coronary perfusion pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diltiazem: Contraindications

A

Should not be administered to any patient with hypotension, cardiogenic shock, VT, or A flutter, and A fib with WPW (may percipitate ventricular fibrillation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Succinylcholine: Pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: 1-2 minutes. Duration: 6-10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Precautions

A

Not routinely used in EMS as the initial paralytic due to the long duration of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vasopressin: Pharmacokinetics

A

Onset:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Succinylcholine: Contraindications

A

Hyperkalemia, history of malignant hyperthermia, penetrating eye injury, neuromuscular disorder (MS), Paralysis >1 day, crush injury >3 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Succinylcholine: Mechanism of Action

A

Combines with cholinergic receptors in motor nerves to cause depolarization. Neuromuscular transmission is inhibited, causing temporary skeletal paralysis, untill it is metabolizedand the cells become repolarized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vasopressin: Precautions

A

Do not give to patients with perfusing rhythms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diltiazem: Dosage

A

0.25 mg/kg or 2 minutes Repeat 0.35 mg/kg if no response in 15 minutes. Maintenance infusion of 5-15 mg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Succinylcholine: Class

A

Depolarizing neuromusculaar blocking agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diltiazem: Pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: Immediate Peak: Immediate Duration: 1-3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Etomidate: Note

A

Etomidate is able to lower ICP while maintaining CPP, making it a useful agent in patients with increased ICP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Interactions

A

Intensity and duration, or paralysis may be prolonged by pretreatment with succinylcholine, general anesthesia (inhalation), lidocaine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-adrenergenic-blocking agents, potassium-losing diuretics, or magnesium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Dosage

A

RSI: 0.6 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vasopressin: How Supplied

A

20 units/ml vial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vasopressin: Dosage

A

Single bolus dose of 40 units IV. After 3 to 5 minutes, if no response, give 1 mg Epi doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Description

A

A non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent with rapid to intermediate onset, depending on dose, and intermediate duration of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ketamine: Mechanism of action

A

Phencyclidine derivitive causes “dissociative anaesthesia” characterized by profound analgesia and amnesia with retention of protective airway reflexes, spontaneous respirations and cardiopulmonary stability. Dissociative anesthesia results in a patient who does not appear to be anesthetized and can swallow and open eyes but does not process information or pain. Other actions: keeps airway reflexes intact; releases endogenous catecholamines; maintaines BP and heart rate; relaxes bronchial muscles; stimulates beta receptors in the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Contraindications

A

None in EMS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Etomidate: Mechanism of Action

A

Decreases activity of the reticular formation in the brain with minimal cardiac and respiratory effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ketamine: Contraindications

A

Coronary artery disease, pregnany, infants < 3 months; tracheal stenosis or tracheomalacia, acute globe injury or laucoma; schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ketamine: Pharmacokenetics

A

Onset: 30-60 seconds Duration: 5-15 minuets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vasopressin: Class

A

Anti-diuretic hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Diltiazem: Class

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Succinylcholine: Indications

A

To achieve temporary paralysis when endotrachial intubation is indicated and muscletone impedes successful intubation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ketamine: Precautions

A

Administer with midazolam 2.5 mg IV/IO in adults to prevent/treat negitive emergnce reaction (not necessary in peds); monitor for laryngospasm (0.1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diltiazem: Precautions

A

Can cause systemic hypotension (blood pressure should be constantly monitored). Calcium can be used to prevent the hypotensive effecs of calcium hannel blockers and in the management of calcium channel blocker OD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Succinylcholine: Note

A

Store in refrigerator at 2-8 deg C (36-46 deg F). The multi dose vials are stable for upto 14 days at room temprature without significant loss of potency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ketamine: Side effects

A

Emergence reaction (5-30%); may cause hypertension, increase cardiac output and myocardial oxygen consumption; may transiently increase intracranial pressure and cardiac perfusion pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Etomidate: Indications

A

General anasthesia, EMS intuation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: 60-90 seconds Duration: 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Etomidate: Pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: 10-20 seconds Duration: 3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Etomidate: Class

A

General anasthetic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Vasopressin: Indications

A

Ventricular fibrillation, pulseless VT, PEA, and or asystole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Etomidate: Contraindications

A

None in prehospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Indications

A

Rapid sequence intubation, maintenance of desired paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Side Effects

A

Bronchospasm; associated with a slight elevation of the heart rates and BP. Tachycardia may occur in pediatric patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diltiazem: Interactions

A

Should not be administered to patiens recieving IV B-blockers because of an increased risk of CHF, bradycardia, and asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Etomidate: Dosage

A

0.3 mg/kg IV. Max 20 mg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Etomidate: Side effects

A

Involuntary muscle movements (myoclonus - rarely seen due to concurrent administration of paralytics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Succinylcholine: Side Effects

A

Arhythmias, bradycardia, increased inraoccular pressure, increased intracrainial pressure, hyperkalemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Vasopressin: Contraindications

A

None in EMS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Vasopressin: Side Effects

A

None in cardiac arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Ketamine: Indications

A

Analgesia and sedation for painful procedures or painful conditions; induction agent for RSI (instead of etomidate).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Succinylcholine: Precautions

A

Make sure all intubation equipment is ready prior to administration of succinylcholine. Be wary of a patient’s potential to become bradycardicduring RSI, especially patients with CHF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Diltiazem: Mechanism of Action

A

Diltiazem interferes with the entry influ of calcium into cardiac and vascular smooth muscle. In addition it slowes the rate of the SA node and the conduction velosity through the AV node. Diltiazem’s ability to relax coronary arteries, as well as its negitive inotropic and negitive chronotropic qualities makes it a useful antianginal. It is also used as an antihypertensive. however in the EMS setting, we use it primarily as an antidysrhythmic so its ability to slow the conduction through the AV node is most pertinent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ketamine: Class

A

Sedative, Analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Succinylcholine: Dosage

A

Adult: 1-2 mg/kg IV (IM if in protocol) Pediatric: 2 mg/kg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ketamine: Dosage

A

Induction agent: 2 mg/kg IV/IO Analgesia, sedation:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Diltiazem: Indications

A

To control rapid ventricular rates associated with atrial fibillation and atrial flutter, and SVT refractory to adenosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Diltiazem: Side Effects

A

Dizziness, headache, bradycardia, heart block, hypotension, and asystole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Mechanism of Action

A

Competitively binds to cholinergic receptors. Reversible in the presence of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as neostigmine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rocuronium (Zemuron): Class

A

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ketorolac: indications

A

mild to moderate pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Calcium Gluconate: side effects

A

Tissue necrosis if given subcutaneously, or if it extravasates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Calcium Chloride: pharmacokinetics

A

onset: immediate peak: immediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Droperidol: dosage

A

14-60 y/o: 2.5-5 mg IV/IM (may be combined with 2 mg midazolam in same syringe for increased sedation), may be repeated once as needed. Over 60 y/o: 2.5 mg IV/IM (with or without midazolam). Not recommended as first-line N&V med because of “black box” warning from FDA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: contraindications

A

none prehospital setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Promethazine: side effects

A

Drowsiness, sedation, blurred vision, tachycardia, bradycardia, and dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: interactions

A

may block effects of digitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Calcium Chloride: interactions

A

Will precipitate if mixed with sodium bicarbonate.

62
Q

Calcium Gluconate: precautions

A

Use with caution in patients with potential to dioxin toxicity. Consider contacting OLMC.

63
Q

Ketorolac: mechanism of action

A

NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase and prevent the synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxane, which reduce inflammation and ultimately provide pain relief.

64
Q

Diphenhydramine: class

A

antihistamine; H1 antagonist

65
Q

Droperidol: indications

A

Chemical restraint requiring rapid tranquilizationn, anti-emetic.

66
Q

Haloperidol: contraindications

A

Hypotension, prolonged QT interval

67
Q

Calcium Gluconate: dosage

A

10-30 ml slow IV. topical application inside surgical glove (gel or not) for finger/ thumb/ hand fluoride burns. 10 ml vile of 10% calcium gluconate contains 4.6 mEq of calcium.

68
Q

Promethazine: precautions

A

May impair mental and physical abilities. Never give subcutaneously. Extra-pyramidal symptoms have been reported following use. Diphenhydramine should be available.

69
Q

Calcium Chloride: dosage

A

5-10 ml slow IVP. 10 ml of 10% solution contains 13.6 mEq of calcium

70
Q

Droperidol: precautions

A

BP and respiratory status should be monitored frequently. If used for chemical restraint, patient should be restrained in a fashion that allows careful observation and the ability to breathe normally. Cardiac monitoring is required as the FDA has issued a “black box” warning stating that Droperidol may cause torsades de pointes.

71
Q

Calcium Chloride: class

A

electrolyte

72
Q

Droperidol: mechanism of action

A

Exact mechanism of action is unknown, but main action is antagonism of the dopamine (D2) within the CNS. Neuroleptic similar to how to parallel; reduces anxiety and produces a mental state of detachment and indifference; as anti-medic and anti-nausea properties.

73
Q

Ondansetron: indications

A

Uncontrollable nausea and vomiting

74
Q

Diphenhydramine: interactions

A

Sedation in presence of CNS depressants

75
Q

Acetaminophen: mechanism of action

A

Produces analgesia by blocking generation of pain impulses probably by inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. It relieves fever by central chain action in the hypothalamus heat regulating center.

76
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: precautions

A

Monitor respiratory status. Naloxone will reverse the effects of fentanyl.

77
Q

Acetaminophen: side effects

A

none

78
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: mechanism of action

A

increases the magnesium levels, correcting for possible hypomagnesemia, which is associated with cardiac dysrhythmias. Magnesium interferes with neuromuscular transmission, which reduces muscle contractions in seizures. Additionally magnesium is a smooth muscle relaxer and vasodilator. The MOA’s of magnesium for all indications are complex and multifactorial, and therefore, not well understood.

79
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: contraindications

A

hypotension, heart block

80
Q

Droperidol: contraindications

A

Hypotension, prolonged QT interval

81
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: dosage

A

1 milliequivalent/kg IVP

82
Q

Diphenhydramine: pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: < 2 minutes IV; 15-30 minutes IM Peak: 5 minutes IV; 20 minutes IM Duration: 5-10 minutes IV; 20-30 minutes IM

83
Q

Acetaminophen: indications

A

fever

84
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: note

A

100 mcg fentanyl equals 10 mg morphine. Schedule II narcotic.

85
Q

Diphenhydramine: mechanism of action

A

Antagonizes central and peripheral H1 receptors, which decreases the itching and urticaria caused by histamine release. Additionally, possesses anticholinergic properties, resulting in anti-dyskinetic, anti-emetic and sedative effects.

86
Q

Diphenhydramine: indications

A

Allergic and anaphylactic reactions. Dystonic reactions/extra-pyramidal symptoms (from phenothiazines, thioxanthins, and butyrophenones.

87
Q

Calcium Chloride: side effects

A

Tissue necrosis if given subcutaneously, or if it extravasates. Because calcium chloride contains approximately 3 times as much calcium as calcium gluconate, it is far more irritating to blood vessels.

88
Q

Calcium Gluconate: indications

A

Hyperkalemia, CCB OD, hypotension associated with magnesium sulfate or calcium channel blocker administration, and hydrofluoric acid burns.

89
Q

Haloperidol: indications

A

Chemical restraint requiring rapid tranquilization

90
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: side effects

A

Drowsiness, hypotension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression are the most common, however it may cause nausea and vomiting, weakness, and dizziness, increased excitability (paradoxical)

91
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: side effects

A

few in prehospital setting

92
Q

Haloperidol: precautions

A

BP and respiratory status should be monitored frequently. Patients should be restrained in a fashion that allows careful observation and the ability to breathe normally. Cardiac monitoring is required

93
Q

Calcium Chloride: precautions

A

Use with caution in patients with potential the jocks and toxicity. Consider contacting OLMC.

94
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: contraindications

A

severe hemorrhage and shock. Patients who have taken MAOIs (Marplan, Eutonyl, Parnate, Nardil) within the last 14 days should avoid fentanyl. Severe and then predictable potentiation is possible. Use with caution, if at all in any patient with a head injury (except during RSI). If the patient’s mentation becomes altered after administration, assessment of the head injury because more difficult in the ED.

95
Q

Calcium Gluconate: pharmacokinetics

A

onset: immediate peak: immediate

96
Q

Ketorolac: precautions

A

Use cautiously, if at all, in patients with renal or hepatic disease.

97
Q

Ondansetron: dosage

A

4 mg slow IVP/IM

98
Q

Haloperidol: side effects

A

Extra-pyramidal or dystonic reactions, frequently given concurrently with diphenhydramine.

99
Q

Haloperidol: interactions

A

Anti-hypertensive medications may increase the likelihood of a patient developing hypotension. haloperidol potentiates other CNS depressants

100
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: interactions

A

Other CNS depressants enhance the opioid action, resulting in decreased LOC, hypotension, and respiratory depression. Careful monitoring is required.

101
Q

Promethazine: contraindications

A

Coma, those who have received large amounts of depressants, nursing mother, neonate.

102
Q

Droperidol: class

A

Sedative, butyrophenone anti-psychotic

103
Q

Promethazine: class

A

Antihistamine and anti-emetic, phenothiazine anti-psychotic

104
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: precautions

A

Patients must be breathing spontaneously or adequately ventilated before receiving sodium bicarbonate.

105
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: dosage

A

Cardiac arrest: 1-2 g IVP Torsades de pointes (with pulse): 1-2 g IV drip 5-60 minutes Preeclampsia and eclampsia: 2 g IV drip 5-60 minutes

106
Q

Diphenhydramine: contraindications

A

None in acute prehospital use

107
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: side effects

A

hypotension, respiratory depression, flushing, loss of deep tendon reflexes.

108
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: < 1 minute IV Duration: 30-60 minutes

109
Q

Calcium Gluconate: mechanism of action

A

Calcium antagonizes cardiotoxicity of hyperkalemia by stabilizing cardiac cell membrane against undesirable depolarization. Soluble calcium ions bind with sodium fluoride ions to produce the insoluble and therefore inactive calcium fluoride salt.

110
Q

Diphenhydramine: precautions

A

Altered mental status, asthma, nursing mothers

111
Q

Promethazine: dosage

A

N&V: 12.5-25 mg IV/IM Analgesic adjunctive: 25 mg IV

112
Q

Haloperidol: dosage

A

2-5 mg IM (may be combined with midazolam)

113
Q

Diphenhydramine: dosage

A

Adult: 25-50 mg IV/IM/PO Pediatric: 1 mg/kg up to adult dose

114
Q

Ketorolac: class

A

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent

115
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: note

A

mass actually effect = H2O + CO2 <> H2CO3 <> H+ +HCO3-

116
Q

Acetaminophen: OD management

A

Early symptoms are sweating, anorexia, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain or cramping and/or diarrhea; usually in 6-14 hours after ingestion, lasting up to 24 hours. Late symptoms include abdominal swelling (ascites), tenderness or pain 2-4 days post exposure. Give activated charcoal > 2 hours post ingestion. The patient will require N-acetylcysteine and will need serum acetaminophen levels determined at the ED.

117
Q

Droperidol: side effects

A

Extra-pyramidal or dystonic reactions, especially in children. Diphenhydramine should be available.

118
Q

Promethazine: pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: 3-5 minutes

119
Q

Droperidol: interactions

A

Anti-hypertensive medications may increase the likelihood of a patient developing hypotension. Droperidol potentiates other CNS depressants.

120
Q

Ketorolac: contraindications

A

allergy to any NSAID

121
Q

Promethazine: mechanism of action

A

Blocks receptors for dopamine (D2), acetylcholine, and histamine (H1). All three of these neurotransmitter sites are implicated in the vomiting reflex, so thought to be involved in promethazine anti-emetic effects. Sedative effect is thought to be mostly related to antihistamine properties. EPS (adverse effects) are thought to be mostly related to dopamine antagonism.

122
Q

Acetaminophen: dosage

A

Adult: 650-1000 mg PO Pediatric: 10-20 mg/kg

123
Q

Haloperidol: class

A

Sedative, neuroleptic, butyrophenone anti-psychotic

124
Q

Calcium Gluconate: interactions

A

Will precipitate if mixed with sodium bicarbonate.

125
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: class

A

opioid analgesic (narcotic)

126
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: class

A

alkalinizing agent

127
Q

Ondansetron: mechanism of action

A

Selective inhibitor of serotonin (5-HT3) receptors

128
Q

Ondansetron: class

A

Anti-emetic

129
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: indications

A

Moderate to severe pain, adjunct in rapid sequence induction (intubation).

130
Q

Droperidol: pharmacokinetics

A

Onset: 3-10 minutes IV/IM

131
Q

Acetaminophen: contraindications

A

none in prehospital setting

132
Q

Haloperidol: mechanism of action

A

Not well understood but blocks dopamine (D2) receptors in brain; produces marked tranquilization and sedation.

133
Q

Ketorolac: side effects

A

increased risk of bleeding, especially given with other NSAIDs.

134
Q

Calcium Gluconate: class

A

electrolyte

135
Q

Acetaminophen: precautions

A

Many nonprescription products contain acetaminophen, consider this when calculating dosage.

136
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: indications

A

TCA OD, late in the management of cardiac arrest, if at all. Hyperkalemia (controversial)- routine use of sodium bicarbonate for hyperkalemia is falling out of favor, but it is still present in some protocols.

137
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: mechanism of action

A

Binds to various opioid receptors, producing analgesia and sedation (opioid agonist).

138
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: indications

A

Torsades de pointes, cardiac arrest only if torsades de pointes is present or was the rhythm that preceded VF or if hypomagnesemia is suspected, preeclampsia and eclampsia, refractory bronchoconstriction, TCA OD (if QRS is wide) (controversial)- no longer universally thought to be effective for TCA ODs, but still in some protocols.

139
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: interactions

A

Deactivates catecholamines, forms precipitate with calcium chloride (if sodium bicarbonate is given before or after any of these drugs, flushed the IV line to prevent interactions)

140
Q

Ondansetron: contraindications

A

None known, use with caution in setting of bowel obstruction.

141
Q

Fentanyl Citrate: dosage

A

2 mcg/kg IV/IO/IM, usually up to 100 mcg

142
Q

Acetaminophen: class

A

antipyretic, non-narcotic analgesic

143
Q

Acetaminophen: how supplied

A

PO or rectal suppositories

144
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: precautions

A

calcium chloride is antidote if respiratory depression ensues, caution in renal failure patients.

145
Q

Ketorolac: dosage

A

60 mg IM or 30 mg IV (decreased dose by 1/2 if > 65 y/o)

146
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: mechanism of action

A

When disassociated, bicarbonate binds with hydrogen ions to decrease metabolic acidosis (mass action effect). When administered for TCA overdose, acts as an anti-dysrhythmic. It is unlikely that sodium bicarbonate decreases the effects of hyperkalemia by shifting potassium into cells as has been previously thought. However sodium bicarbonate can still be useful in the treatment of hyperkalemia, since this condition is frequently accompanied by metabolic acidosis.

147
Q

Promethazine: indications

A

Nausea and vomiting, motion sickness, and sedation (to potentiate the effects of analgesics).

148
Q

Calcium Chloride: mechanism of action

A

Calcium antagonizes cardiotoxicity of hyperkalemia by stabilizing cardiac cell membrane against undesirable depolarization. Soluble calcium ions bind with soluble fluoride ions to produce the insoluble and therefore inactive calcium fluoride salt.

149
Q

Diphenhydramine: side effects

A

Anticholinergic effects. Most common are constipation, decreased sweating, difficulty in initiating her in stream, visual disturbances, photosensitivity, and dry mouth.

150
Q

Calcium Chloride: indications

A

Hyperkalemia, CCB OD, hypotension associated with magnesium sulfate or calcium channel blocker administration, and hydrofluoric acid burns.

151
Q

Acetaminophen: interactions

A

Increased risk of hepatic damage if patient has ingested ethanol.

152
Q

Magnesium Sulfate: class

A

electrolyte, anti-dysrhythmic

Pharmacology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions