Donor Testing Flashcards

1
Q

What was the first required infectious disease test?

A

Syphilis testing began in the 1940’s and was required in 1950’s

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2
Q

What units need to be tested for Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease)?

A

Initial testing

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3
Q

What units need to be tested for Babesia microti (babesiosis)?

A

Many units in high-riskregions of the US

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4
Q

What happens if a test is reactive?

A

All initially reactive samples are retested in the same assay system in duplicate. If one or both of the duplicate tests are also reactive the sample is classified as repeat reactive and is, by definition, positive. A positive screening test results in the destruction of the unit. If both repeat test results are negative, the initially reactive result is equivalent to a negative result and the unit is released from quarantine.

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5
Q

Are donors tested for Hep A?

A

Hepatitis A (HAV) is not currently tested for in the US
HAV rarely is transmitted by blood transfusion.
Not tested for due to
-No licensed test
-Rarity of transmission in adults
-HAV has short infection period (7-14 days)
-Low incidence of HAV in the US (20/100, 000)
-Absence of carrier state
-Prevalence of immunity from vaccination in many recipients

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6
Q

What is the principle of direct binding in EIA?

A

Specific antigen or antibody is coated onto a bead or microwell by manufacturer.

Corresponding antibody or antigen in a sample, if present, binds to solid phase, forming an immune complex.

Enzyme-labeled conjugate (an anti-IgG) attaches to antigen/antibody complex, if present

Substrate is oxidized by enzyme-labeled conjugate, resulting in colored end-product, proportional to the amount of antigen or antibody present in the sample

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7
Q

What is the principle of competitive binding EIA?

A

Specimen containing the antibody to be determined is mixed with enzyme-labeled antibody.

The two compete for limited binding sites on an antigen coated solid phase

Addition of substrate causes color change which is inversely proportional to amount of antibody present

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8
Q

How is WNV tested?

A

Can be in MP-NAT

May be IDT-NAT during outbreaks

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9
Q

How is Zika tested?

A

IDT-NAT since 2016

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10
Q

What is the principle of NAT?

A

Reverse transcription of the target RNA to generate complementary DNA (cDNA).
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of specific complementary primers.
Hybridization of the amplified products to oligonucleotide probes specific to the target.
Detection of the probe-bound amplified products by colorimetric determination.

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11
Q

How effective is culture based bacterial detection?

A

A study evaluating the BACTEC 9240 blood culture system for detection of nine species of bacteria commonly associated with platelet contamination noted a detection sensitivity of <10 colony-forming units (CFUs) per mL for all pathogens tested except for Streptococcus mitis (detection limit of 61 CFUs per mL). The time to detection ranged from 6.5 to 17.6 hours.

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12
Q

What are the testing requirements for Babesia (B.microti)?

A

Two FDA-approved investigational blood donor screening approaches for B. microti;
1) Detects antibody using an enzyme-based immunoassay
2) Combined approach detects antibody using an automated immunofluorescence assay along with a PCR-based babesia nucleic acid assay.
Although testing for babesia is not mandatory, many units of blood collected in high-risk regions of the US

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13
Q

What happens if the ABO/Rh can’t be determined on a unit?

A

If the ABO/Rh cannot be determined, then the product cannot be labeled

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14
Q

What happens if a donor unit ABO is mislabeled?

A

Reportable to the FDA

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15
Q

What is the requirement for Rh testing on donor units?

A

The Rh type shall be determined for each collection with anti-D reagent. If the initial testing with anti-D is negative, the blood shall be tested using a method designated to detect weak D. When either testing is positive, the label shall read “Rh Positive.” When the testing for both are negative, the label shall read “Rh Negative.

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16
Q

What is the requirement for ABS testing?

A

Serum or plasma from donors with a history of transfusion or pregnancy shall be tested for unexpected antibodies to red cell antigens.
Methods for testing shall be those that demonstrate clinically significant red cell antibodies.

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17
Q

How are units with ABO subgroups labeled?

A

They must be labeled with the ABO and the subtype labeled to notify the transfusion service receiving the product

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18
Q

How are units with antibodies handled?

A

May be used for patients if the patient lacks the corresponding antigen. Example, donation has anti-K, then unit is K- and the patient is K-. Some transfusion services can use these units, others choose not to accept these antibody positive units.
“Contains ( name of antibody)” must be on the product

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19
Q

What are the most common types of weak D?

A

In Caucasians, its types 1, 2, and 3 that make up 90% of weak D
They will not make anti-D

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20
Q

What is Ce in trans?

A
If Ce (r’) in trans to RHD (ie, Ror’), then the D antigen will be suppressed.
This can lead to a donor/patient to type as Rh negative (rr’, r’r’ or r’’r’)
This occurs when C is present in trans to a weak D type. (r’ in trans to weak D Type 2)
A detection strategy for this weak D type can be screened for by typing all D- donors for the C antigen
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21
Q

What reagents are used to determine Rh?

A
The two anti-D reagents are chosen to be
Highly sensitive
Able to detect Weak and Partial D 
 - Weaker expression of D
 - Especially DVI cells
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22
Q

What is the window period for HBV?

A

3-4 weeks or 26.5 to 18.5 days

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23
Q

What is window period for HCV?

A

7.4 days

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24
Q

What is the Window period for HIV?

A

9.1 days

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25
What is multiplex PCR
6-16 mini pools or donors are tested for HIV, HBV, and HCV using NAT
26
When is a look back required by law?
Only for HIV or HCV
27
What is the most common bacterial found in RBC units?
Yersina entrocolitica and pseudomonas sp | Also see normal skin flora such as Staph, P. acnes, and bacillus
28
What causes Chagas?
Parasite Trypanosoma cruzi transmite by triatomine (Reduvid bug after biting and depositing feces in wound. Also transmited by blood transfusion and organ transplantation
29
What test is used to detect T. cruzi in donors?
EIA to detect antibodies is done on first donation only. Repeat positive donors are deferred indefinitely.
30
What is the confirmatory test for T. cruzi?
NO FDA licensed test but Enzyme strip assay or Radioimmuno-precipitation (RIPA) can be performed
31
How is babesiosis transmitted?
Parasite is spread through bite of infected deer tick or blood transfusion
32
How long can B. microti survive in stored blood?
21-35 days
33
Which areas are endemic for B. microti?
Northeast, mid-alantic, and upper Midwest
34
What testing is performed for babesiosis?
NO FDA approved test. Screening done in endemic areas by EIA or IFA plus NAT Testing is not mandatory but BC in high risk areas doing it.
35
How long are donors with history of babesiosis deferred?
Indefinitely
36
How is WNV transmitted?
Bite of infected mosquito Blood transfusion Organ transplant In utero
37
What are the symptoms of WNV?
80% never have symptoms Some have fever, headache, body aches, vomiting, and diarrhea <1% develop sever neurological illness such as encephalitis or mengitidis
38
What testing is done to detect WNV?
6 or 16 MP NAT or ID during peak season
39
What other virus are spread by mosquitos?
Dengue virus | Chikungunya
40
What is the importance of Parvovirus B19?
Virus enters through P antigen on RBC Very resistant to heat and chemical inactivation - must test source/recovered plasma for it If transmitted during pregnancy can result in fetal death
41
What causes syphilis?
Spirochete treponema pallidum Sexual transmission or blood transfusion although incidence of syphilis is rare and spirochete does not survive blood very well
42
What are the two categories of syphilis testing?
Non treponemal test (RPR or VDRL) that test for nonspecific (reagin) antibodies to an antigen called cardiolipin Treponemal test detect specific antibodies to T. pallidim (FTA, TPI, TPHA)
43
How long after treatment do reagin antibodies remain positive?
1-2 years
44
What is the advantage of treponemal test?
Higher sensitivity; but will remain positive throughout individuals life even after treatment
45
What is the common automated test for syphilis?
The Olympus PK-TP assay uses microhemagglutination. Uses Chicken RBC's sensitized with T. pallidum antigens fixed to microwell. Reactions settle in terraced microwell . Negative reactions appear as solid button with clear zone.
46
How long are donors deferred with positive syphilis test confirmed with IFA?
They are deferred for 12 months from treatment with Dr. letter and negative non-treponemal test
47
What if the nontreponemal test is positive but the confirmatory IFA is negative?
Unit may be release for transfusion but must be labeled.
48
How is Zika transmitted?
Rare case of blood transfusion Sexual contact From mother to fetus Bite of Aedes Mosquito
49
How are donor units for Zika?
Individual donor with NAT or may substitute PRT treated products
50
What is the confirmatory testing?
MAC ELISA for IgM/IgG antibody or plaque reduction neutralization test (PRNT) or CDC trioplex NAT
51
What do you do if ZIKA NAT is reactive
Quarantine all blood products donated in last 120 days
52
What if a donor unit is repeatedly reactive for HTLV antibody?
Units should be discarded or labeled as positive for HTLV antibodies and for research only If donor is repeatedly reactive a 2nd time, donor is deferred indefinitely Look back 5 years or 12 months from last negative test
53
What are the 3 genes in HIV?
Gag gene - proteins in nuclear core (PCR detection) pol gene - reverse transcriptase env gene - important for attachment
54
What are the 3 groups of HIV-1?
Group M - maid group found world wide Group O - Outlier group found West Africa Group N - Non-O/Non-M = seen in Cameroon (1996)
55
What is HIV-2?
Discovered in 1986 Endemic to West Africa; rare in US Similar to HIV except less pathogenic and lower transmission rate
56
What is the window period for HIV?
7-9 days
57
What day to HIV antibodies typically appear (seroconversion)?
Day 22
58
What screening tests are done for HIV on donors?
MP NAT testing HIV1/2 IgM and IgG antibody testing HIV-O tested or must use a donor question to exclude at risk donors
59
What confirmation test's are preformed on reactive HIV test?
HIV-1 IFA or Western blot and EIA for HIV-2 If Confirmation tests are negative may reenter donor in 8 weeks
60
How is Hep A transmitted?
Fecal oral route through contaminated food or water Close person to person contact Men having sex with men Children in day centers
61
Why isn't testing done on donor for Hep A?
No approved test No carrier state and many are immune due to vaccine Total anti-HAV can remain reactive for life following infection
62
How is Hep B spread?
Percutanues (needles, transplant, transfusion) Permucosal (sexual contact) In utero
63
What donor screening does the FDA require for Hep B?
HbsAg - first marker to appear 4-12 weeks HBV - DNA Total anti-Hbc - IgM is first antibody to appear and last 6 months. IgG indicates chronic or carrier state
64
What is the confirmatory test for reactive HbsAg?
Neutralization test confirms HBsAg; if neg and anti-HBc negative = retest in 8 weeks
65
What if HBV Nat is positive?
If NAT positive = indefinite deferral | NAT positive & HBsAg negative = retest in 8 weeks
66
What if anti-Hbc is reactive with negative NAT?
1st time = no deferral 2nd time=8 wk deferral 3rd time=ind. Deferral Negative anti-Hbc = donor re-entry
67
What testing is done on donors for HCV?
Anti-HCV (1990) HCV NAT
68
How long is deferral for positive HCV NAT test?
Indefinitely
69
How long is deferral for positive anti-HCV with negative NAT?
Positive anti-HCV with negative NAT; retest in 6 months
70
Why is there no testing required for Hep D?
Hep D requires Hep B to infect so testing for Hep should prevent
71
Why is there no testing for anti-HEV?
There is no test available transmitted fecal-oral No chronic cases and rare in US
72
What is the principle for HIV-1 IFA?
Human Pall T-cells which express HIV-1 antigens are fixed to glass slides. HIV-1 antibodies will bind with HIV-1 antigens. Bound specific antibodies are detected with anti-human IgG conjugated to fluorescein isothiocynate (FITC) which binds human antibodies and fluoresces when exposed to UV light. Resulting in an intense apple green fluorescence.
73
What is the principle of Western Blot for HIV-1?
Based on a combination of electrophoretic separation of complex mixtures of antigens with a highly sensitive immunoblotting technique. Specific proteins are fractionated according to MW by electrophoresis and electro transferred from the polyacrylimide gel onto the cellulose membrane which is then washed, blocked (prevents non-specific IgG binding) and cut. The presence or absence of antibodies to HIV-1 and their identity are determined by comparison of each strip to the Nonreactive, Weak reactive, and Strong reactive controls. The strips are interpreted based on combinations of band pattern and reactivity.
74
What is the principle of the HCV RIBA test?
NO longer available as confirmatory test Antibodies in specimen specific to HCV bind to the corresponding antigen on strip. Unbound antibody is washed away. The strip is incubated with peroxidase labeled goat anti-human IgG conjugate. It binds to IgG portion of the antigen-antibody complex. Removal of unbound components is accomplished by decanting and washing. A colorimetric enzyme detection system is added. If bound conjugate is present, the enzymatic reaction will produce an insoluble blue-black reaction product at each specific HCV antigen, peptide or control band.
75
What does the Line Immuno Assay (LIA) do?
Confirms and discriminates between HTLV I and II on same strip using EIA technology
76
What is the principle of FTA-ABS?
Patients smaple is incubated with sorbent to remove non-specific antibody. Treponemal specific antibody attaches to antigen. A rinsing period follows to remove all unbound antibody. A second incubation follows with fluorescein (FITC) labeled anti-human conjugate. FITC binds to patients antibody. Then finally rinsed and observed under UV light.
77
What is the principle of the HBsAg ELISA Test?
Competitive binding for anti-HBsAg confirmatory test for HBsAg Specimen is incubated with unlabeled and labeled antibody that compete for ag binding sites. Specimen is considered positive only if it meets both criteria: One or both control values must be greater than or equal to C/O (cut-off) and Ab. To HBsAg in either test well must reduce reactivity of either acceptable control value by at least 50%
78
Which donor test do not require a look back?
Positive syphilis ABO/Rh mislabeled - Typically done anyway Positive RBC antibody
79
What is the look back requirement for HIV?
If HIV reactive - look back 1 year | If Anti-HIV reactive; NAT positive or Western blot confirmed - look back 5 years or 1 year past last negative test
80
What is the look back requirement for HCV?
NAT positive = look back 1 year | Anti-HCV plus NAT confirmed - look back 10 years or 1 year past last negative test
81
What is the look back requirement for reactive Chagas antibody?
Fractionated products - look back 12 months | Transfusion products - look back as far as electronic records exist
82
What is requirement for look back for bacteria?
From current donation to a maximum of one year or last bacterial tested donation.
83
What is the look back requirement for WNV NAT reactive?
120 days prior to current donation plus 120 days after positive donation if applicable