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CPNP > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What treatment is given to the immunocompromised person with chickenpox?

A

Oral acyclovir 20 mg per kilogram five times a day, given in the first 24 hours

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2
Q

What is a hallmark sign or symptom of scabies?

A

Linear or curved burrows or snake-like lesions

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3
Q

Which measles infection is the German measles?

A

Rubella

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4
Q

What is a particular risk in young children with burns?

A

Hypothermia

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5
Q

What skin condition typically follows a recent URI, is more common in females than males, and last three to eight weeks?

A

Pityriasis rosea

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6
Q

What laboratory studies are elevated with atopic dermatitis?

A

Serum IgE and maybe eosinophilia

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7
Q

What skin condition is defined as a benign hyperproliferative inflammatory skin disorder

A

Psoriasis

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8
Q

What skin condition is characterized by a herald patch?

A

Pityriasis rosea

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9
Q

Describe stage 3 of Lyme disease

A

Joint and periodicular pain, subacute encephalopathy, acro dermatitis chronicum atrophicancs (localized DIC of the extremities)

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10
Q

What topical steroids are good for the treatment of psoriasis?

A

Betamethasone 0.05% or triamcinolone 0.5%

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11
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria of Lyme disease?

A

Exposure to tick habitat within the last 30 days with erythema migrans or one late manifestation and laboratory confirmation

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12
Q

What should not be placed on burns?

A

Lotion, paste, or ointments

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13
Q

How long is a child contagious with fifth disease?

A

The child is contagious until the fever is gone

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14
Q

Morphology: a large, raise lesion filled with serous fluid, blood, and pus; crosses multiple skin layers?

A

Cyst

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15
Q

Morphology: a lesion raised above the surface and extending a bit below the epidermis?

A

Wheal Ex: uticaria, mosquito bites, PPD test

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16
Q

Describe the distribution of chickenpox

A

Papules usually develop on trunk then spread to scalp and face

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17
Q

Three categories of burns?

A

First degree, second degree or partial thickness, and third degree or full thickness

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18
Q

Morphology: a small, flat discoloration?

A

Macule Ex: freckles or moles

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19
Q

What is the typical symptom presentation of rubeola?

A

Fever, runny nose, cough, with Koplik’s spots Followed by outbreak of rash

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20
Q

Morphology: a small, less than 1 cm lesion filled with serous fluid?

A

Vesicle Example: HSV, herpes zoster

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21
Q

What is the management of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Resolves spontaneously if left alone

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22
Q

What viral skin infection is also known for causing peeling or loss of the nail?

A

Coxsackie virus or hand foot and mouth disease

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23
Q

How long must ticks feed in order to transmit Lyme disease?

A

24 to 36 hours

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24
Q

what is an acute, contagious disease caused by herpes virus, transmitted by direct contact with lesions or airborne

A

Varicella zoster virus or chickenpox

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25
Q

Configuration: circular, beginning in the center and spreading to the periphery

A

Annular

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26
Q

What are Koplik’s spots?

A

White dots in the back of the mouth near the molars characteristic of rubiola

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27
Q

If a diaper rash has erythema and papules what can be used?

A

1% hydrocortisone

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28
Q

What skin condition is a pruritic rash in a Christmas tree pattern?

A

Pityriasis rosea

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29
Q

What is the treatment for pinworms?

A

Pyrantel is OTC and mebendazole as a prescription

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30
Q

How long does the fifth disease rash last?

A

Up to 1 month

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31
Q

What form of tinea presents in erythematous rings?

A

Corporis

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32
Q

What is the systemic management of impetigo?

A

Augmentin or cephalexin

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33
Q

Morphology: and elevated, firm lesion greater than 1 cm; corsses multiple skin layers?

A

Nodule Example: fibroma

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34
Q

How long does a child with impetigo need to stay away from school?

A

48 hours after treatment

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35
Q

What viral infection affects the salivary glands causing parotitis?

A

Mumps

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36
Q

If not responsive to benzoyl peroxide what is the next topical treatment for mild acne?

A

Retinoic acid 0.025% to 0.1%

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37
Q

What age can you begin using the rule of nines?

A

9 years old

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38
Q

What is the primary treatment of tinea capitus?

A

Griseofulvin x6 weeks.

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39
Q

What is known to be an exacerbation of acne?

A

Steroids and anticonvulsants

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40
Q

Morphology: a small less than one centimeter, elevated, firm skin lesion?

A

Papule Ex: bug bite, wart

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41
Q

What distinguishes rubella from rubeola?

A

Rubella typically only lasts 3 days and is less intense

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42
Q

How does the rubeola or measles rash spread?

A

Cephalocaudal

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43
Q

What three systemic medications are used in the treatment of moderate acne?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg 2 times per day, erythromycin 1 g in 2 to 3 divided doses if caused by staph infection, and monocyclin 50-100 mg twice daily

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44
Q

What is the difference between a primary lesion and a secondary lesion?

A

Primary is first appearing, and secondary follows primary lesions related to scratches and/or infections

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45
Q

What is the management of scabies?

A

Permethrin 5% repeated weekly in order to kill newly hatched bugs as the permethrin can’t kill the eggs

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46
Q

What skin condition is defined by red, sharply defined plaques with silvery scales?

A

Psoriasis

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47
Q

Morphology: serous fluid-filled vesicles greater than 1 cm?

A

Bulla Ex: Burns, blisters, contact dermatitis

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48
Q

What is the name of the skin disorder that causes honey crusting lesions?

49
Q

How long are children with chickenpox infectious?

A

48 hours after outbreak and until lesions have all acrested over

50
Q

What skin condition is sensitive to low humidity and often worsens in the winter when the air is dry?

A

Atopic dermatitis or eczema

51
Q

Describe stage 1 of Lyme disease.

A

Erythema migraines: a flat or slightly race red lesion expands over several days but has central clearing

52
Q

Describe the progression of the chickenpox bumps?

A

Start as erythematous macules, then papules develop overmacuels, then vesicles erupt

53
Q

What causes roseola?

A

Herpes virus six

54
Q

What rash starts as confined, bright red, flat blotches that progress into widespread sandpaper like papillae?

A

Scarlet fever

55
Q

What form of tinea appears as solitary areas of hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation?

A

Versicolor

56
Q

What is the typical age range of roseola?

A

6 months to 2 years

57
Q

Describe stage 2 of Lyme disease

A

Headache, stiff joints, migratory pains, asymptote meningitis, peripheral neuropathy

58
Q

When should syphilis be tested for when examining pityriasis rosea?

A

If the rash does not itch or if it’s on Palmer services, genitalia, or mucus membranes

59
Q

What is the colloquial name for the Coxsackie virus?

A

Hand foot and mouth disease

60
Q

Morphology: a scaly, elevated lesion?

A

Plaque Ex: psoriasis

61
Q

Morphology: a firm elevated lump? (Included in this classification is a nodule?

62
Q

How would you describe the rash associated with the Coxsackie virus? On what body parts is it located?

A

It is a papulo vesicular rash located on the hands feet and inside of the mouth. (elevated with clear fluid)

63
Q

Configuration: lesions that run together

64
Q

What is a common comorbidity with eczema?

A

Asthma or allergic rhinitis

65
Q

Morphology: a flat discoloration that looks as though it was in a collection of multiple, tiny pigment changes; larger than a macule?

A

Patch Ex: Mongolian spot, cafe au Lait spot

66
Q

What should be placed on burns initially?

A

Cool water

67
Q

What is fifth disease?

A

Called erythema infectiosum, it is caused by human parvovirus b19

68
Q

What infection causes scarlet fever

A

Group A beta hemolytic streptococci

69
Q

What topicals are good for psoriasis on the scalp?

A

Tar or salicylic acid shampoo

70
Q

What disease is associated with umbilicated lesions?

A

Molluscum contagiosum

71
Q

What disease does Borrelia Burgdorfi cause?

A

Lyme disease

72
Q

What form of tinea presents with severe itching?

A

Cruris and pedis

73
Q

What lab test can confirm Lyme disease?

A

Detection of antibody to b. burgdorferi via ELISA screening, or a western blot assay

74
Q

What is the management of pityriasis rosea?

A

None usually required but oral erythromycin can clear up the rash faster

75
Q

Blackhead verse whitehead?

A

Blackheads are open comedones capped with black and massive skin debris Whiteheads are closed comedons, they are obstructed and upon opening me rupture causing low-grade local inflammatory reactions

76
Q

What is the treatment of scarlet fever?

A

10 to 14 day course of amoxicillin

77
Q

List the five different tineas.

A

Tinea capitus, tinea corporis, tinea versicolor, tinea cruris, tinea pedia

78
Q

What distinguishes roseola from other viral infections?

A

High fever that abruptly stops when the rash develops

79
Q

Configuration of colon scratch, streak, line, or stripe

80
Q

Morphology: a small, less than 1 cm pest filled lesion?

A

Pustule Ex: acne and impetigo

81
Q

What is scarlet fever most commonly a complication of?

A

Strep throat

82
Q

What is Auspitz’s sign?

A

Drops of blood underneath scales of psoriasis

83
Q

What are two topical antibiotics used in the treatment of mild acne?

A

erythromycin or clindamycin

84
Q

P what is a polymorphic skin disorder characterized by comedones, papules, pustules, and cysts?

85
Q

Configuration: individual or distinct lesions that remain separate

A

Solitary or discrete

86
Q

What two bacteria is impetigo caused by?

A

Graham positive strep or staph.

87
Q

Configuration: annular lesions that have merged

A

Polycyclic

88
Q

What is used to treat tinea versicolor?

A

Selenium sulfide shampoo or or al itraconazole

89
Q

What skin infection has the slapped cheek appearance?

A

fifth’s disease or erythema infectiosum

90
Q

Morphology: ain’t possible lesion greater than 1 cm, typically angry in appearance?

91
Q

What is the typical pharmacologic treatment of eczema?

A

Topical steroids such as hydrocortisone or fluocinonide 0.05% or triamcinolone 0.1%

92
Q

What is the incubation phase of scabies?

A

4 to 6 weeks

93
Q

What is the management of Lyme disease if the infection is confined to the skin?

A

Under the age of seven amoxicillin or cefuroxine axetil. Over the age of seven doxycycline

94
Q

What season does impetigo occur?

95
Q

What is the first line pharmacologic treatment of mild acne?

A

Benzoyl peroxide 2.5 to 10%

96
Q

Configuration: linear cluster

97
Q

What are some pharmacologic agents that could be used in the treatment of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Tretinoin 0.025% or 0.1%, salicylic acid daily

98
Q

Describe the roseola rash

A

Small pink, flat to raised bumps that moves from the trunk to the extremities

99
Q

What are the major reservoir of Lyme disease?

A

Mice and deer ticks

100
Q

What form of tinea is asymptomatic?

101
Q

What are two examples of keratolytics, and what do they do?

A

Benzoyl peroxide and retinoic acid inhibit bacterial growth and promote peeling of skin

102
Q

What antibiotics are used in the treatment of acne?

A

Glenda, erythro, or tetracycline

103
Q

Name a low potency, medium, potency, and high potency topical steroid.

A

.5% hydrocortisone, 1% hydrocortisone, triamcinolone or betamethasone

104
Q

Where should medium and high potency steroids be avoided on the body?

A

Face, buttocks, groin, and axilla

105
Q

What bacteria most often causes cellulitis?

A

Strep and staph

106
Q

What kind of cellulitis requires hospitalization?

A

Periorbital cellulitis

107
Q

What causes toxic shock syndrome?

A

Staph aureus or strep pyrogens otherwise known as group A strep

108
Q

What is the rash associated with toxic shock syndrome?

A

Diffuse macular or sunburn like rash

109
Q

What treats tuna versicolor?

A

Selenium shampoo or ketoconazole shampoo

110
Q

What is the name for deep vesicles on hands or fingers caused by HSV?

A

Herpetic whitlow

111
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of HSV?

A

Viral culture

112
Q

What treats lice?

A

Permethrin

113
Q

What are the steps to mice removal?

A

wash hair without conditioner. That will dry. Apply permethrin. Leave for 10 minutes. Rinse. Do not wash hair for at least 24 hours. Use knit remover comb for 20 to 30 minutes. Cleans the environment.

114
Q

What is the basic treatment for comadoma acne?

A

Topical characteristic

115
Q

What is the treatment of mild popular pustular acne?

A

Topical characteristic and a topical antibiotic

116
Q

What is the treatment for moderate popular acne?

A

Topical characteristic and an oral antibiotic

117
Q

What is the treatment for severe populopustular acne?

A

Isotretinoin or accutane

118
Q

What is the treatment for contact dermatitis?

A

Moisturizers maybe a mild hydrocortisone

119
Q

What is the treatment of SJS and TEN?

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