DERM - Introduction to dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the atopic triad?

A
  • asthma
  • allergies
  • atopic dermatitis
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2
Q

what are the flat lesions? how are they differentiated?

A
  • macule: under 1 cm

- patch: over 1 cm

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3
Q

what are the raised, solid lesions? how are they differentiated?

A
  • papule: under 1 cm
  • nodule: over 1 cm
  • tumor: over 2 cm
  • plaque: over 1 cm FLAT topped (“plateau”)
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4
Q

what are the raised fluild filled lesions? how are the differentiated?

A
  • vesicles: clear fluid, under 1 cm
  • bulla: clear fluid, over 1 cm
  • pustule: white fluid, filled with pus
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5
Q

are telangiectasias blanchable or non-blanchable?

A

blanchable

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6
Q

definition: erosion

A

loss of epidermis, depression in skin, heals WITHOUT scar

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7
Q

definition: scale

A

flake or plates of skin

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8
Q

what is used to visualize tinea versicolor?

A

woods light

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9
Q

spaghetti and meatballs appearance on woods light - diagnosis?

A

tinea versicolor

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10
Q

what is the organism responsible for tinea versicolor?

A

malassezia furfur

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11
Q

malassezia furfur is responsible for what condition?

A

tinea versicolor

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12
Q

what is the treatment for tinea versicolor?

A

ketoconazole shampoo, topical antifungals

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13
Q

what is the mechanism of action of topical steroids?

A
  • inhibition of NF-kB, suppressing both B and TC function

- no cytokine transcription

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14
Q

are imidazoles fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

fungistatic (azoles!)

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15
Q

are allylamines fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

fungicidal

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16
Q

are polyenes fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

fungicidal

17
Q

are allylamines better for dermatophytes or candida?

A

dermatophytes

18
Q

are polyenes better for dermatophytes or candida?

A

candida

19
Q

what is the MOA of the imidazoles?

A
  • inhibit 14-a-demethylase
  • stops lanosterol from forming ergosterol
  • p450 enzyme inhibitors**
20
Q

what are the side effects of the imidazoles?

A
  • antiandrogen
  • liver toxicity
  • drug interactions
21
Q

what is the MOA of the allylamines?

A

inhibit squalene epoxidase

22
Q

what are the side effects of the allylamines and polyenes?

A
  • taste deficiency
  • liver toxicity
  • HA
  • GI
23
Q

what are the first generation antihistamines?

A
  • diphenhydramine
  • hydroxyzine
  • chlorpheniramine
24
Q

what are the second generation antihistamines?

A
  • cetirizine
  • loratidine
  • fexofenadine (best for itch)
25
Q

which antihistamine is best for itch?

A

fexofenadine

26
Q

what is ranitidine used for? what is the MOA?

A
  • GERD

- H2 blocker

27
Q

what is the target for psoriasis medication?

A

inhibition of keratinocyte proliferation

28
Q

what are the psoriasis meds?

A
  • coal tar
  • tazarotene
  • vitamin D analogs
29
Q

what are the most specific antibodies for lupus?

A
  • anti dsDNA

- anti smith

30
Q

what are the common causes of death in lupus patients?

A
  1. CV
  2. infection
  3. renal disease
31
Q

which drugs can cause SLE?

A
  • sulfa
  • hydralazine
  • INH
  • procainamide
  • phenytoin
  • etanercept