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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 9 > Flashcards

Deck 9 Flashcards

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1
Q

What equation represents power?

a. Time ÷ work
b. Y = mx + b
c. Force x velocity
d. a2 + b2 = c2

A

c. Force x velocity

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2
Q

What are the two categories of bone markings?

a. Surface and deep
b. Short and long
c. Irregular and flat
d. Depressions and processes

A

d. Depressions and processes

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3
Q

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

a. Strength and stabilization
b. Strength and volume
c. Growth and volume
d. Growth and stabilization

A

c. Growth and volume

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4
Q

What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission?

a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Neurotransmitters
c. Sarcomeres
d. Synapses

A

b. Neurotransmitters

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5
Q

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?

a. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion
c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg
d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

A

d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

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6
Q

Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process?

a. Sending a text to the manager saying, “Thanks for your time.”
b. Posting a video on social media showing him working out at the health club
c. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job
d. Calling the manager to ask when the first day of work will be scheduled

A

c. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job

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7
Q

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?

a. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.
b. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often.
c. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
d. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.

A

c. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

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8
Q

Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?

a. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
b. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
c. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.
d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

A

d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

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9
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?

a. Davies test
b. Pushing test
c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
d. Shark skill test

A

b. Pushing test

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10
Q

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?

a. Arteries
b. Capillaries
c. Arterioles
d. Veins

A

d. Veins

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11
Q

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?

a. Groups rely only on the leader for support.
b. Groups function only when all members are present.
c. The group feels distinct from other people.
d. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in.

A

c. The group feels distinct from other people.

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12
Q

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?

a. Flexibility and joint ROM
b. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness
c. Muscle strength and power
d. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency

A

a. Flexibility and joint ROM

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13
Q

What is the primary muscle type of the heart?

a. Skeletal
b. Smooth
c. Myofibril
d. Cardiac

A

d. Cardiac

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14
Q

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?

a. Quality of movement
b. Amount of external resistance
c. Number of sets/reps
d. Speed of exercise completion

A

a. Quality of movement

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15
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?

a. Maintenance
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Precontemplation

A

b. Preparation

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16
Q

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?

a. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press
b. Stability ball push-up
c. Shoulder/military press
d. Squat jump

A

c. Shoulder/military press

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17
Q

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?

a. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.
b. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.
c. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.
d. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

A

d. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

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18
Q

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?

a. 3.5 mL/kg/min
b. 5.0 mL/kg/min
c. 2.5 mL/kg/min
d. 7.0 mL/kg/min

A

a. 3.5 mL/kg/min

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19
Q

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users?

a. Increased multiplanar movement
b. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements
c. Increased user safety
d. Decreased challenges to balance and stability

A

a. Increased multiplanar movement

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20
Q

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?

a. The requirements of the leader
b. The personality of the leader
c. Leader’s qualities
d. Leader’s style

A

c. Leader’s qualities

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21
Q

Kettlebells were first used in which setting?

a. Eastern European gymnastic programs
b. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators
c. The Russian military
d. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

A

d. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

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22
Q

Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building?

a. Peristalsis
b. Absorption
c. Mastication
d. Motility

A

b. Absorption

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23
Q

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client’s fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?

a. Recovery
b. Volume
c. Intensity
d. Training frequency

A

d. Training frequency

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24
Q

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?

a. Muscle endurance
b. Muscle power
c. Muscle hypertrophy
d. Muscle strength

A

c. Muscle hypertrophy

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25
Q

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?

a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
c. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.
d. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.

A

b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

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26
Q

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing?

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Chronic obstructive lung disease
d. Dyspnea

A

d. Dyspnea

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27
Q

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?

a. Integrated performance paradigm
b. Core stabilization
c. Rate of force production
d. Stretch-shortening cycle

A

c. Rate of force production

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28
Q

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.

a. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
c. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
d. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

A

d. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

a. Balance
b. Coordination
c. Agility
d. Quickness

A

d. Quickness

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30
Q

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?

a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week
c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week
d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

A

a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

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31
Q

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?

a. Fruit juice
b. An isotonic sports drink
c. Water
d. A hypertonic sports drink

A

c. Water

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32
Q

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

a. 3 times a week
b. 5 times a week
c. 6 times a week
d. 4 times a week

A

b. 5 times a week

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33
Q

How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?

a. About 500
b. About 1,000
c. About 5,500
d. About 3,500

A

d. About 3,500

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34
Q

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?

a. Positive self-talk
b. Appearance imagery
c. Technique imagery
d. Energy imagery

A

b. Appearance imagery

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35
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

a. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
b. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
d. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

A

c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

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36
Q

Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit?

a. Affiliation motivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
c. Achievement motivation
d. Intrinsic motivation

A

d. Intrinsic motivation

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37
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

a. Strength Endurance
b. Muscular Development
c. Maximal Strength
d. Stabilization Endurance

A

b. Muscular Development

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38
Q

At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true?

a. She needs to modify her diet to bring down her blood pressure.
b. She has hypertension.
c. Her systolic pressure is 70.
d. Her diastolic pressure is 70.

A

d. Her diastolic pressure is 70.

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39
Q

This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard.

a. Active listening
b. Reflections
c. Open-ended questions
d. Closed-ended questions

A

b. Reflections

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40
Q

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?

a. As far as can be controlled without compensating
b. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion
c. Thighs parallel to the ground
d. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion

A

a. As far as can be controlled without compensating

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41
Q

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?

a. Reliability
b. Appropriateness
c. Validity
d. Relevance

A

c. Validity

42
Q

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?

a. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion.
b. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field.
c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
d. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments.

A

c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

43
Q

Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?

a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
d. The highest elevation of the body in space

A

a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

44
Q

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?

a. 0 sets
b. 5 or 6 sets
c. 7 to 9 sets
d. 1 to 4 sets

A

d. 1 to 4 sets

45
Q

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?

a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle

A

a. Right atrium

46
Q

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?

a. Calcitonin
b. Glucagon
c. Cortisol
d. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

A

d. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

47
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down?

a. Increase breathing rate
b. Reduce body temperature
c. Provide a transition period
d. Reduce heart rate

A

a. Increase breathing rate

48
Q

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?

a. Peripheral vasodilation
b. Blood pressure
c. Heart rate
d. Thermoregulation

A

a. Peripheral vasodilation

49
Q

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?

a. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
b. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
c. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
d. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron

A

b. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

50
Q

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?

a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric
d. Isokinetic

A

c. Isometric

51
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders?

a. Pes planus distortion syndrome
b. Upper crossed syndrome
c. Lower crossed syndrome
d. Knee valgus

A

b. Upper crossed syndrome

52
Q

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?

a. Terra-Core push-up
b. Medicine ball chest pass
c. Sandbag step-up
d. Barbell squat

A

b. Medicine ball chest pass

53
Q

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?

a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

A

d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

54
Q

What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?

a. PERT estimate
b. Unique selling proposition (USP)
c. SWOT analysis
d. Statement of work (SOW)

A

b. Unique selling proposition (USP)

55
Q

When a client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own, she is likely in need of which type of support?

a. Informational support
b. Companionship support
c. Emotional support
d. Instrumental support

A

b. Companionship support

56
Q

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?

a. Androgens
b. Melatonin
c. Endorphins
d. Adrenaline

A

c. Endorphins

57
Q

The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?

a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

A

b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

58
Q

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?

a. Irregular
b. Short
c. Long
d. Flat

A

c. Long

59
Q

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?

a. Proper technique
b. Amortization speed
c. Jump height
d. Explosive power

A

a. Proper technique

60
Q

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?

a. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength
b. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength
c. An overweight client with adequate strength
d. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

A

d. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

61
Q

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?

a. Cleaning
b. Getting in and out of the car
c. Moving a grocery cart
d. Raking leaves

A

a. Cleaning

62
Q

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body?

a. White blood cells
b. Plasma
c. Red blood cells
d. Platelets

A

c. Red blood cells

63
Q

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?

a. Stabilization of the LPHC
b. Slow and controlled movements
c. A faster tempo, similar to daily life
d. Use of heavy weights

A

c. A faster tempo, similar to daily life

64
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?

a. Lower crossed syndrome
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Excessive pronation

A

a. Lower crossed syndrome

65
Q

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?

a. Erector spinae
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Multifidus

A

d. Multifidus

66
Q

What BMI score is considered overweight?

a. 30 to 34.9
b. 35 to 39.9
c. 18.5 to 24.9
d. 25 to 29.9

A

d. 25 to 29.9

67
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

a. Volume and progression
b. Velocity and pattern
c. Variables and pattern
d. Variables and progression

A

a. Volume and progression

68
Q

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?

a. Amotivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
c. Intrinsic motivation
d. Incentive motivation

A

c. Intrinsic motivation

69
Q

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?

a. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
b. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
d. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium

A

c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

70
Q

What are essential amino acids?

a. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis
b. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body
c. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources
d. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

A

d. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

71
Q

Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?

a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Maximal Strength Training
c. Power Training
d. Muscular Development Training

A

d. Muscular Development Training

72
Q

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?

a. ViPR
b. Suspended bodyweight training
c. Speed ladders
d. Strength machines

A

a. ViPR

73
Q

What is plyometric training also known as?

a. Resistance training
b. Stability training
c. Reactive training
d. Strength training

A

c. Reactive training

74
Q

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?

a. Balance training
b. Core training
c. Resistance training
d. Cardiorespiratory training

A

c. Resistance training

75
Q

Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged?

a. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be more powerful.
b. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
c. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be more powerful.
d. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.

A

d. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.

76
Q

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteopenia

A

c. Osteoarthritis

77
Q

How is Fartlek training best described?

a. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
c. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.
d. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

A

b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

78
Q

Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress?

a. The release of endorphins
b. Restricted blood flow
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Hypertension

A

a. The release of endorphins

79
Q

Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs?

a. Offering online coaching programs
b. Offering customized meal plans for each client
c. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts
d. Teaching group fitness workouts

A

a. Offering online coaching programs

80
Q

What is glycogen?

a. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
b. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
c. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals

A

b. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

81
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases?

a. Phase 5
b. Phase 4
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 3

A

c. Phase 1

82
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

a. Vestibular system
b. Auditory system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Visual system

A

d. Visual system

83
Q

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month’s mesocycle?

a. Resistance
b. Cardio
c. SAQ
d. Reassessment

A

d. Reassessment

84
Q

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?

a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Barbell squat
c. Bench press
d. Single-leg cable row

A

a. Medicine ball soccer throw

85
Q

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?

a. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
c. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
d. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

A

d. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

86
Q

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Health Canada
c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

A

c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

87
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

a. Gluteus maximus and medius
b. Hip flexors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

A

d. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

88
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

a. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth
b. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain
c. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
d. Stabilization, strength, and power

A

c. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

89
Q

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?

a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Oxidation
d. Glycolysis

A

b. Gluconeogenesis

90
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?

a. YMCA 3-minute step test
b. Rockport walk test
c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

A

d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

91
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

a. Abdominals
b. Hip flexors
c. Lower trapezius
d. Adductor complex

A

a. Abdominals

92
Q

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?

a. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Rhomboids
c. Deltoid
d. Serratus anterior

A

d. Serratus anterior

93
Q

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?

a. Frequency
b. Volume
c. Recovery
d. Intensity

A

c. Recovery

94
Q

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?

a. Adductors
b. Piriformis
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Thoracic spine

A

c. Tensor fascia latae

95
Q

Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

a. People with a low body mass index
b. Females
c. People with a low body fat percentage
d. Males

A

b. Females

96
Q

What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition?

a. Another word for macronutrients
b. Needed to build muscle
c. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own
d. Contained within healthy food items

A

c. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own

97
Q

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?

a. 0 seconds
b. 60 to 120 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 5 minutes

A

b. 60 to 120 seconds

98
Q

What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

a. A strain
b. A pull
c. A twist
d. A sprain

A

d. A sprain

99
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?

a. Overhead squat
b. Lunge
c. Squat
d. Single-leg squat

A

c. Squat

100
Q

What is the most practical measurement of overweight and obesity?

a. BMI
b. DEXA scan
c. Hydrostatic weighing
d. Skinfold measurement

A

a. BMI

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