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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 1 > Flashcards

Deck 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?

a. Downward dog pose
b. Cat pose
c. Bound angle pose
d. Plow pose

A

d. Plow pose

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2
Q

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?

a. Unrealistic goals
b. Lack of social support
c. Social physique anxiety
d. Ambivalence

A

a. Unrealistic goals

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3
Q

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

a. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM
b. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
c. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
d. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM

A

c. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

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4
Q

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?

a. Stride rate
b. Power
c. Agility
d. Stride length

A

d. Stride length

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5
Q

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?

a. Ball cobra
b. Close grip bench press
c. Lat pulldown
d. Seated cable row

A

b. Close grip bench press

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6
Q

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?

a. Dynamic stretches
b. Sports drills
c. Self-myofascial techniques
d. Active stretches

A

c. Self-myofascial techniques

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7
Q

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?

a. Fourth class
b. First class
c. Third class
d. Second class

A

c. Third class

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8
Q

When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?

a. Amotivation to exercise
b. Ambivalence toward exercise
c. An influence on exercise
d. A barrier to exercise

A

d. A barrier to exercise

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9
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

a. Serratus anterior
b. Cervical extensors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Lower trapezius

A

d. Lower trapezius

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10
Q

What is excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
c. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
d. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.

A

b. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

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11
Q

Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer?

a. Maria was a co-captain on a state champion volleyball team in high school.
b. Maria worked as a camp counselor at a youth sports camp while in college.
c. Maria placed second in her first bikini competition.
d. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.

A

d. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.

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12
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
b. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
d. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion

A

c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

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13
Q

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream?

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypotension
d. Hypertension

A

a. Hypoglycemia

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14
Q

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?

a. Muscular fitness
b. Flexibility
c. Body composition
d. Cardiorespiratory fitness

A

c. Body composition

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15
Q

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

a. Upward rotation
b. Protraction
c. Elevation
d. Retraction

A

d. Retraction

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16
Q

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

a. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers
b. A decrease in metabolic rate
c. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest
d. A reduction in blood pressure at rest

A

b. A decrease in metabolic rate

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17
Q

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

a. The exercise is continuous in nature.
b. The exercise is rhythmic.
c. The exercise is intense.
d. The exercise targets large muscle groups.

A

c. The exercise is intense.

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18
Q

Which of the following is a primary goal of the strength endurance phase of the OPT model?

a. Maximal Strength Training
b. Maximal muscle growth
c. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength
d. Teaching optimal movement patterns

A

c. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength

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19
Q

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?

a. Arthrokinematics
b. Biomechanics
c. Osteokinematics
d. Kinesiology

A

c. Osteokinematics

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20
Q

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

a. Knee flexion
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Hip abduction
d. Ankle dorsiflexion

A

b. Ankle plantar flexion

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21
Q

Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes?

a. The body has low levels of insulin.
b. The pancreas does not make insulin.
c. It can develop regardless of a healthy diet.
d. Insulin resistance

A

d. Insulin resistance

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22
Q

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?

a. Stabilize individual vertebral segments
b. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs
c. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

A

d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

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23
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise?

a. Shoveling snow
b. Walking a dog
c. Weightlifting
d. Yard work

A

c. Weightlifting

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24
Q

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?

a. Decreased oxygen delivery
b. Short-term contractions
c. Fewer capillaries
d. Slow to fatigue

A

d. Slow to fatigue

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25
Q

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?

a. Preparation
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Maintenance

A

d. Maintenance

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26
Q

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one?

a. Offer users the ability to change resistance easily
b. Provide an increased range of motion
c. Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures
d. Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers

A

b. Provide an increased range of motion

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27
Q

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?

a. The ATP-PC system
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Glycolysis
d. The citric acid cycle

A

a. The ATP-PC system

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28
Q

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool?

a. Battle ropes
b. TRX Rip Trainer
c. Sandbags
d. Kettlebells

A

c. Sandbags

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29
Q

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?

a. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development
b. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active
c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
d. A method to help determine an individual’s heart rate

A

c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

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30
Q

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?

a. Increased ventricular filling
b. Decreased venous return
c. Decreased ventricular filling
d. Venous pooling

A

a. Increased ventricular filling

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31
Q

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?

a. All-or-nothing principle
b. SAID principle
c. Progressive overload
d. Systematic approach

A

c. Progressive overload

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32
Q

What are the three categories within the lipid family?

a. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats
b. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s
c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
d. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol

A

c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

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33
Q

When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to?

a. Evidence-based practice
b. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums
c. Traditional compliance
d. Peer-observed procedure

A

a. Evidence-based practice

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34
Q

What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?

a. Depth jumps
b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
c. Box jump-down with stabilization
d. Squat jump with stabilization

A

d. Squat jump with stabilization

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35
Q

What are the three macronutrients?

a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids
d. Carbohydrates, protein, and vitamins

A

b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids

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36
Q

To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?

a. Fewer exercises
b. Decreased intensity
c. Decreased rest periods
d. Increased complexity of exercises

A

c. Decreased rest periods

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37
Q

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension?

a. Ball bridge
b. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver
c. Standing cable hip extension
d. Floor bridge

A

c. Standing cable hip extension

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38
Q

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?

a. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.
b. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels.
c. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and cortisol levels.
d. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels.

A

a. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.

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39
Q

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?

a. Free hydrogen ions
b. Lack of pyruvate
c. Lack of fatty acids
d. Depletion of phosphocreatine

A

a. Free hydrogen ions

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40
Q

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?

a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
c. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds

A

b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

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41
Q

What statement best describes a low-cost health club?

a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
c. A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

A

b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

42
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

a. Plank
b. Dead bug
c. Back extension
d. Medicine ball overhead throw

A

c. Back extension

43
Q

Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?

a. Emotional support
b. Instrumental support
c. Companionship support
d. Informational support

A

d. Informational support

44
Q

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?

a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
b. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
c. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
d. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors

A

a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

45
Q

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?

a. Erector spinae
b. Transverse abdominis
c. External obliques
d. Diaphragm

A

b. Transverse abdominis

46
Q

Which joints are most associated with human movement?

a. Nonsynovial
b. Nonaxial
c. Saddle
d. Synovial

A

d. Synovial

47
Q

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 5%
d. 30%

A

a. 10%

48
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?

a. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.
b. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.
c. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
d. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.

A

c. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

49
Q

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?

a. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
c. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

A

d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

50
Q

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon?

a. Archimedes’ principle
b. All-or-nothing principle
c. Davis’s principle
d. Principle of specificity

A

a. Archimedes’ principle

51
Q

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?

a. Muscular Development Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
d. Maximal Strength Training

A

d. Maximal Strength Training

52
Q

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?

a. 0.1
b. 0.5
c. 0.4
d. 0.25

A

b. 0.5

53
Q

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?

a. Stomach
b. Large intestine
c. Esophagus
d. Small intestine

A

d. Small intestine

54
Q

Which of the following is magnesium classified as?

a. Macronutrient
b. Vitamin
c. Macromineral
d. Trace mineral

A

c. Macromineral

55
Q

What is the name of the stored form of glucose?

a. Pyruvate
b. Triglycerides
c. Glycogen
d. Glycolysis

A

c. Glycogen

56
Q

What is stroke volume?

a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

A

c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

57
Q

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults?

a. Joint stability
b. The environment
c. Ligament integrity
d. Muscle strength

A

b. The environment

58
Q

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?

a. Aqua therapy
b. Stable floor environment
c. Biomechanical ankle platform system
d. Weight training

A

c. Biomechanical ankle platform system

59
Q

What statement best describes a premium health club?

a. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses
b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

A

b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

60
Q

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

a. Anterior pelvic tilt
b. Lateral pelvic tilt
c. Posterior pelvic tilt
d. Medial pelvic tilt

A

a. Anterior pelvic tilt

61
Q

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?

a. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
b. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions.
c. Jumping down lessens force deceleration.
d. Jumping down requires more concentric force control.

A

a. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

62
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?

a. Power
b. Speed
c. Strength
d. Neuromuscular stabilization

A

d. Neuromuscular stabilization

63
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Hamstrings complex
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Hip flexors

A

d. Hip flexors

64
Q

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?

a. Essential and nonessential amino acids
b. Essential amino acids only
c. Peptide bonds
d. Carbon molecules

A

a. Essential and nonessential amino acids

65
Q

What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete?

a. A parent says training is okay.
b. The athlete can perform complex stage 3 balance exercises first.
c. No balance training should be conducted following an injury.
d. The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

A

d. The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

66
Q

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?

a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 3

A

b. Phase 5

67
Q

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?

a. Loaded movements
b. Closed-chain movements
c. Open-chain movements
d. Suspended bodyweight movements

A

b. Closed-chain movements

68
Q

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?

a. Inhibition
b. Drawing in
c. Bracing
d. Isolating

A

c. Bracing

69
Q

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?

a. Phase 4 Maximal Strength
b. Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance
c. Phase 3 Muscular Development
d. Phase 5 Power

A

d. Phase 5 Power

70
Q

At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?

a. 22
b. 30
c. 25
d. 18

A

c. 25

71
Q

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?

a. YMCA 3-minute step test
b. Rockport walk test
c. V̇O2max
d. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

A

c. V̇O2max

72
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?

a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
b. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

A

d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

73
Q

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?

a. Sports participation
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Athletic injuries

A

d. Athletic injuries

74
Q

A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue?

a. ADP was depleted.
b. Phosphocreatine was depleted.
c. Glycogen stores were exhausted.
d. Fatty acid stores were exhausted.

A

c. Glycogen stores were exhausted.

75
Q

How are dietary supplements defined?

a. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients
b. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders
c. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals
d. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

A

d. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

76
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?

a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation

A

c. Maintenance

77
Q

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

a. Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
b. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.
c. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones.
d. Compression of the myofascia “tightens” the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.

A

a. Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

78
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

a. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
b. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
c. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.
d. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

A

d. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

79
Q

The intensity and direction of someone’s effort describes which of the following?

a. Motivation
b. Aspiration
c. Initiative
d. Ambition

A

a. Motivation

80
Q

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?

a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement.
b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand.

A

c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

81
Q

What are the components of ATP?

a. Adenine, glucose, and one phosphate group
b. Adenine, ribose, and two phosphate groups
c. Adenine, amino acids, and three phosphate groups
d. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

A

d. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

82
Q

What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime?

a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 90%
d. 30%

A

b. 80%

83
Q

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?

a. Exercise modality
b. Duration of each stage
c. Environmental temperature
d. Talk test

A

c. Environmental temperature

84
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Hamstrings complex
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Hip flexor complex

A

d. Hip flexor complex

85
Q

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?

a. Static posture assessment
b. Dynamic posture assessment
c. Performance assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

c. Performance assessment

86
Q

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?

a. Plasma
b. White blood cells
c. Red blood cells
d. Platelets

A

d. Platelets

87
Q

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions?

a. Collagen synthesis only
b. Collagen synthesis and immunity
c. Immunity only
d. Increasing bone density

A

b. Collagen synthesis and immunity

88
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase?

a. Stability
b. Muscular endurance
c. Rate of force production
d. Muscle growth

A

c. Rate of force production

89
Q

What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?

a. Rotator cuff tear
b. Shoulder impingement
c. Frozen shoulder
d. Dislocation of the shoulder

A

b. Shoulder impingement

90
Q

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?

a. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
b. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine
c. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine
d. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine

A

a. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

91
Q

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

a. 24 hours
b. 1 week
c. 12 hours
d. 48 to 72 hours

A

d. 48 to 72 hours

92
Q

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?

a. Self-monitoring
b. Coping planning
c. Enlisting social support
d. Action planning

A

a. Self-monitoring

93
Q

Core stability is best described as:

a. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
b. The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension
c. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine
d. The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance

A

a. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

94
Q

Which of the following is a question that may promote change?

a. What might you want to change?
b. Why don’t you just do this?
c. Why can’t you make this change to your schedule?
d. What makes you think that you’re not at risk?

A

a. What might you want to change?

95
Q

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality?

a. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations.
b. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.
c. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.
d. Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises.

A

b. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

96
Q

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?

a. Mechanoreceptor
b. Action potential
c. Nociceptor
d. Neurotransmitter

A

c. Nociceptor

97
Q

What types of foods contain carbohydrates?

a. All foods
b. Animal and plant foods
c. Plant foods and dairy
d. Proteins

A

c. Plant foods and dairy

98
Q

Which is involved in frontside mechanics?

a. Ankle plantar flexion
b. Lead leg
c. Rear leg
d. Knee extension

A

b. Lead leg

99
Q

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?

a. Cognitive fusion
b. Reverse listing
c. Acceptance
d. Stopping

A

a. Cognitive fusion

100
Q

What does the term evidence-based practice refer to?

a. A subjective decision-making model
b. A systematic training and development model of certification
c. The use of anecdotal data
d. The conscientious use of current research in making decisions

A

d. The conscientious use of current research in making decisions

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