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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 12 > Flashcards

Deck 12 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?

a. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
b. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
c. Davis’s law and Wolf’s law
d. Pain response and muscle spasm

A

a. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

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2
Q

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?

a. Planning
b. Subjective norms
c. Action self-efficacy
d. Outcome expectations

A

a. Planning

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3
Q

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?

a. Sagittal plane box jump-down
b. Frontal plane box jump-up
c. Transverse plane box jump-down
d. Sagittal plane box jump-up

A

c. Transverse plane box jump-down

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4
Q

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?

a. Normal
b. Stage 1 hypertension
c. Elevated
d. Stage 2 hypertension

A

c. Elevated

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5
Q

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?

a. Hearing system
b. Vestibular system
c. Visual system
d. Somatosensory system

A

d. Somatosensory system

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6
Q

What two factors define any form or type of exercise?

a. Duration and time
b. Intensity and speed
c. Intensity and duration
d. Speed and complexity

A

c. Intensity and duration

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7
Q

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?

a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
b. A steady-state intensity would be used.
c. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source.
d. Fat would be the main energy source.

A

a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

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8
Q

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?

a. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.

A

b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

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9
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

a. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Medial pelvic tilt
c. Lateral pelvic tilt
d. Anterior pelvic tilt

A

a. Posterior pelvic tilt

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10
Q

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?

a. 0.85
b. 1.04
c. 0.97
d. 1.18

A

a. 0.85

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11
Q

Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like?

a. Mindlessness
b. Intensity
c. Accountability
d. Consistency

A

d. Consistency

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12
Q

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?

a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight
b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
c. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight
d. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight

A

b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

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13
Q

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

a. Visual system
b. Hearing system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Vestibular system

A

d. Vestibular system

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14
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?

a. Core strength
b. Postural alignment
c. Maximal muscular strength
d. Rate of force production

A

b. Postural alignment

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15
Q

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom?

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
c. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)
d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

A

b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

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16
Q

Creatine is most effective for what purpose?

a. Improving heart health
b. Improving endurance
c. Damaging the kidneys
d. Improving strength and muscle size

A

d. Improving strength and muscle size

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17
Q

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

a. Heart
b. Nerves
c. Soft tissue
d. Bone

A

b. Nerves

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18
Q

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?

a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

A

d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

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19
Q

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle?

a. Linear
b. Mesocycle
c. Undulating
d. Macrocycle

A

c. Undulating

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20
Q

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Arteriosclerosis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Atherosclerosis

A

d. Atherosclerosis

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21
Q

What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?

a. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA
b. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training
c. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals
d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category

A

d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category

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22
Q

Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?

a. Alternative medicine
b. Behavioral health
c. Physical therapy
d. Preventive care

A

d. Preventive care

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23
Q

What are the two components of a sarcomere?

a. Epimysium and endomysium
b. Muscle fiber and muscle cell
c. Tropomyosin and troponin
d. Actin and myosin

A

d. Actin and myosin

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24
Q

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?

a. Isometrically contracted
b. Eccentrically contracted
c. Relaxed
d. Concentrically contracted

A

a. Isometrically contracted

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25
Q

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?

a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
b. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
c. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula
d. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion

A

a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

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26
Q

What are the fat-soluble vitamins?

a. B12, B6, and C
b. A, B12, C, and D
c. A, D, E, and K
d. C, D, and K

A

c. A, D, E, and K

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27
Q

During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response?

a. Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports.
b. Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer.
c. Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions.
d. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.

A

d. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.

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28
Q

How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?

a. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
d. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips

A

c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

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29
Q

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?

a. Activation
b. Resistance
c. Client’s choice
d. Cool-down

A

c. Client’s choice

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30
Q

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes
c. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes
d. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds

A

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

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31
Q

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?

a. Osteoporosis
b. Cancer
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Heart disease and diabetes

A

d. Heart disease and diabetes

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32
Q

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

a. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
b. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
c. It decreases core muscle activation.
d. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

A

d. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

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33
Q

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?

a. Foot injury
b. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
c. Patellar fracture
d. Shoulder injury

A

b. Anterior cruciate ligament injury

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34
Q

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?

a. Utilizing supersets during training
b. Improving the rate of force production
c. Focusing on improving muscular growth
d. Mastering basic movement patterns

A

d. Mastering basic movement patterns

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35
Q

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?

a. The absence of perturbations
b. Both feet on the floor
c. A stable floor
d. Correct technique

A

d. Correct technique

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36
Q

Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what?

a. Mineral toxicity
b. Rapid weight gain
c. Increased bone growth
d. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

A

d. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

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37
Q

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

a. 125 minutes per week
b. 150 minutes per week
c. 75 minutes per week
d. 300 minutes per week

A

b. 150 minutes per week

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38
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?

a. Hip flexors
b. Adductor complex
c. Upper trapezius
d. Lower trapezius

A

c. Upper trapezius

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39
Q

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?

a. Complex training
b. Pyramid system
c. Superset system
d. Multiple-set system

A

b. Pyramid system

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40
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?

a. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective.
c. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.
d. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.

A

a. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

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41
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?

a. Maintenance
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Action

A

d. Action

42
Q

What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs?

a. They act as shock absorbers.
b. They provide support for the head.
c. They support most of the body’s weight and are attached to many back muscles.
d. They minimize movement of the spine.

A

a. They act as shock absorbers.

43
Q

What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work?

a. Glucose
b. Fat
c. ADP
d. ATP

A

d. ATP

44
Q

A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

a. Give him a diabetic meal plan that you find on the internet.
b. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
c. Agree to review his diet and provide him with specific dietary guidelines on what foods to eat and what to avoid.
d. Say that you cannot help him because this is a medical issue, and tell him he needs to follow up with his doctor again.

A

b. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

45
Q

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?

a. Isometric contraction
b. Stretch reflex
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Autogenic inhibition

A

c. Reciprocal inhibition

46
Q

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?

a. Linear periodization
b. Undulating periodization
c. Direct periodization
d. Localized periodization

A

b. Undulating periodization

47
Q

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?

a. Balance exercise
b. Plyometric exercise
c. Strength-focused exercise
d. Stabilization-focused exercise

A

d. Stabilization-focused exercise

48
Q

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?

a. It helps transmit the motor signal.
b. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
c. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
d. It converts ADP back to ATP.

A

c. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

49
Q

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?

a. 0.4
b. 0.8
c. 0.5
d. 0.6

A

d. 0.6

50
Q

Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?

a. Type I
b. Type Ia
c. Type II
d. Type III

A

c. Type II

51
Q

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?

a. Sports skills
b. Phases
c. Movement patterns
d. Exercises

A

c. Movement patterns

52
Q

For what is vitamin D most important?

a. Skin pigmentation
b. Eyesight
c. Hair growth
d. Bone health

A

d. Bone health

53
Q

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?

a. Volume
b. Recovery
c. Intensity
d. Frequency

A

c. Intensity

54
Q

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?

a. Recovery
b. Volume
c. Frequency
d. Intensity

A

b. Volume

55
Q

Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?

a. Organelles
b. Electrolytes
c. Mitochondria
d. Effector sites

A

c. Mitochondria

56
Q

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming?

a. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes
b. Reduced risk of ankle sprains
c. Improved proprioception or body awareness
d. Reduced risk of falls

A

a. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

57
Q

What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?

a. Supportive shoes
b. Balance plates
c. Uneven surfaces
d. Soft mats

A

a. Supportive shoes

58
Q

What concept describes how the function of one segment of the body can impact other areas?

a. The imaginary plane theory
b. The all-or-nothing principle
c. The force-couple relationship
c. The regional interdependence model

A

c. The regional interdependence model

59
Q

When did modern-day nutritional supplements originate?

a. 1920s
b. 1940s
c. 1960s
d. 1980s

A

b. 1940s

60
Q

Where was the first multivitamin product developed?

a. London
b. Taiwan
c. China
d. Mexico City

A

c. China

61
Q

Who enforces guidelines for dietary supplements in the United States?

a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

62
Q

What term is used to describe any unfavorable medical occurrence associated with the use of a medication, medical intervention, or dietary supplement?

a. Adverse effect
b. Allergic reaction
c. Physiological reaction
d. Negative corollary

A

a. Adverse effect

63
Q

Into what two categories are dietary supplements typically classified?

a. Vitamin supplements and mineral supplements
b. Banned substances and unbanned substances
c. Anabolic supplements and synthetic supplements
d. Health supplements and performance supplements

A

d. Health supplements and performance supplements

64
Q

Regarding human nutrition, how many of the 20 relevant amino acids are considered nonessential amino acids?

a. 5
b. 9
c. 11
d. 15

A

c. 11

65
Q

Which of the following amino acids are referred to as branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs)?

a. Lysine, proline, and serine
b. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
c. Cysteine, glutamine, and glycine
d. Methionine, arginine, and glycine

A

b. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine

66
Q

What is the most common, and likely most effective form of creatine available as a dietary supplement?

a. Creatine citrate
b. Creatine malate
c. Creatine phosphate
d. Creatine monohydrate

A

d. Creatine monohydrate

67
Q

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?

a. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases.
c. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

A

d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

68
Q

What is the official term for a statement that maintains that a food has a specific nutritional property or provides a specific benefit?

a. Food claim
b. Nutrition fact
c. Nutrition claim
d. Food allegation

A

c. Nutrition claim

69
Q

What term is used to describe a protein source that provides all essential amino acids?

a. Primary protein
b. Tertiary protein
c. Essential protein
d. Complete protein

A

d. Complete protein

70
Q

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?

a. Agility
b. Quickness
c. Stride rate
d. Speed

A

a. Agility

71
Q

What term describes the measure of how quickly a carbohydrate will raise an individual’s glucose levels when consumed on its own, irrespective of the amount eaten?

a. Solubility
b. Glycemic load
c. Glycemic index
d. Carbohydrate synthesis

A

c. Glycemic index

72
Q

What is the optimal ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids in the diet?

a. Less than 2:1
b. About 4:1
c. 10:1
d. 20:1

A

b. About 4:1

73
Q

What enzyme is responsible for most of the breakdown of ingested lipids into fatty acids?

a. Protease
b. Amylase
c. Lingual lipase
d. Lipoprotein lipase

A

d. Lipoprotein lipase

74
Q

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?

a. Stabilization
b. Amortization
c. Concentric
d. Eccentric

A

b. Amortization

75
Q

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?

a. 0.22
b. 0.92
c. 0.62
d. 0.72

A

d. 0.72

76
Q

How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?

a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 1
d. 0.5

A

a. 0.1

77
Q

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways?

a. Neuroplasticity
b. Neuromotor skills
c. Remodeling
d. Neurocircuitry

A

a. Neuroplasticity

78
Q

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?

a. Letting the knees cave inward
b. Performing reps as quickly as possible
c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes
d. Letting feet turn out for support

A

c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes

79
Q

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?

a. Small circuits
b. Steady-state treadmill workouts
c. Heart rate cardio
d. Long continuous runs

A

a. Small circuits

80
Q

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?

a. Force velocity
b. Force
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Torque

A

d. Torque

81
Q

What type of health concern is the leading cause of death in the world today?

a. Injuries
b. Chronic diseases and conditions
c. Acute diseases
d. Alcohol

A

b. Chronic diseases and conditions

82
Q

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?

a. Isometric
b. Concentric
c. Isokinetic
d. Eccentric

A

c. Isokinetic

83
Q

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?

a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training

A

a. Power Training

84
Q

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

a. Ice skaters
b. Box jumps
c. Depth jumps
d. Single-leg hops

A

c. Depth jumps

85
Q

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?

a. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2
b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
c. Below VT1
d. Above VT2

A

b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

86
Q

For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?

a. Movement quality
b. Movement speed
c. Movement intensity
d. Movement quantity

A

a. Movement quality

87
Q

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?

a. Conditioning phase
b. Warm-up phase
c. Cool-down phase
d. Interval phase

A

d. Interval phase

88
Q

Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?

a. Lack of social support
b. Lack of energy
c. Lack of time
d. Lack of enjoyment

A

c. Lack of time

89
Q

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?

a. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise.
b. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion.
c. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting.
d. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

A

d. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

90
Q

Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy?

a. The fetus will be harmed by decreased oxygen supply during physical activity.
b. The fetus will be harmed by increased blood circulation during physical activity.
c. Most recreational pursuits are inappropriate for pregnant women.
d. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

A

d. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

91
Q

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?

a. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.
b. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
c. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity.
d. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms.

A

b. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

92
Q

What are the building blocks of body proteins?

a. Amino acids
b. Ketone bodies
c. Glucose
d. Triglycerides

A

a. Amino acids

93
Q

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?

a. Asymmetrical resistance loading
b. Feed-forward activation
c. Integrative function
d. Proprioceptively enriched environment

A

d. Proprioceptively enriched environment

94
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?

a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Maintenance
d. Action

A

b. Preparation

95
Q

Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

a. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems
b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
c. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems
d. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems

A

b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

96
Q

Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?

a. Salmon
b. Beef
c. Milk
d. Grilled chicken

A

a. Salmon

97
Q

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

a. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.
b. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
c. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.
d. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate.

A

b. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

98
Q

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?

a. Plantar fasciitis
b. A sprain
c. Patellar tendonitis
d. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear

A

a. Plantar fasciitis

99
Q

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis?

a. Vitamins
b. Caffeine
c. The essential amino acids
d. Minerals

A

c. The essential amino acids

100
Q

What are the basic two types of disease?

a. Acute and contagious
b. Chronic and noncommunicable
c. Chronic and acute
d. Chronic and not contagious

A

c. Chronic and acute

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