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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 6 > Flashcards

Deck 6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

a. Type IIa
b. Type Iic
c. Type IIb
d. Type I

A

d. Type I

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2
Q

Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer’s scope of practice is accurate?

a. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally.
b. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
c. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice.
d. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice.

A

b. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.

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3
Q

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client’s strengths?

a. Collecting summaries
b. Reflections
c. Transitional summaries
d. Affirmations

A

d. Affirmations

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4
Q

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action?

a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric

A

b. Eccentric

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5
Q

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?

a. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue
b. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue
c. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue
d. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue

A

c. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

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6
Q

When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of?

a. Rags and cleaning supplies
b. The vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean during the shift
c. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member
d. The remote control for the TVs or sound system

A

c. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

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7
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?

a. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure
b. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
c. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake
d. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure

A

b. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

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8
Q

What is the primary action of the multifidus?

a. Stabilize and extend the spine
b. Regulate inspiration
c. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
d. Support the contents of the pelvis

A

a. Stabilize and extend the spine

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9
Q

The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called?

a. Excitation-contraction coupling
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Fight-or-flight response
d. Homeostasis

A

d. Homeostasis

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10
Q

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?

a. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change.
b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.
c. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline.
d. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels.

A

b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

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11
Q

Calcium is of principal importance for what?

a. Maintaining a strong immune system
b. Nutrient absorption
c. Maintaining strong bones
d. Clearing toxins

A

c. Maintaining strong bones

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12
Q

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?

a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking
d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

A

b. The approximate midpoint of the body

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13
Q

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?

a. Tell them no.
b. Tell them it could help with their training.
c. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use.
d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

A

d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

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14
Q

When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body’s general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function?

a. Proprioception
b. Stretch reflex
c. Neuroplasticity
d. Wolff’s law

A

a. Proprioception

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15
Q

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?

a. Dual-foot drills
b. Side-to-side hops
c. Sport skills
d. Depth jumps

A

a. Dual-foot drills

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16
Q

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?

a. Intrinsic core musculature
b. Anterior chain
c. Deep cervical flexors
d. Posterior chain

A

d. Posterior chain

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17
Q

Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?

a. Confusion
b. Unequivocal
c. Ambiguity
d. Ambivalence

A

d. Ambivalence

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18
Q

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?

a. Handstand push-up
b. Leg press
c. Sit-ups
d. Chin-ups

A

a. Handstand push-up

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19
Q

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

a. Rhomboids
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Diaphragm
d. Upper trapezius

A

b. Sternocleidomastoid

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20
Q

What is the definition of energy balance?

a. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown
b. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout
c. When daily food intake is consistent
d. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

A

d. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

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21
Q

A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight. What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?

a. The diet seems simple enough to maintain for a period of time and facilitate some weight loss.
b. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.
c. The limited diet sounds like a good plan to limit extra calories from other foods.
d. The chicken and rice combination seems adequate to provide caloric, macronutrient, and micronutrient needs.

A

b. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.

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22
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

a. Unloading phase
b. Loading phase
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Amortization phase

A

c. Stretch-shortening cycle

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23
Q

What is a common cause of chronic hypertension?

a. Vigorous exercise
b. 1,500 mg of sodium per day
c. Excess weight
d. A low-fat diet

A

c. Excess weight

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24
Q

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone’s decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?

a. Group influence
b. Societal influence
c. Peer pressure
d. Health influence

A

a. Group influence

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25
Q

What should be the first step in a client’s program after the assessment?

a. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program
b. Designing the flexibility portion of the program
c. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate
d. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss

A

b. Designing the flexibility portion of the program

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26
Q

What is the definition of kinesiophobia?

a. Fear of heights
b. Fear of standing
c. Fear of stairs
d. Fear of movement

A

d. Fear of movement

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27
Q

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?

a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
b. Cranium and facial bones
c. Scapula and humerus
d. Sternum and clavicle

A

a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

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28
Q

Which of the following is a ketone body?

a. Pyruvate
b. Acetoacetic acid
c. Glycogen
d. Lactic acid

A

b. Acetoacetic acid

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29
Q

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system?

a. Coronary
b. Vascular
c. Digestive
d. Muscular

A

d. Muscular

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30
Q

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?

a. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month.
b. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
c. I want to lose 20 pounds.
d. I want to lose weight.

A

b. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

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31
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

a. Overhead press
b. Push-up test
c. Pushing assessment
d. Bench press strength assessment

A

b. Push-up test

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32
Q

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?

a. Type I
b. Type IIa
c. Type III
d. Type IIx

A

a. Type I

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33
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?

a. 15 to 60 seconds
b. 0 to 15 seconds
c. 90 to 120 seconds
d. 60 to 90 seconds

A

a. 15 to 60 seconds

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34
Q

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?

a. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement
b. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities
c. Stabilize vertebral segments
d. Move the trunk

A

c. Stabilize vertebral segments

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35
Q

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?

a. 3 or 4 sessions per week
b. 0 sessions per week
c. 1 or 2 sessions per week
d. 5 to 7 sessions per week

A

c. 1 or 2 sessions per week

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36
Q

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

a. Sagittal plane
b. Thoracic spine
c. Lumbar spine
d. Frontal plane

A

b. Thoracic spine

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37
Q

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?

a. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
b. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror
c. When someone has anxiety about social situations
d. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity

A

a. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

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38
Q

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?

a. Phase 5
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 3

A

c. Phase 4

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39
Q

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?

a. An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals
b. Overall level of physical fitness
c. Body fat and lean mass composition
d. Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height

A

d. Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height

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40
Q

What is acidosis in muscle?

a. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
b. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
c. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

A

d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

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41
Q

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?

a. Steady-state aerobic training
b. High-impact activity
c. Low-impact activity
d. Proprioceptive training

A

c. Low-impact activity

42
Q

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?

a. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer.
b. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
c. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column.
d. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis.

A

b. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

43
Q

Which of the following is true of protein shakes?

a. They are dangerous and should be avoided.
b. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.
c. They are required to build muscle.
d. They are a poor choice for recovery.

A

b. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

44
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?

a. Medicine ball
b. ViPR
c. Sandbag
d. Kettlebell

A

a. Medicine ball

45
Q

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.

a. Loaded
b. Unilateral
c. Bilateral
d. Proprioceptive

A

b. Unilateral

46
Q

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

a. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
b. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest
c. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck
d. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

A

d. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

47
Q

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?

a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
b. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity.
c. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.
d. Biologically active forms are less efficient.

A

a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

48
Q

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?

a. Rectus abdominis
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Gluteus medius
d. Erector spinae

A

d. Erector spinae

49
Q

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?

a. Ball squat
b. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
c. Multiplanar step-up
d. Squat, curl to two-arm press

A

d. Squat, curl to two-arm press

50
Q

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?

a. Strength machines
b. BOSU balls
c. Medicine balls
d. Suspended bodyweight trainers

A

c. Medicine balls

51
Q

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?

a. 600 to 700 kcal
b. 100 to 150 kcal
c. 25 to 75 kcal
d. 200 to 300 kcal

A

d. 200 to 300 kcal

52
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

a. Upper trapezius
b. Hip flexors
c. Gluteus maximus and medius
d. Adductor complex

A

d. Adductor complex

53
Q

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?

a. 2 seconds
b. 1 second
c. 3 seconds
d. 4 seconds

A

a. 2 seconds

54
Q

What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success?

a. A unique selling proposition (USP)
b. Forecasting
c. Building rapport
d. A SWOT analysis

A

d. A SWOT analysis

55
Q

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?

a. Vestibular function
b. Sensory function
c. Neuromuscular function
d. Afferent nerve function

A

c. Neuromuscular function

56
Q

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

a. 75 minutes per week
b. 60 minutes per week
c. 90 minutes per week
d. 120 minutes per week

A

a. 75 minutes per week

57
Q

Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement?

a. Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar
b. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
c. Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic
d. Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs

A

b. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs

58
Q

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?

a. About 5-15%
b. About 50%
c. About 30%
d. About 90%

A

a. About 5-15%

59
Q

A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?

a. Imagery
b. Self-monitoring
c. Goal setting
d. Contemplation

A

b. Self-monitoring

60
Q

Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids?

a. Anti-inflammatory properties
b. Increased energy
c. Proinflammatory properties
d. Improved thyroid function

A

a. Anti-inflammatory properties

61
Q

What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?

a. Left bundle branch
b. Intercalated discs
c. Internodal pathway
d. Right bundle branch

A

c. Internodal pathway

62
Q

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.

a. Maintenance
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Contemplation

A

b. Preparation

63
Q

What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
b. Metabolic rate is constant.
c. All energy is converted to heat.
d. Food increases metabolic rate.

A

a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

64
Q

Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations?

a. Working in a nonprofit facility
b. Working as an in-home independent personal trainer
c. Conducting online coaching and personal training
d. Hosting boot camps in a local park

A

c. Conducting online coaching and personal training

65
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

a. Tuck jump
b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
c. Butt kick
d. Power step-up

A

b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

66
Q

How often does an NASM Certified Personal Trainer need to renew their certification?

a. Every 5 years
b. Every year
c. Every 3 years
d. Every 2 years

A

d. Every 2 years

67
Q

Why is the hurdler’s stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?

a. The stretch is too complicated for the new client.
b. The stretch is too advanced for the average person.
c. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles.
d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

A

d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

68
Q

What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?

a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteopenia
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

d. Rheumatoid arthritis

69
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?

a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
b. Involves training multiple styles each week
c. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
d. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis

A

a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

70
Q

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?

a. Overtraining syndrome
b. Eccentric overload
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

A

c. Altered reciprocal inhibition

71
Q

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?

a. Dynamic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Self-myofascial techniques
d. Active stretching

A

c. Self-myofascial techniques

72
Q

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?

a. Release of stored energy during concentric phase
b. Absent stretch reflex
c. Rapid amortization phase
d. Prolonged amortization phase

A

c. Rapid amortization phase

73
Q

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

a. Core stability
b. Balance
c. Motor unit recruitment
d. Overall base strength

A

c. Motor unit recruitment

74
Q

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?

a. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
b. A cadence of 36 steps per minute
c. A cadence of 60 steps per minute
d. A cadence of 112 steps per minute

A

a. A cadence of 96 steps per minute

75
Q

What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client?

a. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
b. Agreeing to call the potential client in 2 days to follow up
c. Swapping social media handles so the trainer and client can follow each other
d. Asking the member for a personal phone number to use to follow up via texting

A

a. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session

76
Q

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

a. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
b. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
d. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed

A

c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

77
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

a. Pulling assessment
b. Bench press strength assessment
c. Overhead press assessment
d. Pushing assessment

A

b. Bench press strength assessment

78
Q

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents?

a. Exercise groups
b. The community
c. Parents
d. Peers

A

c. Parents

79
Q

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?

a. Ankle stability
b. Increased amortization
c. Concentric contractions
d. Eccentric loading

A

d. Eccentric loading

80
Q

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Lower trapezius
c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula

81
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?

a. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
b. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
c. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
d. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

A

b. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

82
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?

a. Static balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. Motion balance

A

a. Static balance

83
Q

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

a. Hip flexors
b. Hip abductors
c. Hip internal rotators
d. Hip extensors

A

b. Hip abductors

84
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?

a. Deceleration
b. Reaction to a signal
c. Acceleration
d. Changing directions

A

b. Reaction to a signal

85
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?

a. Bird dog
b. Reverse crunch
c. Medicine ball woodchop throw
d. Cable chop

A

c. Medicine ball woodchop throw

86
Q

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

A

d. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

87
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?

a. Hypoxia
b. Pulmonary hypoplasia
c. Dyspnea
d. Pneumonia

A

c. Dyspnea

88
Q

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together?

a. Scapular elevation
b. Scapular depression
c. Scapular protraction
d. Scapular retraction

A

d. Scapular retraction

89
Q

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?

a. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
b. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength
c. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power
d. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance

A

a. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

90
Q

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?

a. WHR of 0.83
b. WHR of 0.88
c. WHR of 0.78
d. WHR of 0.72

A

b. WHR of 0.88

91
Q

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?

a. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual

A

a. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

92
Q

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?

a. Decreased fat loss
b. Increased rate of power decline
c. Decreased hormonal function
d. Improved sleep

A

d. Improved sleep

93
Q

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?

a. No more than 10% of body weight
b. 16 to 20% of body weight
c. At least 21% of body weight
d. 11 to 15% of body weight

A

a. No more than 10% of body weight

94
Q

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?

a. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
c. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout
d. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes

A

a. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

95
Q

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

a. Beta-oxidation
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. The ATP-PC system
d. Glycolysis

A

b. Oxidative phosphorylation

96
Q

What are nonessential amino acids?

a. Amino acids that must be consumed in dietary protein and cannot be created by the body
b. Amino acids that are not required in the body
c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
d. The by-product of the breakdown of animal proteins

A

c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

97
Q

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?

a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

A

d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

98
Q

In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?

a. Dairy and shellfish
b. Soy and aspartame
c. Peas and peanuts
d. Gluten and corn

A

a. Dairy and shellfish

99
Q

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

a. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
b. What makes you think you are not at risk?
c. What might work for you?
d. What might you want to change?

A

b. What makes you think you are not at risk?

100
Q

Which of the following is a waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells?

a. Visceral fat
b. Cholesterol
c. Triglycerides
d. Epithelial tissue

A

b. Cholesterol

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