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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 7 > Flashcards

Deck 7 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which statement best demonstrates empathy?

a. I think you will feel healthier once you finally lose some weight.
b. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.
c. If you spend more time in the gym, you will reach your goals faster.
d. I don’t understand why you think it’s so hard to do 30 minutes of cardio 3 times a week.

A

b. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?

a. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
b. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
c. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.
d. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

A

d. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

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3
Q

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?

a. 118/78 mm Hg
b. 143/92 mm Hg
c. 135/80 mm Hg
d. 124/80 mm Hg

A

c. 135/80 mm Hg

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4
Q

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?

a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
b. Leg region
c. Scapular region
d. Back region

A

a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

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5
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

a. Quadriceps
b. Biceps brachii
c. Triceps brachii
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

c. Triceps brachii

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6
Q

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?

a. Increased end-systolic volume
b. Increased heart rate
c. Decreased heart rate
d. Decreased stroke volume

A

b. Increased heart rate

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7
Q

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?

a. Rate of force production
b. Muscular endurance
c. Muscular hypertrophy
d. Stabilization

A

b. Muscular endurance

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8
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

a. Gluteus maximus and medius
b. Lower trapezius
c. Adductor complex
d. Tensor fascia latae

A

a. Gluteus maximus and medius

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9
Q

What is defined as an individual’s level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage?

a. Training frequency
b. Training duration
c. Training volume
d. Training intensity

A

d. Training intensity

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10
Q

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

a. Stage 3
b. Stage 5
c. Stage 2
d. Stage 4

A

c. Stage 2

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11
Q

What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement?

a. Kinetic chain
b. Nervous system
c. Proprioception
d. Golgi tendon organ

A

a. Kinetic chain

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12
Q

What term describes the process of building a relationship based on communication and trust?

a. Developing a unique selling proposition (USP)
b. Forecasting
c. Working the floor
d. Building rapport

A

d. Building rapport

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13
Q

How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process?

a. The questions are easy for the customer to answer, as they can be answered with a simple yes or no.
b. The questions help a personal trainer learn if the customer’s workout schedule fits within the personal trainer’s availability.
c. The questions help a personal trainer learn about a customer’s family medical history.
d. The questions identify the customer’s wants, needs, fears, and desires.

A

d. The questions identify the customer’s wants, needs, fears, and desires.

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14
Q

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?

a. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.
b. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.
c. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.
d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

A

d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

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15
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

a. 7 to 8 sets
b. 1 or 2 sets
c. 3 or 4 sets
d. 5 or 6 sets

A

c. 3 or 4 sets

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16
Q

Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?

a. Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion
b. The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
c. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
d. The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement

A

c. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements

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17
Q

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?

a. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
b. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
d. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability

A

c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

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18
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?

a. Healthy weight
b. Obese
c. Class II obesity
d. Overweight

A

d. Overweight

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19
Q

According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?

a. Stability
b. Endurance
c. Mobility
d. Proper movement

A

b. Endurance

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20
Q

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?

a. Muscle imbalance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Length-tension relationship

A

b. Reciprocal inhibition

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21
Q

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?

a. Series elastic component
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

b. Stretch-shortening cycle

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22
Q

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Dynamic posture assessment
c. Static posture assessment
d. Performance assessment

A

c. Static posture assessment

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23
Q

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?

a. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods
c. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods
d. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods

A

a. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

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24
Q

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?

a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
b. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head
c. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders
d. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck

A

a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

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25
Q

What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach?

a. Depressions
b. Processes
c. Bone spurs
d. Sulcus

A

b. Processes

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26
Q

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

a. At least 4 times a week
b. At least 5 times a week
c. At least 3 times a week
d. At least 2 times a week

A

c. At least 3 times a week

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27
Q

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?

a. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion
b. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
c. Increased mobility and balance
d. Increased muscle strength and speed

A

b. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

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28
Q

Which of the following is a component of agility training?

a. Deceleration
b. Reaction
c. Assessment of visual stimuli
d. Stride rate

A

a. Deceleration

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29
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

a. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion
b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion
d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

A

d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

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30
Q

Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?

a. 120/60 mm Hg
b. 80/120 mm Hg
c. 125/75 mm Hg
d. 120/80 mm Hg

A

d. 120/80 mm Hg

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31
Q

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.

a. Performance
b. Injury resistance
c. Rehabilitation
d. Posture

A

b. Injury resistance

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32
Q

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training?

a. Standing exercises on a gym floor
b. Exercises with free weights
c. Exercises using selectorized machines
d. Seated exercises

A

b. Exercises with free weights

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33
Q

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?

a. 3 to 5 reps
b. 1 or 2 reps
c. 6 to 8 reps
d. 8 to 10 reps

A

a. 3 to 5 reps

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34
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Adductor complex

A

b. Gluteus maximus and medius

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35
Q

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed?

a. Acute variables
b. Periodization
c. Training plan
d. Macrocycle

A

c. Training plan

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36
Q

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

a. Osteokinematics
b. Kinesiology
c. Biomechanics
d. Arthrokinematics

A

d. Arthrokinematics

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37
Q

Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement?

a. Standing overhead press
b. Davies test
c. Standing push assessment
d. Standing pull assessment

A

c. Standing push assessment

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38
Q

Which of the following describes attitude?

a. A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior
b. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
c. A person’s confidence in their ability to meet their goal
d. The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior

A

b. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior

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39
Q

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?

a. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
b. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
c. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
d. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension

A

b. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

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40
Q

What are the two components of the central nervous system?

a. The nerves and sensory receptors
b. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
c. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems
d. The brain and spinal cord

A

d. The brain and spinal cord

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41
Q

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?

a. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal.
b. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day.
c. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea.
d. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

A

d. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

42
Q

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

a. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion
b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
c. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg
d. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg

A

b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

43
Q

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?

a. Action phase
b. Transformation phase
c. Baseline value
d. Set point

A

c. Baseline value

44
Q

Rather than simply designing workout programs to change appearance, the modern personal trainer has evolved to a professional responsible for producing which of the following?

a. Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients
b. Helping clients get shredded to stand out and gain more followers on social media
c. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts
d. Designing meal plans that can help clients shed unwanted fat

A

a. Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients

45
Q

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?

a. Percentage of VO2max
b. Percentage of maximal heart rate
c. Metabolic equivalents
d. Ratings of perceived exertion

A

d. Ratings of perceived exertion

46
Q

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?

a. 0 times per week
b. 1 to 3 times per week
c. 4 or 5 times per week
d. 5 to 7 times per week

A

b. 1 to 3 times per week

47
Q

Circuit training is best described as what?

a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
b. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements
c. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement
d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch

A

a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

48
Q

What BMI score is considered within normal limits?

a. 18.5 to 24.9
b. 25 to 29.9
c. 30 to 34.9
d. 35 to 39.9

A

a. 18.5 to 24.9

49
Q

Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?

a. Lat pulldown
b. Dumbbell shoulder press
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Stability ball push-up

A

c. Front medicine ball oblique throw

50
Q

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?

a. Plyometrics
b. Resistance training
c. Rehabilitation
d. Core

A

c. Rehabilitation

51
Q

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?

a. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
b. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise
c. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
d. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise

A

a. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

52
Q

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?

a. Amino acids
b. Acetyl CoA
c. ATP
d. Pyruvate

A

b. Acetyl CoA

53
Q

What is the most accurate description of motor control?

a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
b. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span
c. The integration of motor control processes through practice
d. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli

A

a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

54
Q

Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?

a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
b. Insulin
c. Painkillers
d. Inhalers

A

a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

55
Q

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements?

a. Cognitive fusion
b. Reverse listing
c. Imagery
d. Stopping

A

b. Reverse listing

56
Q

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain?

a. Transverse plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Posterior chain
d. Anterior chain

A

c. Posterior chain

57
Q

What is defined as steady-state exercise?

a. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity
b. Exercise performed for a short duration of time
c. Exercise that burns a lot of calories
d. Exercise that goes on for a long time

A

a. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

58
Q

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?

a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Power Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Strength Endurance Training

A

a. Stabilization Endurance Training

59
Q

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?

a. Certified Personal Trainer
b. General manager
c. Exercise leader
d. Fitness manager

A

c. Exercise leader

60
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?

a. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
b. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
c. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

A

d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

61
Q

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?

a. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
b. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation
c. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation
d. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

A

d. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

62
Q

Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body systems?

a. Nervous, skeletal, and vascular
b. Nervous, ligamentous, and vascular
c. Muscular, ligamentous, and skeletal
d. Muscular, nervous, and skeletal

A

d. Muscular, nervous, and skeletal

63
Q

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?

a. Stride length
b. Power
c. Agility
d. Stride rate

A

d. Stride rate

64
Q

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?

a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
b. To correct nutrient imbalances
c. To mitigate the side effects of medication
d. For general well-being

A

a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

65
Q

Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management?

a. Hormones and medications
b. Vitamin and mineral supplements
c. Blood flow
d. Body temperature

A

a. Hormones and medications

66
Q

You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy?

a. Inadequate fat intake
b. Excess fat intake
c. Inadequate protein intake
d. Inadequate carbohydrate intake

A

d. Inadequate carbohydrate intake

67
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

a. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream
b. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
c. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable
d. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.

A

b. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

68
Q

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?

a. Isometric action
b. Eccentric action
c. Concentric action
d. Isokinetic action

A

c. Concentric action

69
Q

What two factors are used to calculate body mass index (BMI)?

a. Height and weight
b. Weight and age
c. Age and level of physical fitness
d. Height and age

A

a. Height and weight

70
Q

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?

a. The trunk leaning forward
b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
c. The scapula protruding excessively from the back
d. The arms falling forward

A

b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

71
Q

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?

a. Transverse
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Axial

A

a. Transverse

72
Q

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Water
d. Platelets

A

a. Carbon dioxide

73
Q

Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

a. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems
b. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems
c. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
d. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems

A

c. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

74
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5?

a. Obese
b. Healthy weight
c. Underweight
d. Class II obesity

A

c. Underweight

75
Q

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?

a. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
b. Voluntary contractions
c. Preplanned voluntary contractions
d. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training.

A

a. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

76
Q

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?

a. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
b. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases
c. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading
d. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases

A

a. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

77
Q

What anatomical heart structure is referred to as “the pacemaker of the heart”?

a. Right bundle branch
b. Sinoatrial node
c. Atrioventricular node
d. Intercalated discs

A

b. Sinoatrial node

78
Q

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?

a. 12,000 kcal
b. 5,000 kcal
c. 2,500 kcal
d. 1,200 kcal

A

d. 1,200 kcal

79
Q

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?

a. Providing psychological benefits
b. Reducing burnout
c. Winning a triathlon
d. Developing intrinsic motivation

A

a. Providing psychological benefits

80
Q

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?

a. Companionship support
b. Informational support
c. Instrumental support
d. Emotional support

A

c. Instrumental support

81
Q

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?

a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Barbell bench press
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Box jumps

A

b. Barbell bench press

82
Q

What are the three types of muscles in the body?

a. Somatic, autonomic, and peripheral
b. Actin, myosin, and sarcomere
c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
d. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

A

d. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

83
Q

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?

a. 675 pounds
b. 2,250 pounds
c. 6,750 reps
d. 6,750 pounds

A

d. 6,750 pounds

84
Q

Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?

a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 1 diabetes
d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

A

a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

85
Q

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?

a. Stage 4
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 1
d. Stage 3

A

c. Stage 1

86
Q

Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?

a. Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
b. Asking for referrals
c. Identifying a customer’s needs
d. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer’s needs

A

d. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer’s needs

87
Q

Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function?

a. Asthma
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c. Lung cancer
d. Hypertension

A

b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

88
Q

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?

a. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening
b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
c. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion
d. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

A

b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

89
Q

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?

a. Heart function
b. Kidney function
c. Thyroid function
d. Liver function

A

c. Thyroid function

90
Q

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?

a. Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits
b. Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation)
c. Diagnosing balance disorders
d. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client’s medical history

A

d. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client’s medical history

91
Q

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?

a. Phase 5
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 4

A

c. Phase 2

92
Q

A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has canceled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional?

a. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer.
b. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
c. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client.
d. Let the client know that canceling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits.

A

b. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

93
Q

An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common injury to what part of the body?

a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
b. Ankle
c. Knee
d. Shoulder

A

c. Knee

94
Q

Having poor body image is most likely to be associated with which of the following?

a. Low levels of motivation
b. Low levels of social support
c. Low body mass index
d. Low self-esteem

A

d. Low self-esteem

95
Q

Which of the following would be a credible source of nutrition information?

a. A newspaper review article
b. Social media
c. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics
d. The Washington Post

A

c. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics

96
Q

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Isometric contraction
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Stretch reflex

A

a. Autogenic inhibition

97
Q

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?

a. Superiorly
b. Laterally
c. Medially
d. Inferiorly

A

d. Inferiorly

98
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?

a. Contraindication
b. Cardiovascular precaution
c. Psychological concern
d. Precaution

A

a. Contraindication

99
Q

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?

a. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle
b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
c. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary

A

b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

100
Q

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?

a. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
b. Pull the elbows into extension
c. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
d. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction

A

a. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Certified Personal Trainer Course (13 decks)

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