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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 13 > Flashcards

Deck 13 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?

a. Calf raise
b. Bench press
c. Triceps extension
d. Back squat

A

d. Back squat

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2
Q

What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?

a. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption
b. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training
c. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity
d. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

A

d. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

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3
Q

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

a. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.
b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
c. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work

A

c. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

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4
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?

a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
b. Hip flexors
c. Adductor complex (inner thighs)
d. Upper trapezius

A

a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

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5
Q

What is explained by the sliding filament theory?

a. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
c. The Z-lines moving farther apart
d. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction

A

a. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

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6
Q

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?

a. Stage 3 training
b. Stage 1 training
c. Stage 4 training
d. Stage 2 training

A

d. Stage 2 training

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7
Q

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?

a. Vestibular system
b. Visual system
c. Hearing system
d. Somatosensory system

A

b. Visual system

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8
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.

a. Vision
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Somatosensation
d. Vestibular

A

c. Somatosensation

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9
Q

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?

a. Guided practice
b. Self-monitoring
c. Coping plan
d. Implementation intention

A

d. Implementation intention

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10
Q

How does taking “high” doses of vitamin C impact health?

a. It improves the immune system.
b. High doses can improve heart health.
c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.
d. High doses can be dangerous.

A

c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.

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11
Q

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Reciprocal inhibition

A

a. Autogenic inhibition

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12
Q

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?

a. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise
b. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
d. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

A

c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

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13
Q

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?

a. Transverse plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Horizontal plane
d. Frontal plane

A

d. Frontal plane

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14
Q

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

a. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
b. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance.
c. The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72 to 96 hours after rolling.
d. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session.

A

a. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

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15
Q

What is end-systolic volume?

a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

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16
Q

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?

a. Resisting social pressure
b. Implementation intentions
c. Self-monitoring
d. Coping responses

A

d. Coping responses

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17
Q

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?

a. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
b. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases
c. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase
d. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase

A

a. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

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18
Q

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body’s sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?

a. Power
b. Agility
c. Quickness
d. Speed

A

b. Agility

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19
Q

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion?

a. Barbell squat
b. Dumbbell renegade row
c. BOSU squat
d. Multiplanar lunge

A

d. Multiplanar lunge

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20
Q

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?

a. Synergistic dominance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Altered length-tension relationship
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

a. Synergistic dominance

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21
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?

a. Hip flexors
b. Lower trapezius
c. Abdominals
d. Upper trapezius

A

b. Lower trapezius

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22
Q

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?

a. Single-leg balance
b. Single-leg squat
c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
d. Single-leg lift and chop

A

b. Single-leg squat

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23
Q

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

a. Only a few words can be produced between breaths
b. Inability to speak at all
c. Normal conversation is maintained.
d. Continuous talking becomes challenging

A

d. Continuous talking becomes challenging

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24
Q

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?

a. Altered length-tension relationship
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

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25
Q

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?

a. Bone density
b. Osteopenia
c. Sarcopenia
d. Osteoporosis

A

a. Bone density

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26
Q

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation “muscular strength and hypertrophy” fall into?

a. Stabilization
b. Power
c. Muscular Development
d. Strength Endurance

A

c. Muscular Development

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27
Q

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

a. Quick to fatigue
b. Less force production
c. Fewer capillaries
d. Larger in size

A

b. Less force production

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28
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Middle and lower trapezius
c. Pectoralis major
d. Teres major

A

b. Middle and lower trapezius

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29
Q

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

a. Acidosis
b. Glycolysis
c. Ketosis
d. Beta-oxidation

A

d. Beta-oxidation

30
Q

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin B12

A

b. Vitamin K

31
Q

Which of the following is a major mineral?

a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Calcium
d. Copper

A

c. Calcium

32
Q

Flexibility is defined as the following:

a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
b. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
d. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched

A

a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

33
Q

What term is used to describe metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure as a result of changes in energy intake?

a. Thermic effect of food
b. Adaptive thermogenesis
c. Exercise activity thermogenesis
d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

A

b. Adaptive thermogenesis

34
Q

For most consumers, which of the following are the two most informative features of a food label?

a. Total fat and cholesterol
b. Saturated fat and trans fat
c. Dietary fiber and total sugars
d. The nutrition facts label and the ingredients list

A

d. The nutrition facts label and the ingredients list

35
Q

What reference value is used on labels in the United Kingdom and the European Union, but not in the United States?

a. Glycemic index
b. Total energy intake
c. Percent reference intake (% RI)
d. Acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR)

A

c. Percent reference intake (% RI)

36
Q

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?

a. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac
b. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen
c. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

A

d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

37
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?

a. Helping make the exercises fun
b. Providing information on the health benefits
c. Improving their confidence for their technique
d. Helping them make a plan

A

b. Providing information on the health benefits

38
Q

What are the three overarching types of muscle actions?

a. Eccentric, isotonic, and isometric
b. Isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic
c. Concentric, eccentric, and isometric
d. Concentric, isokinetic, and isometric

A

b. Isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic

39
Q

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?

a. Agility
b. Quickness
c. Strength
d. Speed

A

b. Quickness

40
Q

What does the term force refer to?

a. The ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible
b. The ability of the nervous system to produce great strength in the shortest time
c. The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome a load
d. The ability of one entity to act on another entity, causing acceleration or deceleration

A

d. The ability of one entity to act on another entity, causing acceleration or deceleration

41
Q

The muscles of the lower leg, hamstrings, and low back region make up which of the following global muscular subsystems?

a. Lateral subsystem (LS)
b. Anterior oblique subsystem (AOS)
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS)
d. Posterior oblique subsystem (POS)

A

c. Deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS)

42
Q

One of the most important concepts in motor control is that muscles are recruited by the nervous system in groups. What are these groups called?

a. Myofibrils
b. Subsystems
c. Muscle synergies
d. Local muscular systems

A

c. Muscle synergies

43
Q

What term refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself?

a. Metabolism
b. Bioenergetics
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Thermodynamics

A

a. Metabolism

44
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

a. Hip adduction
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip extension
d. Hip internal rotation

A

c. Hip extension

45
Q

What is the primary energy-providing molecule in the human body?

a. Fat
b. Carbohydrate
c. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
d. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

d. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

46
Q

What metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell is responsible for converting glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

a. Oxidation
b. Glycolysis
c. Phosphorylation
d. Gluconeogenesis

A

b. Glycolysis

47
Q

What term is used to describe the state in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise?

a. Beta-oxidation
b. Lactate threshold
c. Ventilatory threshold
d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

A

d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

48
Q

Any form of exercise can be defined by what two factors?

a. Volume and density
b. Repetitions and sets
c. Intensity and duration
d. Frequency and tempo

A

c. Intensity and duration

49
Q

What term is used to describe the number of total calories expended per day divided by the resting metabolic expenditure?

a. British thermal unit (BTU)
b. Physical activity level (PAL)
c. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
d. Total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)

A

b. Physical activity level (PAL)

50
Q

Which screening tool is used to evaluate the benefits and risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?

a. Movement screening
b. Health risk assessment (HRA)
c. Graded submaximal treadmill test
d. Health history questionnaire (HHQ)

A

b. Health risk assessment (HRA)

51
Q

Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process?

a. Injury history
b. Current blood pressure
c. Current body fat percentage
d. Desired exercise intensity

A

d. Desired exercise intensity

52
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?

a. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
b. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
d. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion

A

c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

53
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?

a. Maximal Strength
b. Strength Endurance
c. Power
d. Stabilization Endurance

A

b. Strength Endurance

54
Q

Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

55
Q

What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?

a. Homeostasis
b. Vascular shunting
c. Thermoregulation
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction

A

c. Thermoregulation

56
Q

Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?

a. Many clients are uncomfortable having others touch their neck.
b. Pressure on the carotid artery can result in a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).
c. The radial pulse provides a more accurate reading of a client’s heart rate response.
d. The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.

A

d. The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.

57
Q

What is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion?

a. Anthropometry
b. Human science
c. Epidemiology
d. Genetics

A

a. Anthropometry

58
Q

Which of the following represents the measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height?

a. Waist circumference
b. Height-to-weight ratio
c. Body mass index (BMI)
d. Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR)

A

c. Body mass index (BMI)

59
Q

Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?

a. Fluid principle
b. Overload principle
c. Archimedes’ principle
d. Body displacement principle

A

c. Archimedes’ principle

60
Q

Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell?

a. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
c. Mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus

A

c. Mitochondrion

61
Q

Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?

a. Muscle imbalance
b. Strength imbalance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

a. Muscle imbalance

62
Q

Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?

a. The Lachman test
b. McMurray’s test
c. Static postural assessment
d. Dynamic postural assessment

A

c. Static postural assessment

63
Q

What is typically the first movement assessment used for most clients?

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Single-leg squat assessment
c. Pushing assessment
d. Pulling assessment

A

a. Overhead squat assessment

64
Q

What does the push-up test measure?

a. Core strength
b. Total body strength
c. Maximal upper-body strength during a pushing movement
d. Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement

A

d. Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement

65
Q

Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?

a. Vertical jump assessment
b. Squat strength assessment
c. Single-leg squat assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

b. Squat strength assessment

66
Q

Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?

a. 300-yard shuttle assessment
b. 40-yard dash assessment
c. Pro shuttle (5-10-5) assessment
d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

A

d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

67
Q

It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

68
Q

Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?

a. Push-up assessment and LEFT
b. Pushing and pulling assessments
c. Vertical and long jump assessments
d. Static postural and overhead squat assessments

A

d. Static postural and overhead squat assessments

69
Q

Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance?

a. Systematics
b. Integrated training
c. Boot camp training
d. High-intensity interval training (HIIT)

A

b. Integrated training

70
Q

What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systematic and gradual approach?

a. Ramping
b. Undulation
c. Periodization
d. Progressive overload

A

d. Progressive overload

71
Q

Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

A

a. Phase 1

72
Q

What term is used to describe two exercises performed back-to-back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest?

a. Circuit
b. Interval
c. Superset
d. Giant set

A

c. Superset

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