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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 8 > Flashcards

Deck 8 Flashcards

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1
Q

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

a. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
b. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
c. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

A

d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

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2
Q

A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?

a. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.
b. In order for exercise to improve sleep, it must be coupled with medication.
c. Resistance training has not been shown to have any positive effect on sleep disturbances.
d. Getting 10 minutes a day of physical activity is all that is needed to improve insomnia.

A

a. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

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3
Q

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?

a. Motor function
b. Wolff’s law
c. Muscle function
d. Neuroplasticity

A

a. Motor function

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4
Q

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Multifidus
c. Quadriceps
d. Diaphragm

A

a. Latissimus dorsi

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5
Q

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?

a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine
b. Central to the left and posterior to the spine
c. Central to the right and anterior to the spine
d. Central to the right and posterior to the spine

A

a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

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6
Q

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?

a. Leader’s qualities
b. Situational factors
c. Leadership styles
d. Follower’s qualities

A

b. Situational factors

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7
Q

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?

a. Neuroplasticity
b. Remodeling
c. Osteoporosis
d. Lengthening

A

b. Remodeling

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8
Q

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?

a. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer.
b. There is no evidence to support this adaptation.
c. SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol.
d. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

A

d. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

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9
Q

Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship?

a. Independent
b. Reciprocal
c. Autonomous
d. Unequal

A

b. Reciprocal

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10
Q

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?

a. Second class
b. Fourth class
c. First class
d. Third class

A

c. First class

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11
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?

a. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
b. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume
c. Predetermined timelines
d. Consistent in its approach

A

a. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

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12
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

a. No motion
b. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
c. Little motion
d. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion

A

b. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

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13
Q

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

a. Forward head and protracted shoulders
b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

A

a. Forward head and protracted shoulders

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14
Q

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?

a. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.
b. NEAT can increase muscle mass.
c. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness.
d. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

A

d. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

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15
Q

In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?

a. Women under the age of 50
b. Postmenopausal women
c. Men under the age of 50
d. Adolescent girls

A

b. Postmenopausal women

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16
Q

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities?

a. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization.
b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.
c. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients.
d. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency.

A

b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

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17
Q

What is a physical benefit of resistance training?

a. Increased resting heart rate
b. Decreased muscular hypertrophy
c. Increased muscular hypertrophy
d. Decreased bone remodeling

A

c. Increased muscular hypertrophy

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18
Q

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

a. Prime-mover relaxation
b. Stabilizer muscle relaxation
c. Laxity of a joint
d. Previous injury

A

d. Previous injury

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19
Q

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?

a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
b. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
c. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake
d. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods

A

a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

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20
Q

Roberta is an NASM Certified Personal Trainer who is going to be working as an independent contractor at a popular health club. What is the most important step to take before starting her job?

a. Buying new outfits so that other members will notice her while she’s working out
b. Designing cute T-shirts with her logo to give away to potential clients
c. Purchasing social media followers to enhance her profile
d. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

A

d. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

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21
Q

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?

a. Exercise
b. Resting metabolism
c. Thermic effect of activity
d. Thermic effect of food

A

b. Resting metabolism

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22
Q

What is a drop set?

a. A progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set
b. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
c. A system that alternates a heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement
d. A system that consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after the other, with minimal rest between each exercise

A

b. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

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23
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?

a. Maximal Strength Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Strength Endurance Training

A

a. Maximal Strength Training

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24
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?

a. 5 to 20% of total calories
b. 45 to 65% of total calories
c. 20 to 35% of total calories
d. 10 to 35% of total calories

A

c. 20 to 35% of total calories

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25
Q

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?

a. Becoming an NASM Master Instructor
b. College instructor
c. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
d. College football conditioning coach

A

c. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

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26
Q

Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client’s adherence to an exercise plan?

a. Length-tension relationship
b. Self-efficacy
c. Strength
d. Cool-down

A

b. Self-efficacy

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27
Q

Which of the following best describes the term power?

a. Muscle growth
b. Sport-specific skills
c. Rate of force production
d. Joint protection

A

c. Rate of force production

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28
Q

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?

a. Zone 3
b. Zone 1
c. Zone 2
d. Zone 4

A

c. Zone 2

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29
Q

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion?

a. Synergist
b. Antagonist
c. Agonist
d. Stabilizer

A

a. Synergist

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30
Q

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source?

a. Whole eggs
b. Peas
c. Beans
d. Lentils

A

a. Whole eggs

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31
Q

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?

a. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

A

d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

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32
Q

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel?

a. Peripheral arterial disease
b. Stroke
c. Intermittent claudication
d. Heart failure

A

b. Stroke

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33
Q

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8
b. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
c. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
d. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

A

c. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

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34
Q

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?

a. Knees
b. Spine
c. Ankles
d. Shoulders

A

b. Spine

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35
Q

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?

a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
b. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise
c. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
d. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly

A

c. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

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36
Q

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?

a. Elastic band woodchop
b. Suspended chest press
c. Seated abdominal crunch machine
d. Dumbbell lat row

A

a. Elastic band woodchop

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37
Q

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?

a. Less than 15 seconds
b. 60 to 90 seconds
c. 90 to 120 seconds
d. 15 to 60 seconds

A

d. 15 to 60 seconds

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38
Q

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter?

a. Selectorized machine lat pull down
b. Terra-Core push-up
c. Barbell chest press
d. Stability ball wall squat

A

c. Barbell chest press

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39
Q

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?

a. Lower body temperature
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Decreased blood flow
d. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)

A

c. Decreased blood flow

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40
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?

a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation

A

d. Contemplation

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41
Q

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?

a. Push-up test
b. Overhead squat
c. 40-yard dash
d. Single-leg squat

A

d. Single-leg squat

42
Q

The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?

a. Behavioral change
b. Depression
c. Social physique anxiety
d. Eating disorders

A

a. Behavioral change

43
Q

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?

a. Eccentric
b. Isometric
c. Isotonic
d. Concentric

A

d. Concentric

44
Q

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?

a. Pyramid system
b. Drop set
c. Complex training
d. Giant set

A

c. Complex training

45
Q

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?

a. 120 to 180 seconds
b. 0 to 90 seconds
c. 180 to 240 seconds
d. 90 to 120 seconds

A

b. 0 to 90 seconds

46
Q

Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat?

a. Quadriceps
b. Gluteus medius
c. Adductor longus
d. Biceps brachii

A

a. Quadriceps

47
Q

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?

a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.
b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
d. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

A

b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

48
Q

A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?

a. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
b. Participants are encouraged to push as hard as they can and may work harder in the presence of the group.
c. When a group or situation is warm and inviting, it brings people together; when people feel welcome, they are likely to return.
d. Participants have people they can compare themselves with. Being able to see what others can do and achieve can serve as further motivation.

A

a. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.

49
Q

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

a. Seven
b. Three
c. Six
d. Four

A

d. Four

50
Q

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

a. Sagittal
b. Dorsal
c. Frontal
d. Transverse

A

d. Transverse

51
Q

Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?

a. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers
b. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job
c. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout
d. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

A

d. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

52
Q

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?

a. Ballistic stretching
b. Dynamic stretching
c. Active stretching
d. Static stretching

A

d. Static stretching

53
Q

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?

a. Instability training using a stability ball
b. Prone dead bugs on floor
c. Marching on a stable surface
d. Planking on a stable surface

A

a. Instability training using a stability ball

54
Q

What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?

a. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
b. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
c. It can increase LDL cholesterol.
d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.

A

d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.

55
Q

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals?

a. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.
b. Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day.
c. Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals.
d. Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated.

A

a. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

56
Q

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?

a. Core power
b. Core endurance
c. Core stability
d. Core strength

A

c. Core stability

57
Q

What best describes an essential amino acid?

a. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
b. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods
c. An amino acid that is required after a workout
d. An amino acid that is in all types of foods

A

a. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

58
Q

When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?

a. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
b. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
c. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.
d. All individuals have “lack of time” as a barrier.

A

b. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.

59
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?

a. Scapular winging
b. Shoulder elevation
c. Arms fall forward
d. Forward lean

A

b. Shoulder elevation

60
Q

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body?

a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
c. Thermoregulation
d. Peripheral vasodilation

A

c. Thermoregulation

61
Q

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.
d. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety.

A

b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

62
Q

In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.)

a. Center of gravity
b. Somatosensation
c. Sensorimotor
d. Vestibular

A

a. Center of gravity

63
Q

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?

a. The brain
b. Mechanoreceptors
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Autonomic nervous system

A

d. Autonomic nervous system

64
Q

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?

a. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
b. Increased lipogenesis
c. Increased lipolysis
d. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate

A

c. Increased lipolysis

65
Q

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gasses in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?

a. Trachea
b. Alveolar sacs
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Bronchioles

A

b. Alveolar sacs

66
Q

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?

a. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle
b. Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
c. Discussing the customer’s budget
d. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages

A

b. Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs

67
Q

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

a. Squat jump with stabilization
b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
c. Tuck jump with stabilization
d. Box jump-up with stabilization

A

b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

68
Q

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?

a. Force velocity
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Proprioception
d. External feedback

A

c. Proprioception

69
Q

When a client’s heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?

a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Central nervous system

A

b. Sympathetic nervous system

70
Q

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.
b. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.

A

b. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

71
Q

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?

a. Core endurance
b. Core stability
c. Core strength
d. Core power

A

c. Core strength

72
Q

Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?

a. To promote economic prosperity for the fitness industry and certifying organizations
b. To elevate the fitness professional’s status and reputation within the fitness community
c. To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry
d. To abide by federal guidelines that require continuing education units for allied health professionals

A

c. To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry

73
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

a. Pro shuttle
b. Long (broad) jump
c. 40-yard dash
d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

A

a. Pro shuttle

74
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model?

a. Increasing strength
b. Improving mobility
c. Proper movement patterns
d. Improving stability

A

a. Increasing strength

75
Q

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

a. Rectus abdominis
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Diaphragm

A

c. Transverse abdominis

76
Q

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

a. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
b. The site of muscular contractions
c. The sliding filament theory
d. Exposing actin-binding sites

A

a. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

77
Q

Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?

a. Unilateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Bilateral
d. Contralateral

A

a. Unilateral

78
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?

a. Upper trapezius
b. Adductor complex
c. Hip flexors
d. Gastrocnemius and soleus

A

d. Gastrocnemius and soleus

79
Q

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?

a. Stabilization force
b. Deceleration force
c. Ground reaction force
d. Acceleration force

A

c. Ground reaction force

80
Q

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client’s bone mineral density?

a. Water aerobics
b. Walking
c. Cycling
d. Swimming

A

b. Walking

81
Q

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?

a. Sandbag squat
b. BOSU squat
c. Barbell squats
d. Machine leg press

A

b. BOSU squat

82
Q

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?

a. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
b. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern
c. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern
d. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression

A

a. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

83
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible
c. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable
d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult

A

a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

84
Q

Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?

a. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
b. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working.
c. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts.
d. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients.

A

a. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

85
Q

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States?

a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
d. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

A

b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

86
Q

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

a. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture.
b. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity.

A

c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

87
Q

When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user’s body weight, according to current recommendations?

a. 0.2
b. 0.1
c. 0.3
d. 0.4

A

b. 0.1

88
Q

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?

a. Vision
b. Vestibular senses
c. Somatosensation
d. Strength

A

d. Strength

89
Q

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?

a. Arthritis
b. Lung cancer
c. Osteopenia
d. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.

A

c. Osteopenia

90
Q

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?

a. Hip extension
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Hip abduction
d. Knee extension

A

c. Hip abduction

91
Q

What statement best describes a mid-market health club?

a. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
d. A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership

A

d. A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership

92
Q

How many B vitamins are there?

a. 12
b. 3
c. 8
d. 21

A

c. 8

93
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

a. Adductor complex
b. Upper trapezius
c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
d. Abdominals

A

c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

94
Q

Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?

a. When process goals are too specific
b. When goals are not adjusted
c. When only one goal is set
d. When outcome goals are objective

A

b. When goals are not adjusted

95
Q

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?

a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Axial
d. Transverse

A

b. Sagittal

96
Q

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?

a. Amino acids
b. Fatty acids
c. Pyruvate
d. Glycogen

A

c. Pyruvate

97
Q

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?

a. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center
b. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
c. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants
d. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open

A

b. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

98
Q

How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?

a. Throwing the ball at the same height each time
b. Increasing the velocity of each throw
c. Decreasing the velocity of each throw
d. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer

A

b. Increasing the velocity of each throw

99
Q

Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin?

a. Pantothenic acid
b. Folate
c. Vitamin C
d. Niacin

A

b. Folate

100
Q

Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?

a. Injury resistance
b. Improved posture
c. Performance
d. Rehabilitation

A

a. Injury resistance

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