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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 11 > Flashcards

Deck 11 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner?

a. Legal and ethical
b. Professionalism
c. Business practice
d. Confidentiality

A

d. Confidentiality

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2
Q

At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha’s BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified?

a. Overweight
b. Obese
c. Underweight
d. Healthy weight

A

a. Overweight

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3
Q

What does the phrase “training under the table” refer to?

a. Working as an independent contractor
b. Training clients via online fitness coaching
c. Joining a gym to offer personal training directly to other members
d. Establishing a book of business

A

c. Joining a gym to offer personal training directly to other members

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4
Q

What does the term unique selling proposition (USP) refer to?

a. A set of specific characteristics used to market or advertise a physical product
b. A discount offered for products or services purchased in specific quantities
c. A set of specific skills or traits that are highlighted during a sales presentation
d. A method of closing a sale using techniques specific to the potential client

A

c. A set of specific skills or traits that are highlighted during a sales presentation

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5
Q

What are the Four Ps of marketing?

a. Predict, prepare, plan, and perform
b. Product, price, promotion, and place
c. Promote, present, prevent, and preserve
d. Personality, perseverance, performance, and professionalism

A

b. Product, price, promotion, and place

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6
Q

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?

a. Ischemic heart disease
b. Hypertension
c. Heart valve problem
d. Arrhythmia

A

a. Ischemic heart disease

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7
Q

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?

a. Hypertension
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Pulse
d. Diastolic blood pressure

A

d. Diastolic blood pressure

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8
Q

What is end-diastolic volume?

a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

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9
Q

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?

a. Legal and ethical
b. Business practice
c. Professionalism
d. Confidentiality

A

c. Professionalism

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10
Q

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be an example of a strength?

a. Having the NASM-CPT credential
b. Taking a workshop to learn more about sales and marketing for fitness professionals
c. Needing to learn more about marketing and sales
d. Competition from the other health clubs and training studios in the immediate area

A

a. Having the NASM-CPT credential

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11
Q

What is one of the most important things about psychology and its relationship with fitness and wellness?

a. The role it plays in successful weight loss
b. The role it plays in the behavioral change process
c. The need for personal trainers to possess education in the field of psychology
d. The ability to use a client’s personality traits to manipulate the outcome of exercise

A

b. The role it plays in the behavioral change process

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12
Q

Generally speaking, what does psychology influence regarding fitness and wellness on any given day?

a. The decision to be happy or sad
b. The decision to hire a personal trainer or not
c. The decision to make nutritional choices or not
d. The decision to be physically active or not

A

d. The decision to be physically active or not

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13
Q

What does the term companionship support refer to?

a. Having a dependency on support from a companion
b. Providing accurate, current information to another individual
c. Engaging in a behavior with another individual
d. Identifying with another person’s feelings, attitudes, or thoughts

A

c. Engaging in a behavior with another individual

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14
Q

What does the term mood refer to?

a. An emotion experienced in the moment
b. One’s self-esteem on a given day
c. How someone feels over the long term
d. A short-term reaction to a situation

A

c. How someone feels over the long term

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15
Q

Social support is best described by which statement?

a. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior
b. Posting on social media about the recent successes of clients
c. Providing counseling sessions with clients who exhibit signs of depression
d. Rearranging a schedule to accommodate a client’s availability

A

a. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

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16
Q

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?

a. Health and well-being
b. Improved physical appearance
c. Competition with others
d. Being a part of a social group

A

a. Health and well-being

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17
Q

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?

a. Exercise leader
b. Exercise group
c. The community
d. Family

A

d. Family

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18
Q

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?

a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
b. Establish short- and long-term goals.
c. Start establishing an emotional support system.
d. Create a plan for overcoming barriers

A

a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

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19
Q

Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like?

a. Accountability
b. Intensity
c. Consistency
d. Mindlessness

A

c. Consistency

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20
Q

A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional?

a. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
b. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer.
c. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client.
d. Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits

A

a. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

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21
Q

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?

a. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
c. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
d. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction

A

a. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

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22
Q

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?

a. Health psychology
b. Sport and exercise psychology
c. Developmental psychology
d. Social psychology

A

b. Sport and exercise psychology

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23
Q

Which of the following is one of the strongest determinants of physical activity in adults?

a. Attitude
b. Intention
c. Self-efficacy
d. Autonomous motivation

A

c. Self-efficacy

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24
Q

What do the health benefits of exercise depend on?

a. A sound nutrition plan
b. A modern training facility
c. A long-term commitment
d. A history of training experience

A

c. A long-term commitment

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25
Q

What are cognitive strategies intended to do?

a. Eliminate nonessential tasks
b. Assign priorities to daily tasks
c. Implement systems of organization
d. Alter the way someone thinks about an activity

A

d. Alter the way someone thinks about an activity

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26
Q

What is another term for vague goals?

a. Subjective goals
b. Lofty goals
c. Objective goals
d. Short-term goals

A

a. Subjective goals

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27
Q

At what point should a client’s first exercise program be designed?

a. Prior to the initial consultation
b. During the initial consultation
c. After the initial consultation
d. After the first paid training session

A

c. After the initial consultation

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28
Q

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

a. Do you have any injuries?
b. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?
c. Are you currently exercising?
d. Are you taking any medications?

A

b. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?

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29
Q

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?

a. Outcome expectations
b. Action self-efficacy
c. Subjective norms
d. Planning

A

d. Planning

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30
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client’s goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?

a. Active listening
b. Nonverbal communication
c. Reflective listening
d. Motivational interviewing

A

c. Reflective listening

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31
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?

a. Precontemplation
b. Action
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation

A

b. Action

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32
Q

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?

a. Guided practice
b. Coping plan
c. Implementation intention
d. Self-monitoring

A

c. Implementation intention

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33
Q

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?

a. Implementation intentions
b. Coping responses
c. Self-monitoring
d. Resisting social pressure

A

b. Coping responses

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34
Q

Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support?

a. Informational support
b. Emotional support
c. Companionship support
d. Instrumental support

A

b. Emotional support

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35
Q

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

A

c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

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36
Q

A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?

a. Goal setting
b. Action planning
c. Coping planning
d. Self-monitoring

A

d. Self-monitoring

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37
Q

Which of the following is one of the three integrated systems in the human movement system?

a. The nervous system
b. The lymphatic system
c. The respiratory system
d. The integumentary system

A

a. The nervous system

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38
Q

What does the term osteokinematics refer to?

a. Bone formation
b. Joint movement
c. Bone movement
d. Bone weakness

A

c. Bone movement

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39
Q

What are the most common joints in the human body?

a. Synovial joints
b. Nonaxial joints
c. Diarthrodial joints
d. Nonsynovial joints

A

a. Synovial joints

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40
Q

What are myofibrils?

a. Contractile components of a muscle cell
b. Junctions or small gaps between motor neurons and muscle cells
c. Protein-based molecules that carry oxygen into the muscle
d. Thin, stringlike myofilaments that act with myosin to produce muscle contraction

A

a. Contractile components of a muscle cell

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41
Q

Which of the following refers to the series of steps in muscle contraction?

a. Lengthening reaction
b. Integrative performance paradigm
c. The sliding filament theory
d. Stretch-shortening cycle

A

c. The sliding filament theory

42
Q

What are known as a network of hollow tubes that circulates blood throughout the body?

a. The aorta
b. Blood vessels
c. The heart
d. The pulmonary artery

A

b. Blood vessels

43
Q

What is the function of the aorta?

a. To transport deoxygenated blood from the right ventricles to the lungs.
b. A network of hollow tubes that circulates blood throughout the body.
c. The largest artery in the body which carries blood away from the heart.

A

c. The largest artery in the body which carries blood away from the heart.

44
Q

What structure gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body and then sends it to the right ventricle?

a. The left ventricle
b. The left atrium
c. The right atrium

A

c. The right atrium

45
Q

What is the function of the left ventricle?

a. To gather deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body and send it to the right ventricle.
b. To receive the deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and then pumps it to the lungs.
c. To receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and sends it to the left ventricle.
d. To receive the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pump it through the entire body.

A

d. To receive the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pump it through the entire body.

46
Q

What structure receives the deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and then pumps it to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to be saturated with incoming oxygen?

a. Right ventricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Left atrium

A

a. Right ventricle

47
Q

What type of blood does the left atrium gather and send to the left ventricle?

a. Oxygenated
b. Deoxygenated

A

a. Oxygenated

48
Q

What is the right side of the heart referred to as?

a. The pump side
b. The return side
c. The pulmonic side
d. The systemic side

A

c. The pulmonic side

49
Q

What term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?

a. Tidal volume
b. Stroke volume
c. End-systemic volume
d. Ventricular end-diastolic volume

A

b. Stroke volume

50
Q

What term is used to describe the accumulation of blood in the extremities?

a. Venous pooling
b. Arterial pooling
c. Hypertension
d. Hypotension

A

a. Venous pooling

51
Q

What is the conducting airway, also known as the windpipe in which air travels through before entering the lungs called?

a. Pharynx
b. Trachea
c. Larynx
d. Bronchi

A

b. Trachea

52
Q

What are major air passages of the lungs which diverge from the windpipe into to each lung known as?

a. Oral cavity
b. Nasal cavity
c. Bronchi
d. Trachea

A

c. Bronchi

53
Q

What term describes the act of holding in breath during exercise while contracting the abdominals?

a. Abdominal bracing
b. Valsalva maneuver
c. Thoracic pressurization
d. Intrathoracic depressurization

A

b. Valsalva maneuver

54
Q

What is the primary role of the respiratory system?

a. To regulate heart rate
b. To ensure brain perfusion
c. To regulate blood pressure
d. To ensure proper cellular function

A

d. To ensure proper cellular function

55
Q

What gland communicates with and coordinates the activity of the pituitary gland?

a. Hypothalmamus
b. Testis
c. Adrenals
d. Thyroid

A

a. Hypothalmamus

56
Q

What organ is responsible for producing insulin?

a. Pancreas
b. Liver
c. Stomach
d. Hypothalamus

A

a. Pancreas

57
Q

Which gland produces catecholamines?

a. Adrenals
b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas
d. Testis

A

a. Adrenals

58
Q

What gland regulates the sleep cycle and produces melatonin?

a. Pineal
b. Pituitary, posterior lobe
c. Thyroid
d. Adrenal

A

a. Pineal

59
Q

What gland controls the secretion of many hormones, including growth hormone?

a. Pituitary
b. Pineal
c. Hypothalamus
d. Adrenal

A

a. Pituitary

60
Q

Which of the following is the primary energy source during vigorous exercise?

a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Lactic acid
d. Carbohydrates

A

d. Carbohydrates

61
Q

What term is used to describe the amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?

a. Homeostasis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Basal metabolic rate
d. Thermic effect of food

A

c. Basal metabolic rate

62
Q

What term refers to the complex group of anatomical structures that function to break down, process, and absorb the food we eat?

a. The digestive system
b. The endocrine system
c. The integumentary system
d. The anaerobic energy system

A

a. The digestive system

63
Q

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?

a. Left ventricle
b. Right ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Left atrium

A

b. Right ventricle

64
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase?

a. Mobility and flexibility
b. Muscular endurance
c. Postural alignment
d. Maximal muscular strength

A

b. Muscular endurance

65
Q

Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support?

a. Instrumental support
b. Emotional support
c. Informational support
d. Companionship support

A

b. Emotional support

66
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

a. Transverse abdominis
b. Erector spinae
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

a. Transverse abdominis

67
Q

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

a. Squatting
b. Pushing
c. Pulling
d. Hip hinge

A

a. Squatting

68
Q

What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?

a. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity.
d. The point at which the body’s energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen

A

a. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

69
Q

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?

a. Less stability
b. Less speed
c. Less forward drive
d. Less braking force

A

d. Less braking force

70
Q

What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?

a. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
b. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest
c. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes
d. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise

A

a. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch

71
Q

Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry?

a. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry
b. Annual certification by NASM
c. Occasional publishing in relevant journals
d. Having at least 15 active clients at all times

A

a. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry

72
Q

The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?

a. Bone health
b. Athletic performance
c. Heart health
d. Endocrine health

A

c. Heart health

73
Q

Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?

a. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results.
b. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility.
c. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want.
d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

A

d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

74
Q

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

a. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.
b. It involves expiring against a closed glottis.
c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
d. It can raise an individual’s heart rate and blood pressure.

A

c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

75
Q

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be?

a. 72 beats per minute
b. 66 beats per minute
c. 64 beats per minute
d. 80 beats per minute

A

d. 80 beats per minute

76
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client’s goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?

a. Motivational interviewing
b. Active listening
c. Nonverbal communication
d. Reflective listening

A

d. Reflective listening

77
Q

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?

a. Stabilize
b. Jump
c. Gait
d. Land

A

b. Jump

78
Q

Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?

a. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements.
b. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
c. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients.
d. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.

A

b. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

79
Q

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?

a. Altered bone shape through the spine
b. Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity
c. Altered bone shape through the lower extremity
d. Improper muscle balance in the spine

A

a. Altered bone shape through the spine

80
Q

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?

a. Stretch reflex
b. Isometric contraction
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Autogenic inhibition

A

d. Autogenic inhibition

81
Q

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

a. Ankle sprains
b. Concussions
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
d. Medial collateral ligament injuries

A

a. Ankle sprains

82
Q

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?

a. Between 3 and 5 minutes
b. Between 1 and 3 minutes
c. Between 10 and 15 minutes
d. Between 5 and 10 minutes

A

d. Between 5 and 10 minutes

83
Q

What is the definition of anthropometry?

a. The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity
b. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
c. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body
d. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface

A

b. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

84
Q

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?

a. Gluteus maximus
b. Erector spinae
c. Gluteus medius
d. Hip flexor

A

c. Gluteus medius

85
Q

Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?

a. Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week
b. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
c. Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week
d. Phases 1 and 5 every other day

A

b. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2

86
Q

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides?

a. Transverse
b. Frontal
c. Sagittal
d. Extension

A

c. Sagittal

87
Q

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?

a. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
b. The head of the participant
c. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant
d. The midline of the pelvis of the participant

A

a. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

88
Q

You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information?

a. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?
b. Has the information been reported on the news and in other media?
c. Is the nutrient available as a supplement, given the purported weight-loss benefits?
d. Is the magazine article in a recent publication or is it outdated?

A

a. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

89
Q

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?

a. Postural distortions
b. Too much cardiovascular exercise
c. Poor SMART goals
d. Inability to exercise 3 times per week

A

a. Postural distortions

90
Q

What is bioenergetics?

a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
b. The study of weight loss
c. The study of aerobic metabolism
d. The study of metabolism during exercise

A

a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy

91
Q

Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

a. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter.
b. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines.
c. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
d. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise.

A

c. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.

92
Q

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?

a. Knee flexion
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip extension
d. Ankle dorsiflexion

A

c. Hip extension

93
Q

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?

a. Suspended bodyweight crunch
b. Medicine ball catch and pass
c. Barbell squats
d. Stability ball plank

A

c. Barbell squats

94
Q

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

a. Transitioning of forces
b. Stretching of the agonist muscle
c. Shortening of the agonist muscle
d. Stretching of the antagonist muscle

A

b. Stretching of the agonist muscle

95
Q

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.
b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core.
d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core.

A

b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

96
Q

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?

a. Hypertension
b. Pulse
c. Systolic blood pressure
d. Diastolic blood pressure

A

d. Diastolic blood pressure

97
Q

If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?

a. High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes
b. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
c. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes
d. Walking for 5 minutes

A

b. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

98
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

a. Serratus anterior
b. Upper trapezius
c. Lower trapezius
d. Cervical extensors

A

c. Lower trapezius

99
Q

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?

a. Static balance
b. Stable balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance

A

d. Semi-dynamic balance

100
Q

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

a. Integrated training
b. Circuit training
c. Isolated training
d. Hypertrophy training

A

a. Integrated training

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