Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?

a. Power step-ups and ice skaters
b. Deadlifts and squats
c. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups
d. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

A

d. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?

a. Explosive-shortening phase
b. Stretching phase
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Muscular-power phase

A

c. Stretch-shortening cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?

a. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings
b. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps
c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
d. Active stretching of the hamstrings

A

c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option?

a. Working for a premium health club company
b. Offering in-home training services
c. Working for a low-cost health club company
d. Creating online coaching programs

A

a. Working for a premium health club company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise?

a. Knees over second and third toes
b. Knee varus
c. Knees inside the first toe
d. Knee valgus

A

a. Knees over second and third toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

a. Depressed and slightly retracted
b. Elevated and slightly retracted
c. Depressed and slightly protracted
d. Elevated and slightly protracted

A

a. Depressed and slightly retracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?

a. Jogging/running
b. Sports competition
c. Rowing
d. Resistance training

A

d. Resistance training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?

a. Strains and heel spurs
b. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
c. Achilles tendonitis and athlete’s foot
d. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints

A

b. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?

a. Frontal and sagittal
b. Transverse and frontal
c. All planes of motion
d. Sagittal and transverse

A

a. Frontal and sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model?

a. Power
b. Stabilization
c. Strength Endurance
d. Strength

A

c. Strength Endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?

a. Thermic effect of food (TEF)
b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
c. Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)
d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential?

a. Learning how to lead group training programs
b. Becoming a registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN) to provide nutritional counseling
c. Pursuing a degree in exercise science
d. Earning a massage therapy license to be able to offer massage treatments

A

a. Learning how to lead group training programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?

a. Osteokinematic
b. Posterior
c. Anterior
d. Arthrokinematic

A

d. Arthrokinematic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?

a. Stretch reflex
b. Isometric contraction
c. Eccentric contraction
d. Lengthening reaction

A

a. Stretch reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

a. Lateral triceps brachii
b. Medial gastrocnemius
c. Middle deltoid
d. Lateral hamstrings

A

c. Middle deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

a. Did you exercise this week?
b. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals?
c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
d. What do you currently weigh?

A

c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?

a. Kinesthetic awareness
b. Kinesiology
c. Proprioception
d. Biomechanics

A

c. Proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?

a. Any medical precautions or contraindications
b. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
c. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results
d. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results

A

a. Any medical precautions or contraindications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can health best be defined?

a. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium in relation to the surrounding environment and the regular tasks it is required to perform
b. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
c. Genetics, access to healthcare, access to preventive medicine, socioeconomic status, natural disasters, and the built environment
d. A combination of education, income, and occupation

A

b. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?

a. Gluteus maximus
b. Pectoralis major
c. Anterior deltoid
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

d. Latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement?

a. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)
b. At the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold (while standing)
c. At the widest portion of the buttocks (while standing with feet together)
d. At the widest point of the waist (while seated)

A

a. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?

a. Pelvic floor muscles
b. Erector spinae
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Multifidus

A

b. Erector spinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan?

a. Off-season training
b. In-season training
c. Cardio training
d. Preseason training

A

c. Cardio training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?

a. 125 minutes per week
b. 150 minutes per week
c. 180 minutes per week
d. 165 minutes per week

A

d. 165 minutes per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which common cause of death is the most preventable?

a. Dementia
b. Stroke
c. Cancer
d. Obesity

A

d. Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which individual is suffering from an acute disease?

a. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
b. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes
c. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition
d. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes

A

a. Jorge, who is sick with the flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?

a. Thoracic and lumbar
b. Thoracic and sacral
c. Cervical and sacral
d. Cervical and thoracic

A

b. Thoracic and sacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?

a. 60 to 90 seconds
b. 120 to 180 seconds
c. 90 to 120 seconds
d. 0 to 60 seconds

A

d. 0 to 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience?

a. Group fitness manager
b. General manager
c. Fitness manager
d. Area fitness manager

A

c. Fitness manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?

a. Peripheral resistance
b. Venous pooling
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
d. Valsalva maneuver

A

c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?

a. To set prices for supplements
b. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
c. To ban illegal substances
d. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used

A

b. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?

a. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect.
b. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.
c. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action.
d. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

A

d. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What area of the chest contains the heart?

a. Myofibril
b. Atrium
c. Mediastinum
d. Ventricle

A

c. Mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?

a. Undulating
b. Mesocycle
c. Macrocycle
d. Linear

A

a. Undulating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?

a. The manufactured environment
b. The constructed environment
c. The assembled environment
d. The built environment

A

d. The built environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?

a. Pro shuttle
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Vertical jump

A

c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Pro shuttle
c. Vertical jump
d. 40-yard dash

A

c. Vertical jump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association?

a. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120
b. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80
c. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89
d. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80

A

d. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?

a. Femoral artery
b. Carotid artery
c. Brachial artery
d. Radial artery

A

c. Brachial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?

a. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
b. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
c. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
d. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.

A

a. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?

a. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
b. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight
c. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

A

d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

42
Q

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?

a. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
b. The sight, hearing, and taste systems
c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
d. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.

A

c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

43
Q

Why is third-party verification important?

a. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients.
b. It provides unbiased testing for a product.
c. It shows which supplements to trust.
d. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market.

A

b. It provides unbiased testing for a product.

44
Q

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?

a. Resistance bands
b. Strength machines
c. Suspended bodyweight training
d. Terra-Core

A

b. Strength machines

45
Q

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

a. Erector spinae
b. Multifidus
c. Iliopsoas
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

b. Multifidus

46
Q

What causes coronary heart disease?

a. Atherosclerosis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Cirrhosis

A

a. Atherosclerosis

47
Q

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?

a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
b. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat
c. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press
d. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown

A

a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

48
Q

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise?

a. Palms facing up
b. Palms facing down
c. Palms facing inward toward each other
d. Palms facing outward away from each other

A

c. Palms facing inward toward each other

49
Q

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?

a. Resistance training
b. Activation
c. Client’s choice
d. Skill development

A

b. Activation

50
Q

Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs?

a. Cardiovascular
b. Digestive
c. Endocrine
d. Respiratory

A

d. Respiratory

51
Q

Informational support would be provided by which example?

a. Working out alongside a client
b. Letting a client know they are not alone in the process of losing weight
c. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day
d. Holding the client accountable to lifting weights 3 days per week

A

c. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day

52
Q

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?

a. 3 seconds
b. 4 seconds
c. 1 second
d. 2 seconds

A

b. 4 seconds

53
Q

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?

a. Brachioradialis
b. Brachialis
c. Triceps brachii
d. Biceps brachii

A

a. Brachioradialis

54
Q

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?

a. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature
b. Place a small board under the heels
c. Place a small board under the toes
d. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature

A

b. Place a small board under the heels

55
Q

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?

a. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.
b. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.
c. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.
d. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors.

A

a. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

56
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Lumbar extensors
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Gluteus maximus

A

d. Gluteus maximus

57
Q

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body?

a. Lateral
b. Posterior
c. Contralateral
d. Ipsilateral

A

c. Contralateral

58
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?

a. To make sure the program is difficult enough
b. To make sure the client isn’t doing too much exercise
c. To ensure safety
d. To enhance enjoyment of exercise

A

c. To ensure safety

59
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

a. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
c. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
d. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach

A

c. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

60
Q

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?

a. Determinants
b. Attitudes
c. Self-efficacy
d. Behavior change techniques

A

a. Determinants

61
Q

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?

a. Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains
b. Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains
c. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
d. High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits

A

c. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

62
Q

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked?

a. Once a week
b. Once a day
c. Only when there are signs of wear
d. Prior to every use

A

d. Prior to every use

63
Q

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?

a. Not at all
b. More efficiently
c. Less efficiently
d. Equally

A

b. More efficiently

64
Q

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?

a. Quickness
b. Speed
c. Agility
d. Stride rate

A

a. Quickness

65
Q

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?

a. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it.
b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.
c. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate.
d. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone.

A

b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

66
Q

What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client?

a. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
b. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable, single-leg stable
c. Two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable
d. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

A

d. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

67
Q

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?

a. Anabolic steroids
b. Performance supplements
c. Stimulants
d. Health supplements

A

d. Health supplements

68
Q

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?

a. Transverse abdominis
b. Diaphragm
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Pelvic floor musculature

A

a. Transverse abdominis

69
Q

Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions?

a. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training.
b. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.
c. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training.
d. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise.

A

b. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

70
Q

A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?

a. Autonomy motivation
b. Intrinsic motivation
c. Extrinsic motivation
d. Affiliation motivation

A

c. Extrinsic motivation

71
Q

Which of the following is the best source for reviewing information about dietary supplements?

a. A fitness magazine
b. A professional athlete
c. The supplement company’s website
d. PubMed

A

d. PubMed

72
Q

What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women?

a. Cancer
b. COPD
c. Diabetes
d. Coronary heart disease

A

d. Coronary heart disease

73
Q

Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?

a. Eccentric action
b. Isokinetic action
c. Isometric action
d. Concentric action

A

a. Eccentric action

74
Q

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?

a. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
b. Ability to stretch in small increments
c. Ability to stretch only one muscle
d. Altered movement patterns

A

d. Altered movement patterns

75
Q

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?

a. Elastin
b. Tendon
c. Collagen
d. Ligament

A

d. Ligament

76
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Muscular Development Training
c. Power Training
d. Strength Endurance Training

A

c. Power Training

77
Q

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?

a. This stretch is too complicated for the older client.
b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.
c. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles.
d. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.

A

b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

78
Q

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?

a. Body mass index (BMI)
b. Anthropometry
c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
d. Skinfold measurements

A

c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

79
Q

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?

a. Performance assessments
b. Body composition
c. Biometric data
d. Movement assessments

A

a. Performance assessments

80
Q

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?

a. HRmax x % intensity desired
b. 208 - (0.7 x age)
c. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest
d. VO2max x % intensity desired

A

b. 208 - (0.7 x age)

81
Q

Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary?

a. General manager
b. Strength and conditioning coach
c. Master instructor
d. Fitness manager

A

d. Fitness manager

82
Q

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?

a. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
d. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

A

b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

83
Q

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school’s rugby team?

a. The talk test
b. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
c. Rockport 1-mile walk test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test

A

b. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

84
Q

A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?

a. Emotional support
b. Companionship support
c. Instrumental support
d. Informational support

A

d. Informational support

85
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?

a. Body fat loss
b. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
c. Decreased volume and intensity
d. Muscle mass atrophy

A

a. Body fat loss

86
Q

A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal?

a. I want to run in the morning before work.
b. I want to run 3 times per week.
c. I want to run outside.
d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

A

d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

87
Q

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?

a. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
b. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
d. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)

A

c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

88
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?

a. Precontemplation
b. Contemplation
c. Action
d. Maintenance

A

a. Precontemplation

89
Q

The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups?

a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
c. Hamstrings and erector spinae
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators

A

b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

90
Q

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?

a. Ventilatory threshold
b. Steady-state heart rate
c. VO2max
d. Maximal heart rate

A

c. VO2max

91
Q

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?

a. Muscular atrophy
b. Osteopenia
c. Sarcopenia
d. Muscular hypertrophy

A

d. Muscular hypertrophy

92
Q

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?

a. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic
b. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar
c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
d. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic

A

c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

93
Q

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?

a. 120 beats per minute
b. 80 beats per minute
c. 105 beats per minute
d. 50 beats per minute

A

b. 80 beats per minute

94
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?

a. 19 breaths per minute
b. 7 breaths per minute
c. 15 breaths per minute
d. 25 breaths per minute

A

c. 15 breaths per minute

95
Q

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?

a. Connective tissues
b. Tendons
c. Muscle spindles
d. Fascia

A

d. Fascia

96
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system?

a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Muscular Development Training
c. Power Training
d. Maximal Strength Training

A

a. Stabilization Endurance Training

97
Q

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body?

a. Posterior
b. Anterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral

A

c. Medial

98
Q

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?

a. Posterior
b. Lateral
c. Anterior
d. Superior

A

a. Posterior

99
Q

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?

a. Neuroplasticity
b. Remodeling
c. Wolff’s law
d. Osteoporosis

A

b. Remodeling

100
Q

How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?

a. One page only
b. Two to three pages
c. One to two pages
d. Three to four pages

A

c. One to two pages

Certified Personal Trainer Course (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions