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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 5 > Flashcards

Deck 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction?

a. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
b. Activation of the intercalated discs
c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
d. Activation of sarcomeres

A

c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

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2
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?

a. Anterior and posterior tibialis
b. Adductor complex
c. Upper trapezius
d. Abdominals

A

a. Anterior and posterior tibialis

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3
Q

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?

a. Somatosensation
b. Perturbation
c. Sensorimotor function
d. Neuromuscular control

A

b. Perturbation

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4
Q

How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?

a. 5
b. 12
c. 10
d. 8

A

b. 12

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5
Q

What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth?

a. 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
b. 40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
c. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
d. 50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

A

c. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

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6
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

a. 6 to 8 reps
b. 1 or 2 reps
c. 8 to 10 reps
d. 3 to 5 reps

A

d. 3 to 5 reps

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7
Q

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?

a. 45 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 90 minutes

A

c. 30 minutes

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8
Q

How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?

a. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.
b. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test.
c. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
d. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.

A

c. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

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9
Q

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?

a. Flexion and extension
b. Abduction and Adduction
c. Inversion and eversion
d. Rotation

A

d. Rotation

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10
Q

What statement best describes the category of simple sugars?

a. Sugar syrups that are easily absorbed by the body
b. Sugars that have been added to packaged foods
c. Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body
d. Sugars that are dissolved into liquid for consumption

A

c. Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body

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11
Q

Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?

a. Osteoporosis
b. Arthropathy
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Osteokinematics

A

d. Osteokinematics

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12
Q

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

a. Speed
b. Stride rate
c. Assessment of visual stimuli
d. Acceleration

A

c. Assessment of visual stimuli

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13
Q

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?

a. Single-leg squat
b. Pulling assessment
c. Pushing assessment
d. Overhead squat

A

d. Overhead squat

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14
Q

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

A

d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

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15
Q

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?

a. Informational support
b. Companionship support
c. Emotional support
d. Instrumental support

A

d. Instrumental support

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16
Q

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?

a. An RPE of 9 to 10
b. An RPE of 7 to 8
c. An RPE of 5 to 6
d. An RPE of 3 to 4

A

c. An RPE of 5 to 6

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17
Q

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following?

a. How someone conceptualizes their place in society
b. How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body
c. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially
d. When someone is anxious about how others view their body

A

c. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

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18
Q

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?

a. Resistance training
b. Activation
c. Skill development
d. Warm-up

A

a. Resistance training

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19
Q

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?

a. 9 or 10 drills
b. 2 to 4 drills
c. 4 to 5 drills
d. 6 to 8 drills

A

d. 6 to 8 drills

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20
Q

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

a. Somatosensory system
b. Auditory system
c. Vestibular system
d. Visual system

A

c. Vestibular system

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21
Q

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client’s self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using?

a. Verbal persuasion
b. Provide instructions
c. Experience mastery
d. Set specific tasks

A

d. Set specific tasks

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22
Q

Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?

a. Number of continuing education units earned
b. Individual professional expertise
c. Best external evidence
d. Client values and expectations

A

b. Individual professional expertise

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23
Q

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?

a. Height
b. Injury history
c. Sports skills
d. Body composition

A

b. Injury history

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24
Q

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?

a. Insulin-like growth factor
b. Insulin
c. Growth hormone
d. Testosterone

A

b. Insulin

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25
Q

Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions?

a. Saddle
b. Pivot
c. Hinge
d. Ball-and-socket

A

d. Ball-and-socket

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26
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?

a. Weightlifting
b. Running
c. Cycling
d. Yardwork

A

d. Yardwork

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27
Q

What are the three micronutrients?

a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids
d. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids

A

a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

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28
Q

A client is asked, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of what kind of question?

a. Closed-ended
b. Open-ended
c. Directive
d. Contemplation

A

b. Open-ended

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29
Q

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training?

a. Barbell chest press
b. Floor bridge
c. Deadlifts
d. Repeat step-ups

A

b. Floor bridge

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30
Q

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?

a. Barbell squat
b. Pull-up
c. Push-up
d. Bench press

A

d. Bench press

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31
Q

Which term refers to a person’s education, income, and occupation?

a. Socioeconomic status
b. Behavioral health
c. Emotional health
d. Global state of health

A

a. Socioeconomic status

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32
Q

What are triglycerides?

a. The stored form of carbohydrate
b. A substrate for anaerobic exercise
c. The stored form of fat
d. A substrate for high-intensity exercise

A

c. The stored form of fat

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33
Q

Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?

a. Exercising because they want to look better for others when on vacation
b. Exercising because it is fun
c. Exercising because a doctor tells them to
d. Exercising because they feel guilty

A

b. Exercising because it is fun

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34
Q

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?

a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
d. The location of where one foot touches the ground

A

a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

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35
Q

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?

a. 5 or 6 sets
b. 6 to 8 sets
c. 1 or 2 sets
d. 3 or 4 sets

A

c. 1 or 2 sets

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36
Q

What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended questions?

a. Closed-ended is asked in private; open-ended is not.
b. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers.
c. Open-ended is asked by the trainer; closed-ended is asked by the client.
d. Closed-ended allows for elaboration, while open-ended allows for one-word answers.

A

b. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers.

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37
Q

Where is it most common to take an individual’s circumference measurement to assess health risk?

a. Waist
b. Thigh
c. Hips
d. Arm

A

a. Waist

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38
Q

Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?

a. It is not a curable disease.
b. It is typically a stress-induced condition.
c. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms.
d. It is an acute disease.

A

a. It is not a curable disease.

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39
Q

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

a. Self-regulation
b. Intention
c. Outcome expectations
d. Self-efficacy

A

d. Self-efficacy

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40
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?

a. Teaching healthy portion sizes
b. Prescribing a supplement
c. Offering general advice on supplementation
d. Referring out to a dietitian

A

b. Prescribing a supplement

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41
Q

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?

a. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
b. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
c. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
d. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.

A

c. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

42
Q

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?

a. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine.
b. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training.
c. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
d. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss.

A

c. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

43
Q

What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service?

a. Providing complimentary water bottles
b. Advertising sales and discounts
c. Offering free T-shirts
d. Creating a brand identity

A

d. Creating a brand identity

44
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?

a. Synergistic dominance
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered length-tension relationship

A

a. Synergistic dominance

45
Q

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?

a. Nonsynovial
b. Pivot
c. Condyloid
d. Ball-and-socket

A

a. Nonsynovial

46
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?

a. 20 to 35% of total calories
b. 30 to 50% of total calories
c. 10 to 35% of total calories
d. 45 to 65% of total calories

A

d. 45 to 65% of total calories

47
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

a. The general adaptation syndrome describes how an individual emotionally adapts to positive reinforcement.
b. The general adaptation syndrome describes how humans evolve over time.
c. The general adaptation syndrome describes how traits are handed down from parents to offspring.
d. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

A

d. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

48
Q

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

a. 2 or 3 drills per workout
b. 1 or 2 drills per workout
c. 4 to 8 drills per workout
d. 9 or 10 drills per workout

A

c. 4 to 8 drills per workout

49
Q

What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?

a. Fortified foods
b. Legumes
c. Plant proteins
d. Animal proteins

A

d. Animal proteins

50
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?

a. Infraspinatus and teres minor
b. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae
c. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid
d. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris

A

a. Infraspinatus and teres minor

51
Q

What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?

a. Measurable
b. Specific
c. Attainable
d. Timely

A

a. Measurable

52
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

a. Local muscles
b. Local and global muscles
c. Back muscles only
d. Global muscles

A

a. Local muscles

53
Q

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?

a. Develop aerobic efficiency
b. Improve anaerobic capacity and power
c. Develop anaerobic capacity
d. Develop an appropriate aerobic base

A

d. Develop an appropriate aerobic base

54
Q

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?

a. Reach to their toes
b. Reach to their waist
c. Reach to their shin
d. Reach to their knee

A

d. Reach to their knee

55
Q

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?

a. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
b. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
c. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

A

b. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

56
Q

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?

a. Lack of social support
b. Ambivalence
c. Convenience
d. Lack of time

A

c. Convenience

57
Q

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?

a. 11
b. 7
c. 9
d. 3

A

c. 9

58
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?

a. Semi-dynamic balance
b. Static balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. High-level balance

A

c. Dynamic balance

59
Q

For conversion purposes, how many calories equals 1 pound (about 0.5 kilogram) of body fat?

a. 1,500 calories
b. 2,500 calories
c. 3,500 calories
d. 4,500 calories

A

c. 3,500 calories

60
Q

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus?

a. The hip shifting toward one side or the other
b. The knees bowing outward
c. The knees collapsing inward
d. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes

A

c. The knees collapsing inward

61
Q

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle

A

a. Right atrium

62
Q

Which of the following is considered an “under the water” foundational adaptation, per the “iceberg effect”?

a. Power
b. Strength
c. Endurance
d. Stability

A

d. Stability

63
Q

The primary characteristic of closed-chain movements is that the distal segments, such as the person’s hands or feet, are not fixed and are able to move freely.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

64
Q

What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker?

a. Reflective listening
b. Active listening
c. Motivational interviewing
d. Affirming

A

a. Reflective listening

65
Q

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?

a. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
b. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
c. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
d. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM

A

b. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

66
Q

The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?

a. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
b. Vitamin C, B complex, and D
c. Vitamin C, D, and K
d. Vitamin C, B complex, and K

A

a. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins

67
Q

What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?

a. Hypertrophy
b. Speed
c. Stabilization
d. Power

A

a. Hypertrophy

68
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Upper trapezius
c. Lower trapezius
d. Infraspinatus

A

b. Upper trapezius

69
Q

Which of the following best defines cholesterol?

a. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons
b. A raising of blood pressure
c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
d. A narrowing of arteries to the heart

A

c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells

70
Q

What is cardiac output?

a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction

A

a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

71
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?

a. Stationary balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. Static balance

A

c. Dynamic balance

72
Q

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less?

a. 0.5 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 1 in.
d. 1.5 in.

A

b. 2 in.

73
Q

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

a. 10 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 16 inches
d. 14 inches

A

b. 12 inches

74
Q

What is the main role of a personal trainer?

a. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes
b. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes
c. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients
d. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

A

d. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

75
Q

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?

a. Phase 5
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

A

b. Phase 2

76
Q

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?

a. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful.
b. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.
c. Eccentric contractions are minimized.
d. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces.

A

b. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

77
Q

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?

a. It requires less eccentric deceleration.
b. It requires the use of less elastic energy.
c. It decreases vertical jump height.
d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

A

d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

78
Q

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?

a. Appendicular
b. Peripheral
c. Lateral
d. Axial

A

a. Appendicular

79
Q

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year’s worth of programming?

a. Mesocycle
b. Macrocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Megacycle

A

b. Macrocycle

80
Q

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?

a. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls
b. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls
c. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags
d. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

A

d. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

81
Q

What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?

a. The same as daily value (DV)
b. The amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving
c. The amount recommended for the average person to take
d. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

A

d. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

82
Q

Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?

a. Thyroxin
b. Growth hormone
c. Testosterone
d. Cortisol

A

d. Cortisol

83
Q

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?

a. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
b. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic
c. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
d. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

A

d. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

84
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?

a. Knee varus
b. Knee dominance
c. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt
d. Knee valgus

A

a. Knee varus

85
Q

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise?

a. Lat pulldown
b. Machine leg extension
c. Push-ups
d. Biceps curls

A

c. Push-ups

86
Q

What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?

a. Muscle size
b. Speed of force reduction
c. Fat content
d. Speed of force generation

A

d. Speed of force generation

87
Q

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?

a. Clients with no comorbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
b. Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused
c. Clients with an underactive gluteal complex
d. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy

A

d. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy

88
Q

Which statement best describes the term deconditioned?

a. A state in which the individual is out of breath when climbing a flight of stairs
b. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability
c. A state in which a person is dealing with a chronic health condition
d. A state in which a person is overweight or obese and at risk for diabetes

A

b. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability

89
Q

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Young children and older adults
b. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
c. Cancer and bleeding disorders
d. Pregnancy and diabetes

A

c. Cancer and bleeding disorders

90
Q

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?

a. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
b. Posterior pelvic tilt with small low-back arch
c. Adducted and internally rotated knees
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and pronated feet

A

a. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

91
Q

Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what?

a. Better outcomes
b. Deficiency
c. Toxicity
d. Improved performance

A

c. Toxicity

92
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

a. Concentric
b. Isokinetic
c. Isometric
d. Eccentric

A

c. Isometric

93
Q

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?

a. 6
b. 2
c. 4
d. 9

A

c. 4

94
Q

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?

a. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
c. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers
d. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.

A

b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

95
Q

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?

a. 2 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 35 minutes

A

c. 10 minutes

96
Q

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

a. Multifidus
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Iliopsoas
d. Pectoralis major

A

a. Multifidus

97
Q

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

a. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
c. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
d. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening

A

a. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

98
Q

What is sarcopenia?

a. Lower than normal bone mineral density
b. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
c. Chronic inflammation of the joints
d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

A

d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

99
Q

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?

a. Only athletes need plyometric training.
b. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched.
c. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
d. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement.

A

c. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

100
Q

Which of the following chronic diseases is the leading cause of death in both men and women?

a. Stroke
b. Hypertension
c. Type 2 diabetes
d. Coronary artery disease

A

d. Coronary artery disease

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