Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 Big Time Study Deck > Deck 3 COPY COPY COPY > Flashcards

Deck 3 COPY COPY COPY Flashcards

1
Q

signs of greater trochanteric bursitis

A

chronic lateral hip pain, pain worse with hip flexion or lying on lateral side, focal tenderness on the trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the pleural fluid like in esophageal perf

A

high amylase (from saliva) and maybe some food particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

in zollinger ellison why is there fat malabsorption

A

the increased acid from the stomach secretions cause pancreatic enzyme inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

best way to decrease poor pulmonary outcomes in rib fracture

A

proper pain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where are toddlers fractures located

A

distal tibia and its a spiral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

signs of duodenal hematoma

A

billous emesis, blunt abdominal trauma, gastric dilation with scant gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

risk factors for rectus sheath hematoma

A

abdominal trauma or forceful abdominal contractions from coughing, anticoag therapy, older age, female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

signs of rectus sheath hematoma

A

acute onset abdominal pain with leukocytosis, blood loss anemia, palpable abdominal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aspiration pneumonitis signs

A

tachy, new pulmonary infiltrates, abrupt onset dyspnea,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

legg-calves-perths

A

ideopathic avascular necrosis of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TRALI signs

A

respiratory distress and non cardiogenic pulmonary edema, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ABX for lung abcses

A

ampicillin-sulbactam or a imipenem or clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the biliary tree look like on cholangiagram for primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

stricturing/dilation of intrahepatic &/or extrahepatic bile ducts on cholangiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

who gets primary sclerosing cholangiitis

A

people with crohns or IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

clinical features of a thyroid storm

A

fever, tachy, agitation, coma, lid leg, nausea,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

signs of granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

renal involvement, nose bleeds, lower airway bleeds in alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is osler-webber-rendu syndrome

A

hemorrhagic telangectasias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

signs of AVMs

A

nose bleeds, brain bleeds, recurrent epistaxis, chronic bleeds (GI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dx of a person with RUQ pain on OCPs and hypotension

A

hepatic adenoma rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

signs of acute cholangitis

A

RUQ pain, hypotension, increase tbili, fever, jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

anion gap in sepsis

A

high anion gap from increased lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is used as an indicator for priority of liver transplants

A

MELD-Na score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what marker is used for pancreatic cancer

A

CA19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RUQ pain, fever, and air in gallbladder wall dx

A

emphysematous cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

leg exam of femoral neck fracture

A

shortened leg, externally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

where can retropharngeal abbcesses travel to

A

mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pre-op management of pheo

A

alpha blocker and then beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is SVR like in hypovolemic shock

A

it is increased bc CO is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

etiology of perianal abscess

A

infection of an occluded anal crypt gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

imanagement of a pt with clear lower limb ischemia from trauma

A

urgent surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

post surgery colitis etiology

A

ischemic colotis at the watershed zones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the watershed zones in the colon

A

rectosignmoid juction and splenic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

signs of peritonitis

A

guarding, rigid, distention, inability to tolerate sitting upright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

slow onset joint effusion and catching sensation dx

A

meniscal tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

G6PD exacerbation Hb and indirect bili levels

A

low Hb and high bili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is gilbert syndrome

A

this is decreased activity of the UDP glucuronyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when is gilberts caught

A

typically in times of injury or stress to the body with infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is a baker cyst

A

this is extrusion of fluid from the joint space to the semimembraneous/gastroc bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

signs of baker cyst rupture

A

acute popping sensation, acute calf pain, warmth, eccymosis distal to medial malleolus in the shape of a crescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CT scan signs of acute diverticulitis

A

colonic wallt thickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what muscle is helpful for dividing planes of axillary nodes

A

pec minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

signs of catecholamine surge

A

pale, tachy, extreme hypertensin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what can exacerbate a pheo

A

injury, illness, anesthesia induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

post amputation stump pain with slight palpation dx

A

likely a neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

indications for emergency thoracotomy post chest tube

A

> 1500 ml initial output OR continued h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

first line treatment of mild UC

A

mesalamine (5-aminosalycilic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

new onset ascites with cirrhosis workup

A

abdominal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

greatest risk of acute glenohumeral dislocation

A

redislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

is more or less Cl reabsorbed during acidosis

A

less is reabsorbed aka it is excreted bc the body wants to remain electro neutral so there is decreased Cl reabsorption as more HCO3 is reabosorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CA19-9 level in cholangiocarcinoma

A

elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

if a patient is draining pancreatic fluid what is their acid/base status

A

they will become acidodic because they are losing base

52
Q

is calcium citrate soluble

A

yace

53
Q

normal pH of urine

A

> 5.5

54
Q

uric acid stone pH urine

A

<5.5

55
Q

etiology of post cholecystectomy diarrhea

A

bile acid diarrhea from excess bile dumping into the colon causing irritation and then diarrhea

56
Q

treatment of bile acid diarrhea

A

cholestyramine (bile acid binding resin)

57
Q

late complications of cholecystectomy

A

recurrent CBD stone, stricture, sphincter of ODDI dysfunction

58
Q

what does prominent V waves mean on JVP waveform

A

this is pathopneumonic for Tricuspid regurg

59
Q

primary causes of tricuspid regurg

A

myxomatous degeneration of the chordae tendinae

60
Q

pathophys of tricuspid regurg from LV failure

A

chronic dilation of the RV causes stretching of the chordae tendinae so they have increased tension and cant close properly

61
Q

pain sequence of patients with bowel perf

A

1) sudden sharp pain at perf 2) after perf-2 hours: temporary relief 3) generalized peritonitis +/- sepsis

62
Q

whats the most important prognostic factor for cancers

A

tumor stage

63
Q

signs of urethral stricture

A

high postvoid volume, weak stream

64
Q

treatment of proctatitis

A

fluoroquinolone

65
Q

why do patients get hypercalcemia with immobilization

A

this is because as you are sitting there is increased osteoclastic bone resorption and then this causes elevated Ca and then there is suppressed PTH b

66
Q

management of sigmoid volvulus

A

endoscopic untwisting

67
Q

clinical signs of dumping syndrome

A

occurs within 15-30 mins after eating, tachy, flushing, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps

68
Q

signs of bacterial overgrowth in the small intestine

A

frequent watery loose stools, excess gas, decreased B12 (bacteria eat it up)

69
Q

treatment of bacterial overgrowth in small intestine

A

ABX

70
Q

NEXUS criteria for needing CT imaging to remove C-collar

A

intoxication, somnolence, neuro deficit, spinal tenderness, altered mental status, distracting injury

71
Q

do you see filling defect in a fat embolism

A

no bc its microvascular occlusion

72
Q

triad of fat embolism

A

alterened mental status, respiratory distress, petechial rash

73
Q

most common skin cancer to result from a burn/ulcer

A

SCC

74
Q

liver abscess following diverticulitis trtment management

A

percutatneous drainage

75
Q

what is a keratocanthoma

A

this is a rapidly growing nodule with ulceration & keratin plug

76
Q

presentation of tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

Burning pain, numbness, or paresthesia of the medial ankle, heel, sole and toes

77
Q

etiology of tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

compression of the tibial nerve under the flexor retinaculum in the medial ankle

78
Q

what is pes planus

A

this is flat feet essentially flat arches

79
Q

tinnel sign

A

tapping on the tibial nerve in the posterior medial malleolus

80
Q

what is ludwig angina

A

this is cellulitis of the sublingual and submandibular space

81
Q

what is the immediate risk of ludwig angina

A

airway obstruction

82
Q

how do you diagnose colovesical fistula

A

CT scan with rectal contrast

83
Q

signs of colovesical fistula

A

bubbly urine, turbid, mixed flora in the urine on microscopy

84
Q

lung imaging pulmonary fibrosis

A

subpleural honeycombing, reticular opacities

85
Q

clinical signs of pulmonary fibrosis

A

Chronic progressive dyspnea, nonproductive cough, fatigue, Fine “Velcro” inspiratory crackles, digital clubbing

86
Q

what antibiotic is best for encapsulated bacteria and is broad spectrum

A

amox clav

87
Q

signs of complicated SBO and management

A

fever, hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia), guarding, leukocytosis, and significant metabolic acidosis –> take to surgery

88
Q

for patients with blunt cardiac trauma do you use TE-echo or regular echo (stable vs. unstable)

A

stable- reg echo // unstable- TE-echo

89
Q

what are indications for immediate laparotomy following blunt abdominal trauma

A

hemodynamic instability, peritonitis, evisceration, impalement

90
Q

are internal hemorrhoids painful

A

no

91
Q

what ABX should be avoided in a patient with aortic aneurysm

A

fluoroquinolone, bc of collagen

92
Q

treatment of anal fissure

A

High-fiber diet & adequate fluid intake, Stool softeners, Sitz baths, Topical anesthetics & vasodilators (eg, nifedipine, nitroglycerin)

93
Q

what is evisceration

A

this is when there is rectus abdominis dehiscence and then bowel herniatrion

94
Q

what is leriche syndrome

A

this is a triad of bilateral leg claudication, absent femoral/popliteal pulses, and impotence due to

95
Q

etiology of leriche syndrome

A

aortoiliac occlusion

96
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism dx findings

A

elevated PTH, elevated Ca, low phosphorous

97
Q

presentation of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

most ppl asymptomatic, mild nonspecific sx, renal stones, etc.

98
Q

how to dx primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroid imaging and parathyroidectomy

99
Q

most common cause primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroid adenoma

100
Q

most common bugs for septic bursitis

A

skin flora

101
Q

LA size, LV size and LV ejection fraction in acute mitral regurg

A

all normal except ejection fraction might be slightly increased bc the end systolic volume is less

102
Q

signs of nasal septal perforation

A

whistling during respiration and

103
Q

common post op complication after rhinoplasty

A

nasal septal perforation

104
Q

what do you injure falling on your lateral ankle

A

you invert your foot so you injure your anterior talofibular ligament

105
Q

do you need xray for likely ATFL injury

A

no

106
Q

treatment of ATFL injury

A

conservative management with ice, braces and crutches

107
Q

burn patients with organ dysfunction etiology

A

hypoperfusion or just dysfunction due to infection etc. do not assume there is a bowel obstruction first

108
Q

how to dx osteomyelitis

A

bone biopsy unless BCX are positive and there are imaging findings

109
Q

how do you dx gallstones

A

abdominal U/S

110
Q

causes of noninfective endocarditis

A

cancer or hypercoagualbe state

111
Q

signs of back pain being malignancy

A

worse at night, not relieved by rest or ibuprofen

112
Q

if a chest tube is persistenly leaking what should you do

A

a broncoscopy because there is likely a tracheal injury allowing air in

113
Q

what ABX for calculous cholecystitis

A

pip-tazobac

114
Q

soft signs for arterial injury

A

diminished pulses, unexplained hypotension, stable hematoma, associated neuro defecit

115
Q

what to do if only soft signs for arterial injury

A

do more imaging

116
Q

hard signs for arterial injury

A

distal limb ischemia, absent pulses, active hemorrhage, bruit or thrill at site of injury

117
Q

sounds of mitral stenosis

A

diastolic rumble and early diastolic murmur

118
Q

CT signs of pulmonary contusion

A

peripheral anterior ground glass opacities (blood)

119
Q

triad of fat embolism

A

pulmonary distress, neuro changes, and petechial rash

120
Q

etiology of supporative sialdadentitis

A

salivary gland stasis causes retrograde seeding of bacteria

121
Q

clinical signs of supporative parotitis

A

Firm, erythematous pre/postauricular swelling, systemic findings, elderly paitents

122
Q

etiologies of paralytic ileus

A

abdominal surgery, opioid use, inflammation, ischemia, electrolyte abnormalities

123
Q

imaging of paralytic ileus

A

uniformly dilated bowel wtih no air fluid levels, NO transition piont,

124
Q

when do you have to do valve repair before surgery

A

if they are having sx of the valve impiarment

125
Q

what two cancers are associated with RB1 mutation

A

osteosarc and retinoblastoma

126
Q

what mutation is associated wtih ewings

A

chromosome 22 translocation

127
Q

lytic bone lesion in the distal femur with “sunburst” periosteal reaction (concentric layers of reactive bone

A

osteosarc

Step 2 Big Time Study Deck (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions