Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 Big Time Study Deck > Deck 1 COPY COPY COPY > Flashcards

Deck 1 COPY COPY COPY Flashcards

1
Q

what does the breath smell like of distant SBO

A

fecal matter from bacterial overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does whirl sign indicate

A

bowel is twisted on mesentary very bad go to OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what lab is elevated in a SBO

A

lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what electrolyte abnormality can cause intestinal ileus

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

management of intestinal ileus

A

nasogastric suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

first line treatment of asymptomatic cholelithiasis

A

lifestyle mod (low fat diet and exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is erylipseas presentation

A

induration, sharp borders, fever, erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment of erylipseas with systemic sx

A

IV cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

first line treatment of ureteral stones <10mm

A

tamusulin (stops the ureter contractions) and dihydropyridine CCBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

do you need to repair umbilical hernia in kids

A

no unless its symptomaticv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

livery enzymes and tbilly levels in biliary colic

A

all normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signs of biliary colic

A

post prandial RUQ pain, nausea vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

etiology of biliary colic

A

increased intraluminal pressure due to contracting against an occluded cystic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

early indicator of NEC in an infant

A

abrupt change in feeding status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does porcelain gallbladder put a patient at increased risk of

A

gallladder adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does porcelain gallbladder look like on CT

A

a ring around the gallbladder due to calcium deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indications for CT in orbital trauma

A

pain with eye movement, inadequate exam, decreased visual acuity, severe eye pain, foreign eye body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

septic shock/critical illness + GI bleed dx

A

stress ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is normal ankle brachial index

A

> .9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

indications for revascularization of peripheral arteries

A

<.9 ankle brachial index, absent dorsalis pedis pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

next step in blunt trauma to the kidney

A

CT abdomen pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is otosclerosis

A

bony overgrowth of the ossicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

signs of otosclerosis

A

hearing better in loud environments, conductive hearing loss, reddish hue behind basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CT scan of focal nodular hyperplasia

A

well circumscribed with central scarr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

signs of buckle fracture on xray of a child

A

cortical bulging at metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dx of person with vertigo and dizziness with pressure changes

A

perilymphatic fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

perilymphatic fistula exacerbating factors

A

valsalva, elevators, sneezing, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cause of elevated LFTs post MI

A

hepatic ischmic necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what needs to happen in the first hour of a suspected sepsis patient

A

IV fluids and IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

types of gallstones

A

pigment or cholesterol stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

patient population that can have acalculous cholecystitis

A

HIV pts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

presentation of cholecystitis

A

RUQ pain, fever, radiating pain to shoulder, nausea, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

insulinoma benign or malignant

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

gastrinoma common location

A

wall of duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when do you start to see sx from carcinoid tumors

A

once there is liver mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

signs of abdominal compartment syndrome

A

tense distended abdomen, increased ventilatory requirements, increased CVP, hypotension and tachy (due to decreased CO), decreased urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most common liver mass

A

metastatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

heme pos stool, iron def anemia, solitary liver mass

A

colorectal CA plus liver met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

immediate treatment of unstable snake bite patient

A

antivenom and coag studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

xray signs of diaphragmatic paralysis

A

inspirational discordance of diaphragm elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

dx of diaphragmatic paralysis

A

fluoroscopic diaphragm imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

treatment of ischemic priapism

A

aspiration of corpus cavernosum and interpenile injection of phenylephrine to induce vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the major type of gastric cancer

A

intestinal type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

pain in scrotum following trauma dx

A

testicular torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

signs of medial meniscus tear

A

acute popping sensation at injury, joint line tenderness, normal gait, interanal and external rotation pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

steatorrhea plus hx of heavy drinking dx

A

chronic pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

treatment of chronic panc

A

panc enzyme replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what tests do you need to order on ascitic fluid

A

albumin and cell count w/diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what imaging do trauma pts in high energy mechanistic crashes need

A

CT C spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

who needs ABX after abscess drainage

A

pts. with systemic sx or chronic illnesses predisposing them to infection risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

eval of rectal adeno ca

A

CT to see if mets in liver, stomach, panc etc, and total colonoscopy

52
Q

for patients with no major illnesses do they need preop testing

A

no

53
Q

nasopharyngeal carcinoma etiology

A

EBV infection

54
Q

what is hemobilia

A

bleeding into the biliary tract

55
Q

signs of hemobilia

A

melena, RUQ pain, high Tbilly, jaundice, anemia

56
Q

treatment of HIT

A

stop the heparin and start a direct thrombin inhibitor

57
Q

what is a poor prognostic lab for acute pancreatitis

A

blood urea nitrogen

58
Q

what does elevated BUN reflect

A

intravascular volume depletion

59
Q

immediate treatment of distal radius fractures

A

closed reduction on the ER

60
Q

spider bite wound typical clinical course

A

ulcer follwed by necrosis and eschar

61
Q

treatment of acute cellular rejection

A

increase immunosuppresion therapy

62
Q

trauma blood loss cause of cardiac arrest

A

decreased RV preload

63
Q

sebhorric keratosis clinical ID

A

stuck on waxy appearance shriveled black mole like thing

64
Q

sebhorric keratosis management

A

no further management, I.e. no biopsy

65
Q

treatment of osteomyelitis in sickel cell kiddos

A

clinda and cef

66
Q

treatment of osteomyelitis in otherwise healthy kiddos

A

vanc or clinda

67
Q

acute mediastinitis treatment

A

wound debridement and ABBX

68
Q

signs of posterior hip dislocation

A

leg is shortened, internally rotated, hip is flexed and adducted

69
Q

signs of fourniers gangrene

A

pain scrotum, hypotension, high fever, leukocytosis, perinieum with crepitus

70
Q

what other imaging is needed for clavicle fracture

A

CT chest to check for blood vessel damage

71
Q

if a patient is stable and has a likely PE what test is confirmatory

A

chest CT angio

72
Q

vax’s for asplenic adult patients

A

meningococcus, pneumococcus, Hib

73
Q

what types of polyps need more frequent screening

A

adematous and serrated

74
Q

what is the heart countour like on CXR for cardiac tampanode

A

normal sillouhette

75
Q

what side do you place someone who has a venous air embolism

A

left lateral decubitous because the air embolism travels to the right side of the heart

76
Q

what are patients with extreme thermal burns at risk of

A

acute compartment syndrome, rhabdo, AKI

77
Q

RCC presentation

A

paraneoplastic syndromes with elevated Ca, hematuria, intermitent fevers, weight loss

78
Q

next step after clinical dx of acute limb ischemia

A

heparin infusion and then possible thrombectomy

79
Q

kidney appearance of renal vein thrombosis

A

enlarged w/out hydronephrosis

80
Q

what conditions lead to renal vein thrombosis

A

hypercoagubility (nephrotic syndrome, malignancy) or trauma

81
Q

surgical complications post bariatric surgery

A

anastomotic leak, strictures, hernias

82
Q

mallory weiss syndrome presentation

A

hematemesis, epigastric pain, retching

83
Q

who gets mallory weiss

A

alcoholics, people with hiatal hernia

84
Q

sx of groin hernia

A

intermittant groin swelling and pain aggravated by activities where the pt. is increasing abdominal pressure

85
Q

imaging of a vascular ring in esophagus

A

deep impression on the posterior aspect of the esophagus

86
Q

clinical presentation of vascular ring

A

sudden weight loss in child, solid food impaction, stridor

87
Q

clinical features of melanoma

A

A: asymmetry // B: border irregularitie // C: color variation // D: diameter >6mm // E: evolving

88
Q

clinical features of plantar fasciitis

A

pain directly on bottom of heel, increased pain with standing after rest, pain on hard surfaces

89
Q

acute adrenal insufficiency etiology

A

adrenal hemorrhage, illness/surgery in people with chronic AI

90
Q

who gets chronic adrenal insufficiency

A

people on glucocorticoids

91
Q

signs of spontaneous pneumomediastinum

A

crepitus on chest examination, acute chest pain, cough, subq emphysema

92
Q

what do you do if you suspect pneumomediastinum

A

CXR

93
Q

signs of ABO incompatiblityq

A

reaction is about 1hr later, fever, flank pain, DIC, positive coombs test

94
Q

signs of IgA antibodies against donor blood

A

anaphalaxis, wheezing, angioedema etc.

95
Q

falling on outstreached hand (FOOSH) injury bone/nerve

A

colles fracture (distal radius) impacts median nerve

96
Q

what do you do for a corneal abrasion

A

topical antibiotics no patch

97
Q

signs of giant cell tumor on xray

A

lytic lesion in the epiphysis, soap bubble appearance

98
Q

what is the cardiac index like in cardiac tampanode

A

it is decreased

99
Q

what is the SVR like in cardiac tampanode

A

SVR is increased because CO is decreased

100
Q

halos in visual field at night

A

this typically means cataracts can also be acute close angle glaucoma

101
Q

nec faciitis clinical signs

A

often relatively minor injury, pain out of proportion to injury, signs of septic shock, swelling/edema/crepitus,

102
Q

most common complication post ERCP

A

acute panc

103
Q

first step to dx acute panc

A

serum lipase and amylase

104
Q

signs of septic bursitis

A

increasing pain, swelling, fever, erythema, chills etc

105
Q

management of septic bursitis

A

image guided needle aspiration of fluid and antibiotics

106
Q

turbid green fluid from a chest tube

A

gastric contents

107
Q

signs of esophageal perf

A

chest/back pain, crepitus, hammans sign, pleural effusion draining green fluid

108
Q

what is neuropathic arthropathy

A

this is repetitive joint trauma due to impaired sensation from diabetic neuropathy can cause joint destruction and osteo/infections etc

109
Q

osteitis fibrosa cystica xray findings

A

lytic lesions and cortical thinning

110
Q

neuropathic arthropathy findings xray

A

diffuse bone distruction

111
Q

what does wide spread PR depression indicate on telemetry

A

pericarditis

112
Q

how to evaluate for pericardiitis

A

echo

113
Q

clinical signs of surgical subcutaneous emphysema and management

A

crunchy chest, some subq air seen on chest xray, no need for furhter workup

114
Q

do you want to bolus someone in hemorrhagic shock

A

no because it dilutes existing coagulation products (platelets etc) so you want to use blood products instead

115
Q

risks of fluid resuscitation in hemorrhage

A

coagulopathy, metabolic acidosis, increased mortality

116
Q

management of testicular cancer

A

inguinal orchiectomy, do not biopsy it prevents spread

117
Q

management steps of osteoarthritis

A

weight loss and exercise, then pain management then total knee arthroplasty

118
Q

when does fever show up after surgery if you have a post op infection

A

> 24 hours later

119
Q

what organ is most frequently injured in blunt abdominal trauma

A

spleen

120
Q

causes of schincter of oddi dysfunction

A

stenosis due to obsctruction or dyskinesia

121
Q

tension pneumothorax xray imaging

A

radiolucency and the mediastinum shifts away from the pressure

122
Q

what bug causes septic arthritis and what antibiotics do you use

A

staph and you use vanc and cef

123
Q

causes of acute rotator cuff injury

A

acute glenohumoral dislocation

124
Q

signs of rotator cuff injury

A

inability to abduct the shoulder, lateral shoulder pain, positive arm drop test

125
Q

right sided vs. left sided colon CA presentation

A

Right: occult blood, iron def anemia // Left: bright red blood and stool changes, crampy pain

126
Q

ileus xray

A

no air fluid levels just dilated loops of bowel

127
Q

SBO xray

A

air fluid levels

Step 2 Big Time Study Deck (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions