DAT bootcamp test 2 cards Flashcards
1
Q
Is Br, or F a better leaving group
A
Br is a good leaving group
F is not a good leaving group
2
Q
What happens when HCN tries to replace Br, and F
A
the Br will be replaced by CN, flipping the stereochemistry
the F will not be replaced because it is a bad leaving group
3
Q
is H2O a strong or weak Nu
A
weak
4
Q
what kind of reactions do strong Nu’s do
A
Sn2
5
Q
what kind of reactions do weak Nu’s do
A
Sn1
6
Q
What separation technique must be used to seperate enantiomers
A
there are no traditional ones
7
Q
how can you separate diastereomers
A
distillation
8
Q
which is more polar a simple carbon chain, or the same chain symmetrically halogenated
A
the halogenated one is more polar because it has some polar bonds, the carbon chain has no polar bonds
9
Q
Which has more steric bulk on a double bond a CH3 group, or a benzene ring
A
CH3 group,
10
Q
Are Z isomers always less stable than E isomers
A
nope (benzene and CH3 is a good example)
11
Q
What is the order of reactivity of carboxylic acid derivatives
A
Acid chloride anhydride aldehyde ketone acid and ester amide
12
Q
what does mCPBA do to a double bond
A
epoxidation
13
Q
What does NaOH do to an epoxide
A
opens and oxidizes it to a TRANS diol
14
Q
What does the Jones reagent do to secondary alcohols
Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4, H2O
A
oxidizes them to ketones
15
Q
What is important to know when performing an aldol condensation and trying to only get one product
A
between the two reactants you can only have one set of alpha Hydrogens. if you have more you will get multiple products
16
Q
What does the reagent CH3CH2Li, EtO do to carbonyl’s
A
the CH3CH2 attacks the carbonyl carbon
17
Q
when are organo lithium reactions used
A
to create C-C bonds
18
Q
What does Ph3Ph+–CH2- (Wittig reagent) do
A
forms an alkene between the carbonyl carbon and the carbon in the witting reagent`
19
Q
What does the jones reagent (Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4, H2O) do to primary alcohols
A
oxidizes them to carboxylic acids
20
Q
What can happen to beta-carboxylic acids with heat and acid
A
they can decarboxylate into CO2
21
Q
How can you convert a nitrile (CN) into a carboxylic acid
A
heating the nitrile in aqueous acid
H3O+, heat
22
Q
Why must you use an aprotic solvent with grignard reagents
A
grignard reagents are strongly basic and will react with protic solvents
23
Q
What is the best way to judge acidity of common molecules
A
look at the stability of their conjugate bases (more stable conjugate base = stronger acid)
24
Q
What does a low pKa mean
A
the lower the pKa, the stronger the acid
25
What are the strongest bases
amines
26
What are the steps in determining which resonance structures are the best
1. fill as many octets as possible
2. minimize formal charges
3. charge localization
4. avoid seperation of opposite charges
27
What is another supplimental rule to aromaticity
each atom must have a p orbital (cannot be sp3
28
What does a radical unpaired electron count as when talking or orbitals.
it doesn't count
so if you had a carbon bound to three things and had a radical it would be sp2, not sp3 (if you had a carbon bound to three things and had a lone pair it would be sp3)
29
What is the hidden reactant in combustion equations
O2 is a reactant CO2 and H2O are the products
30
there is one mole in ___ liters at standard pressure and temperature
22.4
31
is mercury polar or nonpolar
non polar
32
does mercury ionize
nope
33
what are colligative properties
properties that are based on the number of solvent and solute particles in solution
34
What are intensive properties
properties that depend on the identity of the substance itself
35
What is the boiling point elevation equation
```
Delta Tb = i x m x Kb
Tb = change in boiling point
i = vant hoff (how many particles the solute dissociates into)
m = molality
Kb = water boiling point constant
```
36
What is Keq
an indicator to the balance of products and reactants at equilibrium
37
What is Q
an indicator to the balance of products and reactants at a given time
38
what is the only thing that can change Keq in a reaction
temperature
39
are bond dissociation energies positive or negative
positive ( we have to put energy in)
40
What is the half life equation
t(1/2) = .693/K
41
what is the standard oxidation state of O
-2
42
in quantum numbers if l (azimuthal) is 0 what is ml
0
43
what are the possibilities of quantum number L
n-1 and less
44
what are the possibilities of quantum number mL
0 +/- L
45
What are the possitibilites of wuantum number ms
1/2, -1/2
46
how many resonance structures are there for ozone
2
47
What do you do when multiplying (significant figures)
you use the smallest number of significant figures
48
What do you do when adding (significant figures)
you use the smallest number of decimal points
49
how is precise determined
precise means low standard deviation (each measurement was pretty close)
50
how is accuracy determined
how close you were to the right answer
51
What happens in alpha decay
1. emission of He (2 protons and 2 neutrons)
| 2. -4 in the mass number, -2 in the atomic number
52
What happens in beta decay
1. neutron turns into a proton and emits an e-
| 2. no change in mass number, +1 in atomic number
53
What is gamma decay
1. emission of photons
| 2. no change in atomic or mass number (prepares it to do another typeof decay)
54
what is electron capture
1. an atom catches an electron, which combines with a proton to form a neutron
2. no change in mass number, -1 in atomic number
55
What are the rules for significant figures
1. non zero numbers are always significant
2. zero's between non zeros are always significant
3. all zeros which are both to the right of the decimal, and at the end of a number are significant
4. if you can get rid of the 0's with scientific notation they aren't significant
56
Where does the energy used to drive the light independent reactions of photosynthesis come from?
A. Substrate level phosphorylation
B. The breakdown of glucose
C. Photolysis of water to release electrons
D. ATP produced by mitochondria
E. Photons absorbed by chlorophyll
E
57
```
If 2n=8, how many chromosomes are present during anaphase?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
```
D
2n = 8 represents the normal number of chromosomes in the cell (8)
in anaphase the chromosome number has doubled before it gets split (16)
58
What creates the cleavage furrow in cytokinesis of animal cells
microfilaments encircling the cell and shortening, pulling the membranes together
59
Are chaperones used in cytokinesis
no they are used in protein synthesis
60
What does amphiphatic mean
the molecule has both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions
61
what determines the order of pelliting during centrofugation
the heavier the molecule, the faster it will pellet
62
```
An animal cell was lysed, placed in a test tube, and centrifuged. Which organelle would pellet from the centrifuge first?
A. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi complex
E. Nucleus
```
E. the nucleus is the heaviest and largest, so it will pellet first
63
What elements were part of earths primitive atmosphere
(NOT O2) it was too oxidizing, the environment then was very reducing
64
What does SDS do
denatures and adds a negative charge to proteins
65
Catabolism vs. anabolism
```
Catabolism = breaking down = exergonic
anabolism = building up = endogonic
```
66
```
All of the following directly use an electrochemical gradient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Flagella rotation
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Aquaporins
E. Neurons
```
Aquaporins
| they are protein structures in membranes that help water passively flow in or out of the cell
67
What is the order in alternation of generations
1. sporophyte gives rise to spores
2. 1 spore gives rise to a gametophyte
3. gametophytes give rise to gametes
4. 2 gametes give rise to a sporophyte
68
What is a coelom
a cavity lined epithelium
69
```
Which of the following lack a true coelom?
A. Flatworms
B. Annelids
C. Echinoderms
D. Chordates
E. Mollusks
```
Flatworms
Mollusks barely have a coelom, but they do
70
Where is the coelom formed from
mesoderm
71
What is the order of classification systems
```
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
```
Dear King Philip Come Over For Good Soup
72
What are arthropods
1. spiders, insects, crustaceans
| 2. exoskeleton of chitin
73
what is the lifecycle of arthropods
larvae
pupa
metamorphosis
adult
Lobster please meet arachnids
74
What are the two posterior pituitary hormones
Oxytocin
| Vasopressin (ADH)
75
What does the pineal gland do
produces and secretes melatonin
76
What is the acronym to remember ant. pit, hormones
FLATPG
```
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
P
HGH
```
77
What is the function and reaction from calcitonin
increasing osteoblasts to build bone
| decreases blood calcium levels
78
What is the opposite hormone for calcitonin
parathyroid hormone
79
Which layer of skin conserves heat and acts as a shock absorber
subcutaneous layer
| made of fat
80
What is the order of skin layer
epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous
81
What is the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous
1. dead skin cells and melanin
2. blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, nerves
3. fat and collagen
82
What is the last thing that sperm must do before they are ready to fertalize an egg
capacitation (destabilizes the acrosome) happens in the oviduct
83
What does the ectoderm produce
```
outside things and the nervous system
epidermis of skin
hair
nails
lens of the eye
tooth enamel
```
84
what does the mesoderm produce
```
all of the real inside stuff
dermis of skin
muscle
kidneys
gonads respiratory tracts
skeleton
circulatory system
```
85
what does the endoderm produce the false interior things
lining of respiratory tracts
lining of digestive tracts
liver
pancreas
86
What is a morula, blastula, gastrula
1. morula is a big ball of undifferentiated cells
2. blastula all of those cells have been pushed to the edge
3. gastrula is when those cells have invaginated into the liquid of the blastula to make the 3 layers
87
What produces the majority of the cytoplasm in a developing zygote
the oocyte
88
what does the fact that the egg gives the cytoplasm mean
that ribosomes and mitochondria come from the mother
89
what does the allantois do and become
it transfers waste and becomes the umbilical cord
90
What do restriction enzymes do
cut up DNA at specific fragments
91
what is a nonsense mutation
when the codon is converted into a stop codon
92
what is epistasis
when one gene affects the expression of another gene
93
what is pleiotropy
when a single gene has many phenotypic outcomes
94
what is polygenic inheritance
when one trait is controlled by many genes
95
what is the equation to figure out how many different gametes could be produced by a certain set of alleles
2^n = number of different gametes
2 because there are 2 alleles per gene
n = number of different genes
96
What is the fundamental niche/realised niche of an organism
fundamental niche is the environmental conditions in which an organism could live
realised niche is where the organism actually lives in the environment
97
What is it called when a geographic barrier separates a population, which forms a new species
allopatric speciation
98
what is sympatric speciation
when a population forms a new species without a geographic barrier
99
What are the three types of natural selection and what do they cause
Disruptive - extreme values for the trait are valued, intermediate traits die out
directional - one extreme trait is not valued, so it goes away, increasing the aomout of the other
stabilizing - when the extreme traits aren't valued, they go away and the intermediate values make up a higher percent of the population
100
what is mutualism
commensialism
parasitism
amensalism
mutualism - both benefit
commensialism - one benefits, one doesn't care
parasitism - one benefits, one is harmed
amensalism - one is harmed, the other is unaffected
