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DAT > DAT bootcamp test 2 cards > Flashcards

DAT bootcamp test 2 cards Flashcards

1
Q

Is Br, or F a better leaving group

A

Br is a good leaving group

F is not a good leaving group

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2
Q

What happens when HCN tries to replace Br, and F

A

the Br will be replaced by CN, flipping the stereochemistry

the F will not be replaced because it is a bad leaving group

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3
Q

is H2O a strong or weak Nu

A

weak

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4
Q

what kind of reactions do strong Nu’s do

A

Sn2

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5
Q

what kind of reactions do weak Nu’s do

A

Sn1

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6
Q

What separation technique must be used to seperate enantiomers

A

there are no traditional ones

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7
Q

how can you separate diastereomers

A

distillation

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8
Q

which is more polar a simple carbon chain, or the same chain symmetrically halogenated

A

the halogenated one is more polar because it has some polar bonds, the carbon chain has no polar bonds

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9
Q

Which has more steric bulk on a double bond a CH3 group, or a benzene ring

A

CH3 group,

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10
Q

Are Z isomers always less stable than E isomers

A

nope (benzene and CH3 is a good example)

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11
Q

What is the order of reactivity of carboxylic acid derivatives

A 
Acid chloride
anhydride
aldehyde
ketone
acid and ester
amide
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12
Q

what does mCPBA do to a double bond

A

epoxidation

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13
Q

What does NaOH do to an epoxide

A

opens and oxidizes it to a TRANS diol

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14
Q

What does the Jones reagent do to secondary alcohols

Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4, H2O

A

oxidizes them to ketones

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15
Q

What is important to know when performing an aldol condensation and trying to only get one product

A

between the two reactants you can only have one set of alpha Hydrogens. if you have more you will get multiple products

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16
Q

What does the reagent CH3CH2Li, EtO do to carbonyl’s

A

the CH3CH2 attacks the carbonyl carbon

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17
Q

when are organo lithium reactions used

A

to create C-C bonds

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18
Q

What does Ph3Ph+–CH2- (Wittig reagent) do

A

forms an alkene between the carbonyl carbon and the carbon in the witting reagent`

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19
Q

What does the jones reagent (Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4, H2O) do to primary alcohols

A

oxidizes them to carboxylic acids

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20
Q

What can happen to beta-carboxylic acids with heat and acid

A

they can decarboxylate into CO2

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21
Q

How can you convert a nitrile (CN) into a carboxylic acid

A

heating the nitrile in aqueous acid

H3O+, heat

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22
Q

Why must you use an aprotic solvent with grignard reagents

A

grignard reagents are strongly basic and will react with protic solvents

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23
Q

What is the best way to judge acidity of common molecules

A

look at the stability of their conjugate bases (more stable conjugate base = stronger acid)

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24
Q

What does a low pKa mean

A

the lower the pKa, the stronger the acid

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25
Q

What are the strongest bases

A

amines

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26
Q

What are the steps in determining which resonance structures are the best

A
  1. fill as many octets as possible
  2. minimize formal charges
  3. charge localization
  4. avoid seperation of opposite charges
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27
Q

What is another supplimental rule to aromaticity

A

each atom must have a p orbital (cannot be sp3

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28
Q

What does a radical unpaired electron count as when talking or orbitals.

A

it doesn’t count
so if you had a carbon bound to three things and had a radical it would be sp2, not sp3 (if you had a carbon bound to three things and had a lone pair it would be sp3)

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29
Q

What is the hidden reactant in combustion equations

A

O2 is a reactant CO2 and H2O are the products

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30
Q

there is one mole in ___ liters at standard pressure and temperature

A

22.4

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31
Q

is mercury polar or nonpolar

A

non polar

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32
Q

does mercury ionize

A

nope

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33
Q

what are colligative properties

A

properties that are based on the number of solvent and solute particles in solution

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34
Q

What are intensive properties

A

properties that depend on the identity of the substance itself

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35
Q

What is the boiling point elevation equation

A 
Delta Tb = i x m x Kb
Tb = change in boiling point
i = vant hoff (how many particles the solute dissociates into)
m = molality
Kb = water boiling point constant
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36
Q

What is Keq

A

an indicator to the balance of products and reactants at equilibrium

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37
Q

What is Q

A

an indicator to the balance of products and reactants at a given time

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38
Q

what is the only thing that can change Keq in a reaction

A

temperature

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39
Q

are bond dissociation energies positive or negative

A

positive ( we have to put energy in)

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40
Q

What is the half life equation

A

t(1/2) = .693/K

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41
Q

what is the standard oxidation state of O

A

-2

42
Q

in quantum numbers if l (azimuthal) is 0 what is ml

A

0

43
Q

what are the possibilities of quantum number L

A

n-1 and less

44
Q

what are the possibilities of quantum number mL

A

0 +/- L

45
Q

What are the possitibilites of wuantum number ms

A

1/2, -1/2

46
Q

how many resonance structures are there for ozone

A

2

47
Q

What do you do when multiplying (significant figures)

A

you use the smallest number of significant figures

48
Q

What do you do when adding (significant figures)

A

you use the smallest number of decimal points

49
Q

how is precise determined

A

precise means low standard deviation (each measurement was pretty close)

50
Q

how is accuracy determined

A

how close you were to the right answer

51
Q

What happens in alpha decay

A
  1. emission of He (2 protons and 2 neutrons)

2. -4 in the mass number, -2 in the atomic number

52
Q

What happens in beta decay

A
  1. neutron turns into a proton and emits an e-

2. no change in mass number, +1 in atomic number

53
Q

What is gamma decay

A
  1. emission of photons

2. no change in atomic or mass number (prepares it to do another typeof decay)

54
Q

what is electron capture

A
  1. an atom catches an electron, which combines with a proton to form a neutron
  2. no change in mass number, -1 in atomic number
55
Q

What are the rules for significant figures

A
  1. non zero numbers are always significant
  2. zero’s between non zeros are always significant
  3. all zeros which are both to the right of the decimal, and at the end of a number are significant
  4. if you can get rid of the 0’s with scientific notation they aren’t significant
56
Q

Where does the energy used to drive the light independent reactions of photosynthesis come from?
A. Substrate level phosphorylation
B. The breakdown of glucose
C. Photolysis of water to release electrons
D. ATP produced by mitochondria
E. Photons absorbed by chlorophyll

A

E

57
Q 
If 2n=8, how many chromosomes are present during anaphase?
  A. 2
  B. 4
  C. 8
  D. 16
  E. 32
A

D

2n = 8 represents the normal number of chromosomes in the cell (8)

in anaphase the chromosome number has doubled before it gets split (16)

58
Q

What creates the cleavage furrow in cytokinesis of animal cells

A

microfilaments encircling the cell and shortening, pulling the membranes together

59
Q

Are chaperones used in cytokinesis

A

no they are used in protein synthesis

60
Q

What does amphiphatic mean

A

the molecule has both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions

61
Q

what determines the order of pelliting during centrofugation

A

the heavier the molecule, the faster it will pellet

62
Q 
An animal cell was lysed, placed in a test tube, and centrifuged. Which organelle would pellet from the centrifuge first?
  A. Ribosome
  B. Lysosome
  C. Mitochondria
  D. Golgi complex
  E. Nucleus
A

E. the nucleus is the heaviest and largest, so it will pellet first

63
Q

What elements were part of earths primitive atmosphere

A

(NOT O2) it was too oxidizing, the environment then was very reducing

64
Q

What does SDS do

A

denatures and adds a negative charge to proteins

65
Q

Catabolism vs. anabolism

A 
Catabolism = breaking down = exergonic
anabolism = building up = endogonic
66
Q 
All of the following directly use an electrochemical gradient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
  A. Flagella rotation
  B. Mitochondria
  C. Chloroplasts
  D. Aquaporins
  E. Neurons
A

Aquaporins

they are protein structures in membranes that help water passively flow in or out of the cell

67
Q

What is the order in alternation of generations

A
  1. sporophyte gives rise to spores
  2. 1 spore gives rise to a gametophyte
  3. gametophytes give rise to gametes
  4. 2 gametes give rise to a sporophyte
68
Q

What is a coelom

A

a cavity lined epithelium

69
Q 
Which of the following lack a true coelom?
  A. Flatworms
  B. Annelids
  C. Echinoderms
  D. Chordates
  E. Mollusks
A

Flatworms

Mollusks barely have a coelom, but they do

70
Q

Where is the coelom formed from

A

mesoderm

71
Q

What is the order of classification systems

A 
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class 
Order
Family
Genus 
Species

Dear King Philip Come Over For Good Soup

72
Q

What are arthropods

A
  1. spiders, insects, crustaceans

2. exoskeleton of chitin

73
Q

what is the lifecycle of arthropods

A

larvae
pupa
metamorphosis
adult

Lobster please meet arachnids

74
Q

What are the two posterior pituitary hormones

A

Oxytocin

Vasopressin (ADH)

75
Q

What does the pineal gland do

A

produces and secretes melatonin

76
Q

What is the acronym to remember ant. pit, hormones

A

FLATPG

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
P
HGH
77
Q

What is the function and reaction from calcitonin

A

increasing osteoblasts to build bone

decreases blood calcium levels

78
Q

What is the opposite hormone for calcitonin

A

parathyroid hormone

79
Q

Which layer of skin conserves heat and acts as a shock absorber

A

subcutaneous layer

made of fat

80
Q

What is the order of skin layer

A

epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous

81
Q

What is the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous

A
  1. dead skin cells and melanin
  2. blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, nerves
  3. fat and collagen
82
Q

What is the last thing that sperm must do before they are ready to fertalize an egg

A

capacitation (destabilizes the acrosome) happens in the oviduct

83
Q

What does the ectoderm produce

A 
outside things and the nervous system 
epidermis of skin
hair
nails
lens of the eye
tooth enamel
84
Q

what does the mesoderm produce

A 
all of the real inside stuff
dermis of skin
muscle
kidneys
gonads respiratory tracts
skeleton
circulatory system
85
Q

what does the endoderm produce the false interior things

A

lining of respiratory tracts
lining of digestive tracts
liver
pancreas

86
Q

What is a morula, blastula, gastrula

A
  1. morula is a big ball of undifferentiated cells
  2. blastula all of those cells have been pushed to the edge
  3. gastrula is when those cells have invaginated into the liquid of the blastula to make the 3 layers
87
Q

What produces the majority of the cytoplasm in a developing zygote

A

the oocyte

88
Q

what does the fact that the egg gives the cytoplasm mean

A

that ribosomes and mitochondria come from the mother

89
Q

what does the allantois do and become

A

it transfers waste and becomes the umbilical cord

90
Q

What do restriction enzymes do

A

cut up DNA at specific fragments

91
Q

what is a nonsense mutation

A

when the codon is converted into a stop codon

92
Q

what is epistasis

A

when one gene affects the expression of another gene

93
Q

what is pleiotropy

A

when a single gene has many phenotypic outcomes

94
Q

what is polygenic inheritance

A

when one trait is controlled by many genes

95
Q

what is the equation to figure out how many different gametes could be produced by a certain set of alleles

A

2^n = number of different gametes
2 because there are 2 alleles per gene
n = number of different genes

96
Q

What is the fundamental niche/realised niche of an organism

A

fundamental niche is the environmental conditions in which an organism could live
realised niche is where the organism actually lives in the environment

97
Q

What is it called when a geographic barrier separates a population, which forms a new species

A

allopatric speciation

98
Q

what is sympatric speciation

A

when a population forms a new species without a geographic barrier

99
Q

What are the three types of natural selection and what do they cause

A

Disruptive - extreme values for the trait are valued, intermediate traits die out
directional - one extreme trait is not valued, so it goes away, increasing the aomout of the other
stabilizing - when the extreme traits aren’t valued, they go away and the intermediate values make up a higher percent of the population

100
Q

what is mutualism
commensialism
parasitism
amensalism

A

mutualism - both benefit
commensialism - one benefits, one doesn’t care
parasitism - one benefits, one is harmed
amensalism - one is harmed, the other is unaffected

DAT (14 decks)

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